wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology Exam

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 24hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following do scientists NOT use to support ideas?

a)

Opinions

b)

experiments

c)

evidence

d)

investigations

2.

Which of the following is UNETHICAL behavior in scientific investigations?

a)

allowing peers to review investigations

b)

following guidelines for medical experimentss

c)

reporting inaccurate data

d)

basing investigations on someone else's work

3.

A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders in ponds in the Rocky Mountains was declining. This was a(n)

a)

hypothesis

b)

theory

c)

observations

d)

control

4.

A hypothesis is a

a)

definite answer to a given promblem

b)

testable possible explanation of an observation

c)

proven statement

d)

concluding statement

5.

The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the ANOPHELES mosquito spread malaria from person to person. This suggested was a

a)

prediction

b)

theory

c)

hypothesis

d)

scientific "truth"

6.

Most typically, the order in which the steps of scientific investigations are applied is

a)

controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions, questions

b)

observations, controlled experiment, hypothesis, analysis of results, conclusions

c)

questions, observations, analysis of results, controlled experiment, conclusions, hypothesis

d)

observations, questions, hypothesis, controlled experiment, conclusions, analysis of results, conclusions

7.

Scientific hypothesis are most often tested by the process of

a)

communicating

b)

inferring

c)

experimenting

d)

analyzing data

8.

A planned procedure to test a hypothesis is called a(n)

a)

prediction

b)

control

c)

experiment

d)

variable

9.

The variable that is measured in an experiment is the ____ variable.

a)

dependent

b)

control

c)

independent

d)

experimental

10.

A general explanation for a broad range of data is called a

a)

hypothesis

b)

prediction

c)

theory

d)

controlled experiment

11.

Scientists build theories from many

a)

experiments that support hypothesis

b)

hypothesis that are rejected

c)

experiments with different variables

d)

untested ideas

12.

A specialized tool used to magnify organisms so that they can be observed is a

a)

pipette

b)

satellite

c)

microscope

d)

laminar-flow hook

13.

You can work safely in the science lab by

a)

taking shortcuts in procedures

b)

waiting until the end of experiments to clean area

c)

estimating measurements of chemicals

d)

following all instructions

14.

All of the following are important for working safely in a science laboratory except

a)

tasting chemicals

b)

working cautiously

c)

measuring chemical precisely

d)

wearing safety goggles

15.

Biology is the study of

a)

life

b)

weather

c)

minerals

d)

energy

16.

All living things maintain a balance within their cells and with the environment through the process of

a)

growth

b)

homeostasis

c)

development

d)

evolution

17.

The energy that drives metabolism in animals comes from

a)

homeostasis

b)

water

c)

food

d)

heredity

18.

The process by which organisms make more of their own kind is called

a)

heredity

b)

metabolism

c)

growth

d)

reproduction

19.

Children tend to resemble their parents due to

a)

heredity

b)

metabolism

c)

responsiveness

d)

homeostasis

20.

A field of sunflowers facing the sun is an example of

a)

metabolism

b)

responsiveness

c)

growth

d)

heredity

21.

All the genetic material contained in an individual or a species is called its

a)

epidemiology

b)

DNA fingerprint

c)

genome

d)

genetic code

22.

Atoms are not composed of

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

chemical bonds

23.

The electrons of an atoms

a)

are found in the nucleus along with the protons

b)

occupy the space surrounding the nucleus

c)

have a positive charge

d)

are attached to the positive charge of neutrons

24.

The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a carbon

a)

molecule

b)

atom

c)

macro-molecule

d)

carbon

25.

A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)

a)

compound

b)

element

c)

cell

d)

molecule

26.

All matter is composed of

a)

cells

b)

atoms

c)

molecules

d)

carbon

27.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

a)

opposite charges

b)

no charges

c)

the same charge

d)

neutral charges

28.

The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called a(n)

a)

hydrogen bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

ionic bond

d)

water bond

29.

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial charge on the other side is called a(n)

a)

non-polar molecule

b)

charged molecule

c)

polar molecule

d)

ion

30.

Non-polar molecules have

a)

no negative or positive ends

b)

only a negative end

c)

both negative and positive ends

d)

only a positive end

31.

When placed in the same container, oil and water do not mix because

a)

they are both polar

b)

they are both non-polar

c)

water is polar and oil is non-polar

d)

water is non-polar and oil is polar

32.

Attractions between water molecules are called

a)

covalent bonds

b)

polar bonds

c)

ionic bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

33.

Water is a polar molecule because

a)

it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom

b)

it has charge

c)

different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges

d)

it does not have a charge

34.

Which is not a unique property of water?

a)

frozen water floats

b)

water remains a large amount of heat

c)

water molecules stick to each other

d)

water cools rapidly

35.

