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Biology Milestones Review

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In what organelle is the genetic material found inside?

a)

cell membrane

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

2.

What is the function of a chloroplast?

a)

makes proteins for animal cells

b)

allows materials in and out of the cell

c)

provides structure and support

d)

absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis

3.

What is the structure that contains DNA and directs the cell?

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

central vacuole

c)

cell wall

d)

nucleus

4.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
5.
Sac within the cytoplasm that is full of fluid; plants have one large; stores food, water, etc.
a)
vacuole
b)
cell wall
c)
lysosome
d)
ribosome
6.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
7.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
8.
Where will the water go?
a)
Into the cell
b)
Out of the cell
c)
Equally in & out - it's isotonic
d)
There is no water
9.
A blood cell is placed into the jar, as seen. Where will the water go?
a)
Into the cell
b)
Out of the cell
c)
Equally in & out - it's isotonic
d)
The water is a lie
10.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
11.
 If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt, the water is _______ compared to the cell.
a)
hypertonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
12.
During osmosis
a)
water moves from high to low concentration
b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
13.
In passive transport, molecules move from an area of __________ concentration to an area of __________ concentraiton
a)
high, low
b)
low, high
c)
water, salt
d)
active, passive
14.
Which of the following is not a type of passive transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
15.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Facilitated Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
16.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Facilitated Diffusion
c)
Active Transport Pump
d)
Osmosis
17.
The process of going from DNA to mRNA is called
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
18.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
19.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
20.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
21.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
22.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
23.
What are the products of photosynthesis (what is made)?
a)
Glucose and Chlorophyll
b)
Glucose and Oxygen
c)
Water and Light
d)
Carbon dioxide and Water
24.
What is the source of energy for photosynthesis?
a)
Carbohydrates (chemical energy)
b)
Light (radiant energy)
c)
Heat (thermal energy)
d)
Wind (kinetic energy)
25.
Which choice correctly shows the gases that enter and exit plants during photosynthesis?
a)
Enter: Oxygen
Exit: Carbon dioxide
b)
Enter: Water vapor
Exit: Glucose
c)
Enter: Carbon dioxide
Exit: Oxygen
d)
Enter: Light
Exit: Water vapor
26.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
27.
What are the raw materials of photosynthesis?
a)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
water and glucose
28.
Where does cellular respiration occur?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
29.
Glycolysis takes place in the 
a)
mitochondria
b)
cell membrane
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
30.
This is the first step of cellular respiration
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Lactic Acid Fermentation
c)
Alcoholic Fermentation
d)
Aerobic Respiration
31.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
32.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose, oxygen, and ATP

b)

Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP

c)

Lactic acid and ATP

d)

Carbon monoxide, water and ATP

33.

What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?

a)

energy and oxygen

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

water and oxygen

34.
What type of organisms do binary fission?
a)
Prokaryotes
b)
Eukaryotes
c)
Animal Cells
d)
Plant Cells
35.
The first step of Binary Fission is: 
a)
DNA coils into chromosomes
b)
DNA splits into 2 chromatids
c)
DNA replicates
d)
The cell splits
36.

Bacteria reproduce asexually by a process called

a)

replication

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

binary fission

37.
In binary fission how does the DNA of the daughter cells compare to the DNA of the parent cell? 
a)
It is only half of the amount of DNA found in the parent.
b)
It is identical.
c)
It is a mix of the parent's DNA.
d)
It has some similarities and some differences.
38.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
39.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
40.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
41.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
42.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
43.
Glycerol and fatty acids are the monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
44.
The organic compounds that have many structural purposes and are used in many processes within the
cell are called ____________________.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
45.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

46.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
47.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
48.
What are the four macromolecules?
a)
proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids
b)
monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccaharides, and proteins
c)
RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates
d)
proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
49.
Used for short term (quick) energy.
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
proteins
d)
nucleic acids
50.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
51.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
52.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
53.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
54.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
55.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

56.

Which RNA brings amino acids?

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

57.

Which RNA forms part of the ribosomes?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

58.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

59.

