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BMS291 revision

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________.
a)
dose
b)
indication
c)
contraindication
d)
side effect
2.
The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:
a)
the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
b)
the study of how medications affect the brain.
c)
the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
d)
the study of drug excretion from the human body.
3.
Reduces Pain
a)
Antiemetics
b)
Analgesics
c)
Thrombolytics
d)
Antipyretics
4.
Prevents blood from clotting
a)
Anticoagulants
b)
Thrombolytics
c)
Antiplatelets
d)
Bronchodilators
5.

Which term describes any chemical agent that has a specific effect on the body?

a)

antihistamine

b)

drug

c)

antibiotic

d)

metabolism

6.

____________________ are medicines that reduce or kill harmful bacteria.

a)

antibiotics

b)

depressants

c)

hallucinogens

d)

inhalants

e)

narcotics

7.

The term that refers to the effect a drug has on the body is:

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Pharmacokinetic

c)

Pharmacocites

d)

Pharmacyclics

8.
What is the therapeutic effect of a drug?
a)
An effect that is produced after physical therapy.
b)
The desired effect
c)
An allergic reaction
d)
The side effects, pleasant or unpleasant
9.

What are the four types of drug movement with the body?

a)

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolization, Excretion

b)

Absorption, Diffusion, Metabolization, Excretion

c)

Concentration, Metabolization, Excretion, Distribution

d)

Absorption, Diffusion, Metabolization, Elimination

10.

reduce bronchospasm

a)

antibiotics

b)

anticholinergics

c)

anticonvulsants

d)

antiemetics

11.
Substances that prevent or inhibit the growth of microorganisms are known as
a)
antibiotics.
b)
disinfectants.
c)
germicides.
d)
fungicides.
12.
The name of a drug that represents its exact formula is the ______ name.
a)
generic
b)
trade
c)
chemical
d)
brand
13.

The primary organ for drug metabolism is which of the following?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Liver

14.

Where are most oral medications absorbed?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Liver

c)

Directly into the bloodstream

d)

None of the above

15.

Which statement places the four processes of pharmacokinetics in the correct sequence?

a)

Absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion

b)

Distribution, absorption, metabolism, excretion

c)

Distribution, metabolism, absorption, excretion

d)

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

16.

Asepsis is the absence of disease-producing micro organisms without infection

a)

True

b)

False

17.
Which suffix is generally associated with ACE inhibitors?
a)
-olol
b)
-cycline
c)
-mycin
d)
-pril
18.
Which of the following routes has the fastest onset of action?
a)
Oral
b)
Intravenous injection
c)
Transdermal
d)
Intramuscular
19.
EC50 mainly reflexs a drug's:
a)
maximal effect
b)
potency
c)
lethality
d)
ease of elimination
20.
Drug effects are thought to be proportional to the number of occupied receptors 
a)
True
b)
False
21.
Receptors are usually: 
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
DNA
22.

The therapeutic response of a drug is its:

a)

desired effect

b)

side effect

c)

adverse effect

d)

toxic effect

23.

A decrease response to an increase in dosage is:

a)

tolerance

b)

cumulative effect

c)

dependence

d)

idiosyncracy

24.
Which of the following describes drugs and their effects on the body?
a)
Pharmacokinetics
b)
Pharmacodynamics
25.

What is the measure of the relative safety of a drug?

a)

potency

b)

therapeutic index

c)

efficacy

d)

peak serum concentration

26.

What type of medication is give to break up newly formed blood clots?

a)

analgesics

b)

thrombolytic

c)

antihypertensive

d)

diuretics

27.

Which of these is not a symptom of asthma?

a)

Shortness of Breath

b)

Sneezing

c)

Chest tightness

d)

Wheezing

28.

