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Biology Check-In / Midterm Review 1

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 5hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A scientist has discovered an unidentified organism. Cell theory states that which of the following must be true about this new living thing?

a)

It cells come from preexisting cells.

b)

All its cells have different functions.

c)

It will not be made up of cells.

d)

All its cells are considered nonliving.

2.

Many scientists, including Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann, contributed to cell theory. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic tenets of cell theory?

a)

Cells are basic units of organisms.

b)

All living things are composed of cells.

c)

Cells can only arise from other cells.

d)

All cells must eventually die.

3.

What sort of evidence would support at least one of the components of cell theory?

a)

Rocks and other nonliving things are not composed of cells.

b)

Cells are observed converting one form of energy into another.

c)

A microscope is necessary to make observations of nearly all cells.

d)

The origin of all cells observed can be traced to previous cells.

4.

Between 15,000 and 18,000 new species of organisms are discovered each year. Cell theory states that which of the following must be true about each new kind of organism?

a)

It must be made up of one or more cells.

b)

It cells must be able to make their own food.

c)

All its cells must perform the same function.

d)

Some of its cells must include a cell wall.

5.

What can be concluded regarding the relationship between temperature and enzyme activity?

a)

Temperature changes the kind of enzyme required for a reaction.

b)

Enzymes function best in a small range of temperatures.

c)

Increasing temperature causes a decrease in enzyme activity.

d)

Enzymes will catalyze any reaction at any temperature.

6.

Enzymes are biological substances, known as catalytic proteins. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of enzymes?

a)

Enzymes catalyze reactions by lowering the activation energy

b)

Enzymes can react with any reactant.

c)

The structure of the enzyme determines the chemical reaction.

d)

The enzymes bind to the active site of the substrate.

7.

Which graph below correctly represents the effect of an enzyme on the minimum amount of energy needed to start the chemical reaction in which it is involved?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

8.

The reactants that enzymes act upon are called substrates. Which of the following is true of enzymes and substrates?

a)

Activation energy increases with the use of an enzyme.

b)

Any location on the substrate works as a binding site.

c)

The shape of an enzyme allows it to bind with specific substrates.

d)

Enzymes can only be used once per substrate.

9.

Which characteristic explains the similarity between proteins and lipids?

a)

Contain nitrogen as part of their structure

b)

Are composed of fatty acid chains

c)

Are made up of chains of smaller subunits

d)

Act as enzymes and contain peptide bonds

10.

The table shown here describes the characteristics of a biomolecule. What biomolecule is described by these characteristics?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Nucleic acid

d)

Lipid

11.

This illustration provided here shows the components and structure of a biomolecule. What information shown in the diagram provides the best evidence that his biomolecule is a nucleic acid?

a)

The numbers of hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen are in a 1:2:1 ratio

b)

The presence of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base

c)

The number of hydrogen ions relative to the amount of carbon

d)

The presence of amine, carboxyl, and side chain groups

12.

Which of the following matches the correct biomolecule with its function?

a)

Lipids: molecules that build the genetic code

b)

Carbohydrates: used as the primary source of energy

c)

Proteins: help grow and repair tissue

d)

Nucleic acids: move substances into and out of the cell

13.

The diagram shown is of a biomolecule. Biomolecules can be identified by their components and structure. What information provided by the diagram indicates that his biomolecule is a protein?

a)

The shape of the molecule allowing the side chain group on top

b)

The amount of carbon relative to the amount of hydrogen

c)

The presence of amine, carboxyl, and side chain groups

d)

The double-bonded carbon and oxygen in the carboxyl group

14.

Which of the following are the molecules that make up muscles and organs, transmit signals between cells, and constitute immune molecules?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

15.

Biomolecules are molecules, often macromolecules, that perform specialized functions within cells. Which of the following is the correct biomolecule and function of this image?

a)

Lipids; move substances into and out of the cell

b)

Carbohydrates; help grow and repair tissue

c)

Proteins; used as the primary source of energy

d)

Cholesterol; molecules that build the genetic code

16.