The goal of transcription is to make RNA.

a)

True

b)

False

60.
Translation takes place in the 
a)
ribosome
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
61.
What would be the tRNA anticodon for the mRNA codon CAG?
a)
GTC
b)
GUC
c)
CUG
d)
CAG
62.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
63.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
64.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
65.
original chromosome
ABC-DEF
mutated chromosome
AC-DEF
This is a _____________ mutation.
a)
frameshift
b)
point
c)
deletion
66.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
67.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
68.
a change in one DNA triplet that may result in a new triplet that codes for a stop codon instead of an amino acid is known as
a)
missense
b)
nonsense
c)
frameshift
d)
silent
69.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
70.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

71.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

72.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

73.
Which agricultural benefit can biotechnology  provide?
a)
developing plants that are less dependent on the sun for energy
b)
developing plants that are less sensitive to variations in environmental temperatures
c)
developing plants with inheritable traits unrelated to the genetic material they contain
d)
developing plants that will not die
74.
Which of these would be a concern about the use of biotechnology?
a)
creation of new pathogens
b)
making of new vaccines
c)
increased opportunities for jobs
d)
increased crop yield
75.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

76.

Person A is smart and has brown hair while Person B is also smart but has blonde hair.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

77.

Law of Independent Assortment

a)

every organism has two alleles which separate when gametes are produced

b)

alleles for traits are the same

c)

genes from different traits are inherited independently of one another

d)

the allele combination of an organism

78.

Law of Segregation

a)

every organism has two alleles which separate when gametes are produced

b)

alleles for traits are the same

c)

genes from different traits are inherited independently of one another

d)

the allele combination of an organism

79.
Both parents in this Punnet square
a)
are homozygous dominant
b)
are homozygous recessive
c)
are heterozygous
d)
have blue eyes
80.
The genotypic ratio here is
a)
25% blue eye 75 % brown eye 
b)
BB = 25% Bb = 50% bb = 25%
c)
BB= 50 % bb = 50%
d)
All brown eye
81.
What is the genotypic ratio here
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
82.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
83.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
84.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
85.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
86.
Is a virus considered living or non-living?
a)
Living
b)
Non-Living
c)
Neither
87.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
88.

all bacterias are

a)

prokaryotic and mulitcellular

b)

eukaryotic and multicellullar

c)

prokaryotic and unicellular

d)

eukaryotic and unicellular

89.

prokaryotic means

a)

no nucleus

b)

has a nucleus

90.

eukaryotic means

a)

no nucleus

b)

has a nucleus

91.
According to the image, ANTS are most CLOSELY related to which animal?
a)
Grasshoppers
b)
Dragonflies
c)
Butterflies
d)
Spiders
92.
Of the following sets, which organisms would be the most DISTANT relatives?
a)
worm and butterfly
b)
worm and spider
c)
ant and grasshopper
d)
fly and dragonfly
93.
According to the image, what derived characteristic might be represented with the letter B?
a)
Legs
b)
Wings
c)
Antennae
d)
Cells
94.

Who is most closely related to Taxidea taxus?

a)

Lutra lutra

b)

Panthera pardus

c)

Canis latrans

d)

Canis lupus

95.

According to this phylogenetic tree, which creature is the least related out of all pictured?

a)

Fish

b)

Frog

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

96.
 Which is a source of genetic variation?
a)
mutations
b)
artificial selection
c)
exponential growth
d)
genetic bottlenecking
97.

Structures that have the same function but different structures are...

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

98.

Structures that have similar features such as bone types and locations are called due to common ancestry are called

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

99.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
100.

_____________________are similar structures which species have, but which perform different functions. They provide evidence of a common ancestor.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

101.

Recently, scientists have been able to use ___________to find common proteins and amino acids to determine how closely related species are.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

102.

Which IS NOT used as evidence for evolution?

a)

Fossils

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Early Development/Embryos

d)

Body Structure/Anatomy

e)

DNA/Proteins

103.
In a population of spiders there are three different sizes: small, medium, and large.
---The large spiders are easily seen by predators.
---Small spiders have a difficult time finding food.
What will most likely happen to this population of spiders after many generations?
a)
Small and large spiders will mutate
b)
Medium spiders will be the most plentiful
c)
Large spiders will learn to hide from predators
d)
Small and medium spiders will be the least plentiful
104.
The habitat of a moth species included trees with both light and dark colored bark.Therefore the moth species included both light and dark colored variants.Then the light-colored trees were wiped out by a disease, and within a few years nearly all the moths in this forest were dark colored. Which of the following choices BEST explains what happened?
a)
The light moths that survived all had dark offspring in order to adapt to the change.
b)
The dark moths were less visible to predators, so mostly light moths were eaten.
c)
The few light moths that survived did not mate, and therefore they had no offspring.
d)
The light moths changed their wing pigments to darker colors to avoid being eaten.
105.
Which statement best explains how natural selection occurs?
a)
when adaptations help an organism reproduce and survive.
b)
when organisms are geographically isolated.
c)
when an organism’s offspring grow vestigial structures.
d)
when characteristics from the parent organism are inherited.
106.
Why is biodiversity important in fighting disease in food crops?
a)
It prevents one disease from wiping out an entire food crop.
b)
It prevents habitat loss of native species.
c)
It provides different foods for different populations.
d)
It prevents fungal disease from wiping out corn crops.
107.
The total number of organisms in a population.
a)
Population Size
b)
632,000
c)
Immigration
d)
Community
108.
What do you call the population size represented by the dashed-Line
a)
Carrying Capacity
b)
Limiting Factor
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Death Rate
109.
What type of population change does this graph represent
a)
Exponential Growth
b)
Massive Die-off
c)
Linear Growth
d)
Decrease in Birth-Rate
110.
The number of organisms in a population that an ecosystem can support
a)
Carrying Capacity
b)
Limiting Factor
c)
Birth Rate
d)
Ecology
111.
From 1901-1981 how would you describe the Raven Population
a)
Below Carrying Capacity
b)
Above Carrying Capacity
c)
At Carrying Capacity
d)
Bird-Like
112.