The life of a drug, which includes absorption, metabolism, distribution, and excretion, is known as:

a)

bioavailability

b)

pharmacodynamics

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

absorption

29.
WHAT IS THE MEDICAL TERM FOR INJURY TO A LIGAMENT?
a)
FRACTURE
b)
SPRAIN
c)
STRAIN
d)
TEAR 
30.
A fracture where the broken ends of the bone line up
a)
Compound Fracture
b)
Hairline Fracture
c)
Pathological Fracture
d)
Stable Fracture
31.
Which fracture is where the bone is visible through the skin?
a)
Compound Fracture
b)
Stable Fracture
c)
Kevin Ware
d)
Horse
32.
Broken piece of bone is at a right angle to the bone's axis.
a)
The Bee Gees
b)
Elvis 
c)
Oblique Fracture
d)
Transverse Fracture
33.
Bone breaks into many fragments.
a)
Shattered Fracture
b)
Traction Fracture 
c)
Comminuted Fracture
d)
The Magic School Bus
34.
 a fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally. 
a)
Oblique Fracture
b)
Fracture
c)
Diagonal Fracture
d)
Horizontal Fracture 
35.

First step of fracture healing is the formation of ___________.

a)

Hematoma

b)

Fibrocartilage callus

c)

Epiphyseal line

d)

Bony callus

36.

What is the role of phagocytes?

a)

To create bone forming cells

b)

To breakdown bone cells

c)

To "clean up" bacteria and other small particles

d)

It creates bone marrow

37.

Which is bone forming cells?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Osteomatrix

38.

Which is bone destroying cells?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteocartilaginous

39.

These two things happen in the second step of fracture healing

a)

Site becomes painful and swollen

b)

Granulation tissue is formed and phagocytes begin "cleaning"

c)

Fibrocartilaginous converts to bony callus

d)

Bone remodeling

40.

What occurs in the third step of fracture healing?

a)

Fibrocartilaginous converts to bony callus

b)

Bone remodeling

c)

Torn blood vessels hemorrhage

d)

Compact bone is laid down

41.

In the fourth step of fracture healing this will occur

a)

Fibrocartilaginous converts to bony callus

b)

Bony callus formation

c)

Bone remodeling

d)

Mass or clot is forming

42.

A female patient is brought to the emergency room with an injury to her lower leg from an ATV accident. You notice a white tip of a bone protruding through the skin as you cut her pant leg off. Her injury is described as what kind of fracture.

a)

Comminuted

b)

Pathologic

c)

Compound

d)

Stress

43.
 a fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally. 
a)
Oblique Fracture
b)
Fracture
c)
Diagonal Fracture
d)
Horizontal Fracture 
44.
What is an open fracture?
a)
A break with two or more fractures of the same bone
b)
A break of a bone joint
c)
One in which the two sides of the break do not touch each other
d)
One in which the sharp edges of the bone cut through the skin
45.
The first stage of wound healing is?
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
46.
The second stage of wound healing is?
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
47.
The third stage of wound healing is?
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
48.
The fourth stage of wound healing is?
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
49.
During which stage of wound healing does a blood clot form?
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
50.
During which stage of wound healing does the immune system clear out bacteria and debris via phagocytosis
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
51.
During which stage of wound healing does fibroblasts create fibrin to fill and cover the wound
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
52.
During which stage of wound healing does the tissue begin to gain strength and flexibility
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Proliferative
d)
Remodeling
53.

Angiogenesis is:

a)

Migration of new cells over the wound

b)

The matrix formed by fibroblasts

c)

The formation of new blood vessels

54.
A disease that is more common in older women that results in brittle, weak bones
a)
rickets
b)
arthritis
c)
osteoporsis
d)
leukemia
55.

When cancer spreads across the body

a)

metastasis

b)

histamines

c)

angina pectoris

d)

arrythmias

56.

Cancer causing substance

a)

carcinogen

b)

histamines

c)

malignant

d)

arrythmias

57.

Hardened arteries with reduced elasticity

a)

atherosclerosis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

angina pectoris

d)

arteriosclerosis

58.

High blood pressure

a)

arrythmias

b)

hypertension

c)

carcinogen

d)

metastasis

59.

A disease characterized by the accumulation of plaque on artery walls

a)

arteriosclerosis

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

cardiovascular disease

d)

arthritis

60.

Noncancerous tumor

a)

carcinogen

b)

benign

c)

malignant

d)

hypertension

61.