A dissection microscope provides a three-dimensional image, due to what feature?

a)

A fixed objective lens

b)

A mirror light source

c)

A larger stage

d)

Two ocular lenses

17.

How is the image provided by a scanning electron microscope (SEM) different from the image provided by a compound microscope?

a)

The image provided by an SEM is at a higher resolution.

b)

The image provided by a compound microscope is three-dimensional.

c)

The image provided by an SEM is at a lower magnification.

d)

The image provided by a compound microscope is black-and-white.

18.

Specimens prepared for viewing must be coated in a reflective metal, such as gold, when which kind of microscope is used?

a)

Dissecting microscope

b)

Compound light microscope

c)

Scanning electron microscope

d)

Stereo microscope

19.

Scientists must make informed choices about which tools to use for various tasks, including which kind of microscope is best suited to a particular investigation. Which of the following is NOT important to know in determining which kind of microscope should be used to view a particular specimen?

a)

The type of material the specimen is made of

b)

The age of the particular specimen

c)

The size of the specimen being observed

d)

The magnification required to view the specimen clearly

20.

The magnification of a sample is controlled by changing the objective lenses in which of the following types of microscopes?

a)

Compound microscope

b)

Dissection microscope

c)

Scanning electron microscope

d)

Transmission electron microscope

21.

Which of the following is not one of the 4 major macromolecules of living things?

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

lipid

d)

protein

22.

When 2 water molecules are attracted to each other due to polarity.

a)

molarity

b)

ionic bonding

c)

adhesion

d)

cohesion

23.

A substrate bind to the __________ of an enzyme.

a)

product

b)

reactants

c)

antigen

d)

active site

24.

Which is true about unsaturated fats?

a)

made of nucelotides

b)

are a solid at room temperature

c)

they have a double bond

d)

they do not have a double bond

25.

There are ______ different amino acids.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

100

d)

200

26.

A change in temperature or pH can cause an enzyme to change shape. An enzyme is said to be _____________ if it shape changes.

a)

activated

b)

denatured

c)

produced

d)

functional

27.

A monosaccharide is a monomer (building block) of ______

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

28.

Which polymer can store energy for a long time?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

glucose

d)

lipids

29.

Which of the following are examples of Nucleic acids?

a)

DNA and RNA

b)

glycerol and fatty acids

c)

glucose and fructose

d)

amino acids and fatty acids

30.

What does a catalyst do?

a)

turn on an enzyme

b)

turn off an enzyme

c)

increase or decrease pH

d)

lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction

31.

Which lipid is a liquid (oil) at room temperature?

a)

saturated fats

b)

unsaturated fats

c)

coagulated fats

d)

congealed fats

32.

Why does ice float?

a)

It's cold

b)

It has a higher polarity than water

c)

It's less dense than liquid water

d)

It's more dense than liquid water

33.

What element makes macromolecules organic?

a)

carbon

b)

oxygen

c)

hydrogen

d)

nitrogen

34.

Proteins are composed of smaller parts called

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

oleic acids

d)

amino acids

35.

Which of the following is made of mostly protein?

a)

saliva

b)

bone

c)

muscle

d)

ear wax

36.

What is activation energy?

a)

energy stored in molecules

b)

energy inside of enzymes

c)

energy released from a chemical reaction

d)

energy needed to start a chemical reaction

37.

How do enzyme affect activation energy?

a)

increase the amount of energy needed

b)

lower the amount of energy needed

c)

increase or lower, depends on the pH

d)

no effect on activation energy

38.

Which of the following do not mix or bond to water?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

39.

Sucrose (disaccharide) can be broken into 2 simple sugars (glucose & fructose) with the help of an enzyme. Sucrose is the ____________ in this interaction.

a)

enzyme

b)

product

c)

substrate

d)

catalyst

40.

What is this?

a)

fatty acid

b)

amino acid

c)

monosaccharide (glucose)

d)

nucleic acid

41.

if you consume more carbohydrates than you use for energy in a day, you will store the excess as________

a)

protein

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

amino acids

42.

When water clings to other things such as paper towels or the inside of a plant stem as it "climbs" up.