What does the graph represent?

a)

Emigration

b)

Exponential growth

c)

Immigration

d)

Logistic Growth

113.
Food, water, sunlight, shelter, and space are resources that are  __________.
a)
limiting factors
b)
wet
c)
messy
d)
found in rocks
114.
A non-native plant that causes problems to the environment that it is introduced to is called __________.
a)
Invasive
b)
Weed
c)
Indigenous
d)
Purple
115.
A keystone species has...
a)
big impact on ecosystem, big population
b)
small impact on ecosystem, small population
c)
big impact on ecosystem, small population
d)
None of these
116.
A species that maintain biodiversity by keeping prey populations controlled are called...
a)
Introduced Species
b)
Apex Predators
c)
Invasive Species
d)
Keystone Species
117.
Biodiversity is 
a)
the variety of species within an ecosystem
b)
a large number of the same species in an ecosystem
c)
an abundant amount of the same primary consumers 
d)
the ability to have an abundant source from the same species
118.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
119.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
120.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
121.
How much energy is available to be passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?
a)
100%
b)
10%
c)
50%
d)
75%
122.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source. 
123.
How do animals get carbon?
a)
they eat plants or other animals
b)
they breathe it in
124.

In photosynthesis, ______________________ is converted into glucose (a sugar)

a)

oxygen and water

b)

protein and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and water

d)

lipid and protein

125.
Carbon dioxide is a gas produced by _____ and used by _____.
a)
plants and animals 
b)
carbon and photosynthesis
c)
animals and plants 
d)
photosynthesis
126.
One human impact on the phosphorus cycle occurs through:
a)
burning of fossil fuels.
b)
the use of fertilizers.
c)
the greenhouse effect.
d)
global warming.
127.

Primary succession begins where there was no ecosystem and no soil such as

a)

a severe storm

b)

a volcanic eruption

c)

an old farm is abandoned

d)

a forest fire

128.

What is a pioneer species?

a)

Pioneer means first- so it must be the first thing to grow where nothing has grown before.

b)

Pioneer means last -it's the last thing in an ecosystem

c)

Pioneer has to do with covered wagons and traveling west during the 1800s.

129.

What is a climax community?

a)

An ecosystem that is just beginning to grow.

b)

An ecosystem that is stable and mature and has reached the final stages of succession.

c)

An ecosystem that is damaged by a forest fire.

d)

An ecosystem that is damaged by a landslide.

130.

Would occur after a wildfire, tornado or flood.

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

131.

Pioneer species would be weeds and grasses.

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

132.

A grizzly bear survives because he is well-adapted to his environment. When he reproduces he passes on those traits to his offspring. this process is called

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Random mutations

d)

Variations in a species

133.

Where are hereditary traits stored in all organisms?

a)

In the blood

b)

In the brain

c)

In the DNA

d)

In the heart

134.

If a sick person takes an antibiotic but it doesn't kill all of the bacteria causing the sickness, what might explain this?

a)

Variations in the bacteria allowed some organisms to be less affected by the antibiotic?

b)

Bacteria cannot be killed by antibiotics

c)

You cannot cure a bacterial infection

d)

Bacteria do not cause sicknesses

135.

On the Galapagos Islands, different finches evolved on different islands to fit their environment. When a species develops unique traits because it is trapped in one area this is called:

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Geologic separation

c)

General relocation

d)

Genetic differentiation

136.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
137.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
138.
Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...
a)
random chance
b)
natural selection
c)
non-random mating (sexual selection)
d)
artificial selection
139.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
140.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

141.
A change in the genetic composition of a population as a result of descending from a small number of colonizing individuals is called:
a)
founder effect
b)
bottleneck
c)
genetic drift
d)
gene flow

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