Inflammatory condition in which the small airways in the lungs become narrowed, causing difficulty to breather

a)

arthritis

b)

stroke

c)

asthma

d)

allergy

62.
Define the term 'Tendinitis' 
a)
Swelling of a tendon
b)
Destruction of a tendon 
c)
Enlargement of tendon 
d)
Inflammation of tendons
63.
Displacement of a bone from it's joint
a)
Disorientation 
b)
Location issues
c)
Misplacment 
d)
Dislocation
64.
Cardiac output is a function of:
a)
Stroke volume and heart rate
b)
Tidal volume and heart rate
c)
Ejection fraction and heart rate
d)
Stroke volume and ejection fraction
65.
The force or resistance against which the heart pumps is called:
a)
Preload
b)
Blood pressure
c)
Afterload
d)
Systemic vascular resistance
66.
Carbonic acid is formed by the combination of
a)
Water and bicarbonate
b)
Water and hemoglobin
c)
Lactate and pyruvic acid
d)
Water and carbon dioxide
67.
24yr old male complaining of laceration to both wrists. Hypotensive, Pale skin, rapid pulse. Most likely a case of:
a)
Cardiogenic shock
b)
Obstructive shock
c)
Hypovolemic shock
d)
Distributive shock
68.
64yr old female complaining of left-sided dull chest pain. Hypotensive Pale skin. Bradycardic. Most likely a case of:
a)
Cardiogenic shock
b)
Obstructive shock
c)
Hypovolemic shock
d)
Distributive shock
69.
What is Asthma?
a)
lung condition where your airways or bronchial tubes narrow and swell
b)
a obtained disfunction 
c)
a tumor only in children
d)
a chronic disorder in the alveoli
70.
Asthma occurs in the....
a)
Pharynx
b)
Larynx
c)
Trachea
d)
Bronchial tubes
71.

What is the direct cause of asthma attacks?

a)

Blood clots in the trachea

b)

Swelling and excess mucous in the airways

c)

Excess fluid in the air sacs

d)

Infection of the lungs

72.
Which is not a symptom characteristic of asthma?
a)
Chest-tightness
b)
Productive cough
c)
Shortness of breath
d)
Wheezing
73.

Why does asthma cause long-term damage?

a)

Death

b)

Chronic inflammation

c)

Constant attacks

d)

Increased sensitivity to triggers

74.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
75.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
76.
Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a
a)
carcinogen
b)
nicolyte
c)
pathogen
d)
retrovirus
77.
Using drugs or medicines to destroy cancer cells.
a)
chemotherapy
b)
radiation therapy
c)
cancer surgery
d)
mitotic spindling
78.
Cancer is best and fully described by ...
a)
Uncontrolled cell growth
b)
Cells which grow abnormally and no longer function correctly
c)
Cells which have lost the ability to reproduce
d)
Cells which create abnormal tissues
79.
In order for a tumor to be cancerous to must ...
a)
Be benign
b)
Be malignant and metastasize
c)
Be malignant and not metastasize
d)
Be benign and spread to parts of the body
80.
What is cancer?
a)
The heart does not receive enough blood.
b)
Sudden disruption of blood flow to part of the brain.
c)
Blood filled weak spot.
d)
Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells.
81.

What is a mutation?

a)

A mistake in DNA which can lead to cancer

b)

A complete copy of DNA

c)

A change in DNA which doesn't cause an issue

d)

A mistake in your body that is caught and removed

82.

These are examples of:

  • chemicals in cigarette smoke
  • radiation
  • nitrates in processed foods
  • artificial sweeter
  • Heavy metals such as mercury and lead
a)

Carcinogens

b)

Predispositions

c)

Mutations

d)

Tumors

83.