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

43.

cofactors and coenzymes

a)

turn on enzymes

b)

turn off enzymes

c)

change an enzymes shape

d)

denature enzymes

44.

What is this?

a)

an enzyme

b)

amino acid

c)

nucleotide

d)

lipid

45.

Many monosaccharides joined together

a)

disaccharide

b)

polysaccharide

c)

nucleotide

d)

phospholipid

46.

In what type of cell would you find a chloroplast?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Animal

c)

Plant

d)

Fungus

47.

When placed in a hypertonic solution, a cell will

a)

Diffuse

b)

Shrink

c)

Swell

d)

Stay the same

48.

Eukaryotic cells

a)

Have a nucleus and organelles

b)

Do not have a nucleus and organelles

c)

Divide very quickly

d)

Make up only single celled organisms

49.

Facilitated diffusion is a type of active transport.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Uncontrolled division of cells may result in

a)

Cancer

b)

Tumors

c)

Masses of cells

d)

All of these

51.

Moving materials from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration is

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

52.

Structures that make the spindle fibers during mitosis are called

a)

Centromeres

b)

Centrioles

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Nucleus

53.

The cell membrane is made of nonpolar, fatty acid heads and polar, phosphate tails.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What phase of mitosis is Cell #5 in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

55.

The lines spanning all the way across Cell #3 represent what structure?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Centromeres

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Spindle fibers

56.

What phase of mitosis is Cell #4 in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

57.

Which of these cells is NOT in a phase of mitosis?

a)

Cell #1

b)

Cell #2

c)

Cell #3

d)

Cell #4

e)

Cell #5

58.

What phase of mitosis is Cell #3 in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

59.

What happens in the S phase of interphase?

a)

Chromosomes are copied

b)

Cell growth

c)

Protein production

d)

Organelle production

60.

What does Step 5 represent in this diagram?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Cytokinesis

61.

The cell spends the majority of its life in

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

None of these

62.

Cell theory states that

a)

Organisms are the basic unit of life

b)

Both cells and organisms are the basic units of life

c)

The questions of the basic unit of life are too abstract to answer

d)

None of the above

63.

Plants have a large ______________ for storing water.

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

vacuole

d)

golgi body

64.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nucleus, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
65.
Examine the cell diagrams shown. Which of the following choices identifies the eukaryotic cell for the correct reason?
a)
Cell A, because it is a single cell
b)
Cell A, because a nuclear membrane contains the cell’s DNA
c)
Cell B, because it is much smaller
d)

Cell B, because it contains genetic material
66.
In cell biology, the nucleus is a membrane-enclosed organelle found in eukaryotic cells. Eukaryotes usually have a single nucleus, but a few cell types, such as mammalian red blood cells, have no nuclei, and a few others have many. Which is the role of nucleus in eukaryotes?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
67.
What do all of these organisms have in common?
a)
They all have uniform offspring
b)
They are all made of cells
c)
They possess the same features
d)
They have the same internal and external structures
68.
The levels of organization from the simplest to the most complex are
a)
Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism
b)
Organisms, organs, tissues, cells, organ systems
c)
Cells, organs, organ systems, tissues, organism
d)
Tissues, cells, organs, organism
69.
Controls what enters and leaves the cell
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Ribosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
70.
Permeable means
a)
things can pass through
b)
the concentration levels are different
c)
it is permanent
d)
things are stuck
71.

What does a Lysosome do

a)

Destroy old organelles that no longer carry out their function

b)

Recycle old organelles

c)

Gives old organelles water

d)

Makes new organelles

72.

The Mitochondria can be called the "__________" of the cell.

a)

Leader

b)

Powerhouse

c)

Producer

d)

Energy

73.

The cell membrane can also be called the "____________"

a)

Jelly Membrane

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Plasma Membrane

d)

Permeable Membrane

74.

Which Endoplasmic Reticulum has Ribosomes.

a)

Both Endoplasmic Reticulums

b)

None of the Endoplasmic Reticulums

c)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

75.

Protist Are ________________

a)

Eukaryote Cells

b)

Prokaryote Cells

c)

Both

d)

None

76.