Acidic solutions have a pH that is

a)

less than 7

b)

a negative number

c)

between 7 and 14

d)

more than 7

36.

Which of the following is not a large bio-molecule?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

ice

d)

nucleic acid

37.

The building blocks of most bio-molecules contain the element

a)

carbon

b)

calcium

c)

nitrogen

d)

sodium

38.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

fats

d)

sugars

39.

Polysaccharides are

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

40.

Refer to the illustration above. This molecule is a

a)

carbohydrate

b)

nucleic acid

c)

lipid

d)

protein

41.

Lipids are

a)

soluble in water

b)

made of chains of amino acids

c)

linked together with peptide bonds

d)

used by the body for storing energy

42.

Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?

a)

amino acids

b)

long chains of carbon and hydrogen

c)

nucleotide

d)

sugar

43.

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotide

c)

monosaccharides

d)

sugars

44.

Long chains of amino acids are found in

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

sugars

45.

The two types of nucleic acids are

a)

RNA and ATP

b)

DNA and ATP

c)

DNA and RNA

d)

nucleotide and ATP

46.

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

a)

amino acids

b)

fats

c)

nucleotide

d)

sugars

47.

DNA stores

a)

fat

b)

carbohydrates

c)

energy

d)

hereditary information

48.

Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?

a)

three phosphate groups

b)

a sugar

c)

a base

d)

a phosphate group

49.

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy in the bonds between its

a)

hydrogen atoms

b)

carbon atoms

c)

nucleotide

d)

phosphate groups

50.

Reducing activation energy

a)

is a violation of the laws of nature

b)

requires higher temperatures than those found within cells

c)

occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture

d)

is accomplished by the action of enzymes on reactants

51.

An enzyme

a)

is used up in a reaction

b)

raises the activation energy of a reaction

c)

bonds with an active site on a substance molecule

d)

lowers the activation energy of a reaction

52.

Which of the following led to the discovery of cells?

a)

electricity

b)

computers

c)

microscopes

d)

calculators

53.

Which of the following is part of the cell theory?

a)

all living things are made of one cell

b)

cells are the basic units of structure and function in organisms

c)

most cells arise from existing cells

d)

cells are non-living units that make up organiams

54.

When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area

a)

increases at the same rate

b)

remains the same

c)

increases at a faster rate

d)

increases at a slower rate

55.

Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because

a)

the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large

b)

materials cannot enter the cell if its too large

c)

the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes

d)

waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small

56.

The size to which cells can grow is limited by their

a)

location

b)

structure

c)

function

d)

surface area-to-volume ratio

57.

To function most efficiently, a cell's size must be

a)

large

b)

medium

c)

small

d)

any size

58.

One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes do not have

a)

DNA

b)

a cell membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a nucleus

59.

Which cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and DNA?

a)

only animal cells

b)

only prokaryotic cells

c)

only eukaryotic cells

d)

all cells

60.

The genetic material that provides instructions for making proteins is

a)

DNA

b)

cytosol

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a ribosome

61.

Only eukaryotic cells have

a)

DNA

b)

membrane-bound organelles

c)

ribosomes

d)

cytoplasm

62.

The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the

a)

nucleolus

b)

nuclear wall

c)

ribosome

d)

nuclear envelope

63.

The organelle that moves proteins and other substances through the cell is the

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

mitochondrion

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

cytoplasm

64.

Plant cells have a large membrane- bound compartment in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This compartment is called the

a)

mitochodrion

b)

chloroplast

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

central vacuole

65.

The organelle that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins is the

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

ribosome

c)

lysosomes

d)

Golgi apparatus

66.

A cell that requires a lot of energy might contain large numbers of

a)

chromosomes

b)

vacuoles

c)

mitochondria

d)

lysosomes

67.

The organelles associated with plant photosynthesis are the

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplasts

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

vacuoles

68.

All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except

a)

a cell wall

b)

a cell membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

69.

Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?

a)

chloroplast

b)

fungus

c)

bacterium

d)

muscle cell

70.

Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane?

a)

protein

b)

phospholipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

71.

Phospholipids are molecules that have

a)

one polar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails

b)

one polar phosphate head and two non-polar fatty acid tails

c)

one polar phosphate head and one polar fatty acid tail

d)

one non-polar phosphate head and two polar fatty acid tails

72.

As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances

a)

always remains greater inside a membrane

b)

eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane

c)

always remains greater outside of a membrane

d)

becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane

73.

Diffusion is the movement of a substance

a)

only through a lipid bi-layer membrane

b)

from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration

c)

only in lipids

d)

from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration

74.

Which of the following does not require energy?

a)

diffusion

b)

endocytosis

c)

active transport

d)

sodium-potassium pump

75.