These are examples of:


  • Surgery
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiation
a)

Treatments for Cancer

b)

Mutations

c)

Examples of Asexual Reproduction

d)

Types of Tumors

84.
"Heart attack" due to heart cells receiving no oxygen.
a)
Fibrillation
b)
Ischemia
c)
Heart block
d)
Myocardial infarction
85.
Lack of adequate blood supply to heart muscle.
a)
Fibrillation
b)
Ischemia
c)
Heart block
d)
Myocardial infarction
86.
Heart rate less than 60 beats per min.
a)
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
b)
Heart murmurs
c)
Bradycardia
d)
Tachycardia
87.
Heart rate greater than 100 beats per min.
a)
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
b)
Heart murmurs
c)
Bradycardia
d)
Tachycardia
88.
High blood pressure.
a)
Peripheral congestion
b)
Pulmonary congestion
c)
Hypertension
d)
Varicose veins
89.
Fast heart beat.
a)
tachypnea
b)
arrhythmia
c)
tachycardia
d)
bradycardia
90.
Condition of thickening, hardening, and loss of elasticity in the arterial walls.
a)
atherosclerosis
b)
varicose veins
c)
thrombophlebitis
d)
arteriosclerosis
91.
Slow heart rate.
a)
flutter
b)
bradycardia
c)
fibrillation
d)
tachycardia
92.
Condition of plaque buildup in the arteries.
a)
atherosclerosis
b)
arteriosclerosis
c)
shock
d)
vericose veins
93.
An infection of the lungs that is caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.
a)
Asthma
b)
Emphysema
c)
Pneumonia
d)
COPD
94.
What disorder has the barrel shaped chest , dyspnea and having extreme fatigue.
a)
COPD
b)
CHF
c)
UTI
d)
TB
95.

The most important risk factor for COPD is ________.

a)

Alpha1- antitrypsin deficiency

b)

Environmental pollution

c)

Cigarette smoking

d)

Passive smoking

96.

_________ is defined as chronic productive cough for three months in each of two successive years in a patient in whom other causes of chronic cough been excluded.

a)

Emphysema

b)

Asthma

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Bronchiectasia

97.
This hormone increases H2O reabsorption without increasing Na+ reabsorption.
a)
ADH
b)
aldosterone
c)
ANP
d)
PTH
98.
Which of the following causes hypercalcemia?
a)
hyperparathyroidism
b)
hypoparathyroidism
c)
hypercalcitonin
d)
pregnancy
99.
Which of these is within the normal pH range for blood?
a)
4.5
b)
7.4
c)
8.0
d)
7.0
100.
Which of the following is the most important buffer system in the human body?
a)
plasma protein
b)
phosphate
c)
hemoglobin 
d)
bicarbonate 
101.
A chemical that prevents rapid change in pH is called a(n)
a)
responder
b)
acid
c)
base
d)
buffer
102.
Slow, but fully restorative pH adjustments are made by the
a)
urinary system
b)
respiratory system
c)
circulatory system
d)
lymphatic system
103.

Hyponatremia (low salt in the blood) can cause

a)

headaches, nausea and vomiting

b)

stomach cramps, muscle spasms and weakness

c)

confusion and irritability

d)

all of the above

104.

Anatomy is the study of ________, while physiology is the study of _________.

a)

structure, function

b)

function, structure

105.

The tendency of the body to maintain a stable, balanced internal environment is called:

a)

assimilation

b)

responsiveness

c)

feedback

d)

homeostasis

106.

Which best describes negative feedback?

a)

enhances change

b)

opposes change

c)

results in no change

107.

Which statement best describes the effector in a negative feedback loop?

a)

detects environmental changes

b)

the normal range or accepted value

c)

muscles or glands that respond to changes

108.

What is hyponatremia?

a)

low water

b)

high water

c)

low sodium

d)

high sodium

109.
Hypokalemia means: 
a)
High potassium 
b)
Low Calcium & Phosphate 
c)
Low potassium 
d)
Low magnesium 
110.
What would be a sign/symptom of hyperkalemia? 
a)
Kidney disease 
b)
Irregular heart beat 
c)
Paralysis/cramping of muscle
d)
Dehydration 
111.

A condition in which the pressure of the blood on the walls of the blood vessels stays at a level higher than normal.

a)

heart attack

b)

hypertension

c)

stroke

d)

angioplasty

112.

As your heart pushes blood through your body's vessels, blood pushes against the walls of the vessels creating ___.

a)

arteries

b)

arteriosclerosis

c)

symptoms

d)

blood pressure

113.

A fatty substance that can coat the inside walls of arteries is ________________.

a)

choral

b)

cholera

c)

chloesterol

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