Cells come from:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

The Nucleus

d)

Existing Cells

77.

Cell Membranes Are:

a)

Non-Permeable

b)

Selectively Permeable/Semi-Permeable

c)

Permeable

d)

Transparent

78.

The nucleus is like the "Control Center" of the cell. It also contains most of the cells _______.

a)

Proteins

b)

RNA

c)

Chromosomes

d)

DNA

79.

All the proteins of a cell are made by the:

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Chromoplasts

80.

The cells wall is more likely to be found in:

a)

Both

b)

Animal Cells

c)

Plant Cells

d)

None

81.

What is E pointing to?

a)

a protein channel

b)

a protein pump

c)

a carbohydrate chain

d)

the fatty end of a phospholipid molecule

82.

Large molecules would travel through which portion of this diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

83.

Water cannot fit through the phospholipid membrane because...

a)

water molecules are way too big

b)

water molecules are way too small

c)

water molecules are non-polar (not charged)

d)

water molecules are polar (charged)

84.

What happens to an animal cell that is placed in very salty (hypertonic) solution?

a)

nothing

b)

the cell will swell up with water

c)

the cell will shrink just a little

d)

the cell will crenate (shrink completely, losing all water)

85.

What happens to a plant cell placed in distilled water (hypotonic solution)

a)

nothing

b)

the plant cell will swell and burst

c)

the plant cell will swell but only stiffen

d)

the plant cell will crenate (shrivel up)

86.

Bacteria are...

a)

prokaryote cells

b)

eukaryote cells

87.

plant cells are...

a)

prokaryote cells

b)

eukaryote cells

88.

The key difference between a prokaryote and eukaryote cell is...

a)

one has a cell membrane, the other does not

b)

one has a nucleus, the other does not

c)

one has DNA, the other does not

d)

one has ribosomes, the other does not

89.

Ribosomes are produced by the nucleus. What is the function of a ribosome once it is finished?

a)

to create DNA

b)

to transport water molecules

c)

to power the protein pumps

d)

to assemble protein molecules

90.

Cells that need a lot of energy need more of which organelle?

a)

nucleus

b)

golgi body

c)

mitochondria

d)

vacuoles

91.

How many water molecules are absorbed during photosynthesis and are never released as-is back into the environment?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

1

92.

The reaction pictured here is most like:

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

93.

A key difference between respiration and photosynthesis is...

a)

respiration produces sugar, photosynthesis uses it

b)

photosynthesis produces sugar, respiration uses it

94.

Energy is stored in what 2 part(s) of the glucose molecule?

a)

the carbon bonds

b)

the hydrogen atoms

c)

the water groups

d)

the phosphate groups

95.

What is the name of this molecule?

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

chlorophyll

d)

glucose

96.

Substances that are absorbed to do a reaction are called reactants. Which 2 substances are reactants for photosynthesis?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

glucose

97.

Which substances are reactants for cellular respiration?

a)

glucose

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

98.

Products are substances that are released or produced by a chemical reaction. Which 3 are products of photosynthesis

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

99.

Which 3 are products of cellular respiration?

a)

glucose

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

water

100.

Which organelle would NOT be found in a bacterial cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cell membrane

c)

ribosome

101.

Bacteria function on energy made in which step of cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis

b)

citric acid cycle

c)

kreb's cycle

d)

electron transport

102.

Which organelle would be like the power plant of the cell?

a)

golgi body

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nucleus

d)

mitochondria

103.

Which organelle holds water for the cell?

a)

golgi body

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

vacuole

d)

mitochondria

104.

Which organelle breaks down toxins that enter the cell?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

vacuole

d)

mitochondria

105.

Sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions are pumped in and out of nerve cells through the process of...

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

active transport

106.

Glucose, a large molecule, enters a cell through the process of...

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

active transport

107.

Which of these are differences between plant and animal cells? (choose all that are right)

a)

centrioles verses microtubules

b)

nucleus verses no nucleus

c)

chloroplasts in one but not the other

d)

cell wall plus membrane verses membrane only

108.

The cell pictured here must be a...

a)

bacterial cell

b)

plant cell

c)

animal cell

d)

human cell

109.