The diffusion of water into or out of a cell is called

a)

solubility

b)

osmosis

c)

selective transport

d)

endocytosis

76.

Osmosis is a type of

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

simple diffusion

d)

endocytosis

77.

Which of the following statements about an isotonic solution and a cell is correct?

a)

the solution has the same solute concentration that the cytoplasm does

b)

the solution has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm does

c)

a cell in the solution will lose water

d)

a cell in the solution will gain water

78.

Unlike passive transport, active transport

a)

requires energy

b)

moves substances down their concentration gradient

c)

does not involve carrier proteins

d)

moves water across the cell membrane

79.

Which of the following is a form of active transport?

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

sodium-potassium pump

80.

Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by

a)

exocytosis

b)

endocytosis

c)

the sodium-potassium pump

d)

channel proteins

81.

Most of the energy used by life on Earth comes from the

a)

sun

b)

rotation of Earth

c)

moon

d)

weather

82.

Organisms that are not autotrophs

a)

get energy from inorganic molecules

b)

can survive without energy

c)

must consume other organisms to get energy

d)

get energy from sunlight

83.

Light energy is converted to chemical energy through the process of

a)

cellular respiration

b)

fermentaion

c)

photosynthesis

d)

glycolysis

84.

Which of the following organisms do not carry out photosynthesis?

a)

plants

b)

certain prokaryotes

c)

animals

d)

algae

85.

ATP is composed of a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and

a)

one phosphate group

b)

two phosphate groups

c)

three phosphate groups

d)

four phosphate groups

86.

When a phosphate group is removed from an ATP molecule,

a)

a substantial amount of energy is released

b)

an enzyme is formed

c)

energy is stored

d)

a substantial amount of energy is used

87.

An enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of ATP is

a)

ATP synthesis

b)

ADP synthesis

c)

glucose synthesis

d)

phosphate synthesis

88.

The space inside the inner membrane of a chloroplast is called the

a)

thylakoid

b)

reaction center

c)

pigment

d)

stroma

89.

Chlorophyll is green because

a)

it absorbs green wavelength of light

b)

it absorbs blue and yellow wavelengths, which make green

c)

it reflects green wavelengths of light

d)

of an optical illusion caused by transmitted light

90.

The major atmospheric by-product of photosynthesis is

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

oxygen

91.

Because of photosynthesis

a)

the atmosphere is rich in oxygen gas

b)

animals can get energy directly from the sun

c)

plants produce carbon dioxide

d)

water is constantly being produced

92.

During the final stage of photosynthesis, sugar are produced from

a)

oxygen

b)

sunlight

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

93.

When glycolysis occurs

a)

a molecule of glucose is split

b)

a molecule of glucose is formed

c)

photosynthesis begins

d)

pyruvates are combined

94.

The process of cellular respiration

a)

is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis

b)

breaks down food molecules to release stored energy

c)

occurs before plants are able to continue photosynthesis

d)

occurs only in animals

95.

Cellular respiration takes place in two stages:

a)

glycolysis, then photosynthesis

b)

electron transport chain, then fermentation

c)

glycolysis, then aerobic respiration

d)

fermentation, then glycolysis

96.

Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?

a)

electron transport

b)

glycolysis

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Calvin cycle

97.

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is

a)

water

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

oxygen

98.

The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is

a)

respiration

b)

oxidation

c)

fermentation

d)

photosynthesis

99.

Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue under

a)

anaerobic conditions

b)

aerobic conditions

c)

photosynthetic conditions

d)

low-light conditions

100.

If oxygen is absent during the second stage of cellular respiration,

a)

fermentation will occur

b)

the Krebs cycle begins

c)

the electron transport chain works more efficiently

d)

glycolysis stops

101.

Cells produce ATP most efficiently in the presence of

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

glucose

102.

Which of the following processes produces the most ATP?

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

glycolysis

c)

lactic acid fermentation

d)

alcoholic fermentation

103.

In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by

a)

breaking apart into separate genes

b)

extending to form very long, thin molecules

c)

wrapping tightly around histones

d)

being enzymatically changed into a protein

104.

Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?

a)

the cells gets too big to process and transport nutrients

b)

new cells are needed for growth

c)

DNA cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells

d)

the cell becomes bored

105.

The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell's life is

a)

G1

b)

mitosis

c)

G2

d)

S

106.

What occurs after cytokinesis is completed?

a)

the cell organizes its microtublues

b)

the cell begins to replicate its DNA

c)

the cell enters G1

d)

the cell enters G2

107.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?

a)

cytokinesis-> mitosis-> G1 -> S-> G2

b)

S-> G1-> G2->mitosis-> cytokinesis

c)

G1-> S-> G2-> mitosis -> cytokinesis

d)

mitosis-> G1-> S-> G2-> cytokinesis

108.