Photosynthesis happens in which organelle?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

110.

The first step of cellular respiration happens where in the cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

111.

The 2nd and 3rd steps of cellular respiration happens where in the cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

112.

Which step of cellular respiration provides the most energy (ATP) for the cell?

a)

glycolysis

b)

kreb's cycle

c)

citric acid cycle

d)

electron transport

113.

Which molecule below has been "loaded" or filled up with energy?

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

114.

Which molecule below is carrying a hydrogen atom (H)?

a)

NADP

b)

NADPH

115.

Energy is stored in an "empty" ADP molecule, turning it into an ATP. When the cell uses the energy from ATP, it turns back into ADP. A cell that is full of ADP molecules is a cell that...

a)

has just stored a ton of energy

b)

has just used up a ton of its energy

116.

The cell wall provides a plant with protection, structure, and...

a)

helps prevent the cell from bursting

b)

helps prevent the cell from wilting (shrinking)

117.

The function of the golgi body (apparatus) is to...

a)

break down toxins

b)

build ribosomes

c)

build proteins

d)

package lipids & proteins to send out of the cell

118.

Which process happens spontaneously (without requiring effort or work) because it relies on kinetic energy of the molecules themselves?

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion (in general)

119.

The red molecule shown in the diagram is going to diffuse in which direction, based on the concentration gradient?

a)

into the cell

b)

out of the cell

120.

Which process would be needed to pump the remaining red molecules (shown in the diagram) out of the cell?

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

active transport

121.

A (Adenine)

G (Guanine)

T (Thymine)

C (Cytosine)

U (Uracil)

are called

a)

Phosphate Bases

b)

Hydrogen Bases

c)

Nitrogen Bases

122.

What parts make up a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate Group

b)

Hydrogen Base

c)

Sugar

d)

Nitrogen Base

123.

What makes up the backbone of DNA?

a)

Phosphate group and Nitrogen Base

b)

Phosphate group and sugar

c)

Sugar and Nitrogen Base

124.

In DNA, A pairs with

(a)  

125.

In DNA, G pairs with

a)

T

b)

A

c)

C

d)

U

126.

In RNA, A pairs with

a)

T

b)

U

c)

C

d)

G

127.

DNA sequence is TCA

What is the mRNA sequence?

a)

CAT

b)

GAT

c)

AGT

d)

AGU

128.

The process of DNA to mRNA is

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Relocation

129.

The process of mRNA to a Protein

(a)  

130.

Transcription and Translation takes place in what parts of the cell?

a)

Nucleus and Golgi Apparatus

b)

Nucleus and Ribosomes in the cytoplasm

c)

Ribosomes in the cytoplasm and Golgi Apparatus

d)

Ribosomes in the cytoplasm and Nucleus

131.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
132.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
133.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

134.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
135.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

b)

deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond

c)

deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus

d)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

136.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
137.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
138.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
139.
The following picture must be
a)
DNA because it's double stranded
b)
RNA because it's single stranded
c)
DNA because it's single stranded
d)
RNA because it's double stranded
140.
What does this picture represent?
a)
amino acid
b)
base pairing
c)
nucleotide
d)
the DNA molecule
141.

What determines the type of protein produced by a ribosome

a)

amount of sugar

b)

sequence of DNA nucleotides

c)

sequence of phosphates

d)

amount of nitrogen

142.

What is the correct sequence?

a)

DNA -> RNA -> protein

b)

Protein -> DNA - > RNA

c)

DNA -> Protein -> RNA

d)

DNA -> RNA -> DNA -> Protein

143.

You use the codon chart to find the correct _______

a)

sugar

b)

nitrogen base

c)

phosphate

d)

amino acid

144.

Where does transcription take place?

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

cytoplasm

d)

ribosome

145.

What does tRNA do during translation?

a)

it brings a specific segment of DNA to the ribosome for transcription

b)

it brings any amino acid to the ribosome

c)

it brings a specific amino acid (decided by the DNA) to the ribosome for translation

d)

it brings a specific amino acid (decided by the codon) to the ribosome for translation

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