Cells that are not dividing remain in the

a)

mitosis phase

b)

synthesis phase

c)

first gap phase

d)

second gap phase

109.

The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by

a)

DNA replication

b)

cell division

c)

replication of mitochondria and other organelles

d)

the division of cytoplasm

110.

The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as

a)

a gap

b)

telophase

c)

mitosis

d)

interphase

111.

The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

112.

The cell in this illustration is the

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

113.

This illustration is a image of

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

114.

As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis

a)

receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell

b)

receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell

c)

donates a chromosome to the parent cell

d)

receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell

115.

Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of

a)

a belt of protein threads

b)

a cell plate

c)

spindle fibers

d)

centrioles

116.

Budding is an example of

a)

endosymbiosis

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

meiosis

d)

sexual reproduction

117.

The process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be

a)

eukaryotic or prokaryotic

b)

asexual or sexual

c)

zygotic or gametic

d)

haploid or diploid

118.

Sexual reproduction includes

a)

budding

b)

fragmentation

c)

binary fission

d)

fertilization

119.

Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?

a)

XY

b)

XX

c)

XO

d)

OO

120.

Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for

a)

different traits

b)

the same traits

c)

DNA

d)

sex

121.

In humans, gametes contain

a)

22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

b)

1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes

c)

45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

d)

1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes

122.

In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have

a)

two X chromosomes

b)

one X and one Y chromosome

c)

two Y chromosomes

d)

46 chromosomes

123.

The X and Y chromosomes are called

a)

extra chromosomes

b)

homologous chromosomes

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

autosomes

124.

How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16

125.

The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human egg cell is

a)

46

b)

92

c)

23

d)

12.5

126.

The process shown is

a)

mitosis

b)

chromosomal mutation

c)

meisois

d)

dominance

127.

Separation of homologous chromosomes occurs during

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis I

c)

meiosis II

d)

fertilization

128.

When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes

a)

mutate in the first division

b)

produce new genes

c)

decrease in number

d)

exchange corresponding segments of DNA

129.

The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that

a)

the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I

b)

centromeres do not exist in anaphase I

c)

chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I

d)

crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis

130.

The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes

a)

ensures that variations within a species never occur

b)

acts as a source of variations within a species

c)

always produces genetic disorders

d)

is called genetic crossing

131.

Crossing-over occurs

a)

during prophase II

b)

during fertilization

c)

during prophase I

d)

at the centromere

132.

Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations?

a)

random fertilization

b)

cytokinesis

c)

independent assortment

d)

crossing-over

133.

During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally?

a)

the sperm cell

b)

the ovary

c)

the cytoplasm

d)

the DNA

134.

To create new haploid cells during the haploid life cycle, the zygote undergoes

a)

mitosis

b)

fertilization

c)

fusion

d)

meiosis

135.

The scientific study of heredity id called

a)

meiosis

b)

crossing-over

c)

genetics

d)

pollination

136.

The "father" of genetics was

a)

A. knight

b)

Hans Krebs

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Charles Darwin

137.

An allele that is always expressed whenever it is present is called

a)

dominant

b)

phenotypic

c)

recessive

d)

superior

138.

Mendel's law of segregation states that

a)

pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separation occurs during gamete formation

b)

pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation

c)

each pair of alleles remains together when gametes are formed

d)

the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed

139.

The phenotype of an organism

a)

is used to represent its genetic composition

b)

is the physical appearance of a trait

c)

occurs only in dominant individuals

d)

cannot be seen

140.

If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be

a)

homozygous for a trait

b)

haploid for the trait

c)

heterozyous for the trait

d)

mutated

141.

Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozyous for tallness?

a)

T

b)

TT

c)

Tt

d)

tt

142.

The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determinded using a

a)

ratio

b)

dihybrid cross

c)

probability formula

d)

test cross

143.

If a characteristics is sex- linked, the gene for it is found on

a)

a sex chromosome

b)

an autosome

c)

a linked chromosome

d)

an allele

144.

What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

66%

d)

100%

Similar Resources on Wayground

Geologic Time and the Theory of Evolution

144 questions

Geologic Time and the Theory of Evolution

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Spring Semester Review #2

148 questions

Spring Semester Review #2

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Principles of Health Fall Review

144 questions

Principles of Health Fall Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Life's Origins Biology Unit Test Review

140 questions

Life's Origins Biology Unit Test Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 11th Grade

Biology Check-In / Midterm Review 1

145 questions

Biology Check-In / Midterm Review 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

ĐK GKI Sinh11

142 questions

ĐK GKI Sinh11

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

Unit 3: Plant Test

145 questions

Unit 3: Plant Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Before the EOC Review

140 questions

Before the EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade