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WorksheetsSemester 2 Final
Total questions: 89
Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
2.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
3.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
4.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
5.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad (pair of chromosomes, one from mom and one from dad)
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
quad (group of 4 replicated chromosomes, 2 from mom and 2 from dad)
6.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
7.
Crossing over creates
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation (differences)
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
8.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
9.
What phase is shown in the picture?
a)
metaphase 2
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
10.
Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.
a)
female
b)
male
11.
Which structure is labeled as A in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
12.
Which structure is labeled as B in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
13.
Which structure is labeled as C in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
14.
A sperm contains
a)
Both an X and a Y chromosome
b)
Two X chromosomes
c)
An X OR a Y chromosome
d)
only a Y chromosome
15.
What makes this individual's karyotype not normal?
a)
An extra sex chromosome
b)
An extra autosome
c)
A missing sex chromosome
d)
A missing autosome
16.
What type of "square" helps us solve genetic problems?
a)
carpenter square
b)
Mendel square
c)
Punnett square
d)
genetic square
17.
The exact genetic makeup of an organism, such as RR, Tt, PP is its?
a)
phenotype
b)
dominance
c)
genotype
d)
trait
18.
Y for yellow body is dominant over y for blue body. What alleles would produce yellow bodies?
a)
YY,yy
b)
Yy,yy
c)
YY only
d)
YY,Yy
19.
Both parents in this Punnet square
a)
are homozygous dominant
b)
are homozygous recessive
c)
are heterozygous
d)
have blue eyes
20.
Brown is dominant to green. What is the probability of these parents having green offspring?
a)
1/4
b)
2/4
c)
3/4
d)
4/4
21.
What is the genotypic ratio here
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
22.
Black hair color is dominant to white hair color in mice. Determine the phenotypic ratio for the offpring of a heterozygous black mouse and a white mouse.
a)
4 Black: 0 White
b)
3 Black: 1 White
c)
2 Black: 2 White
d)
0 Black: 4 White
23.
In a certain species of rabbits, black coat color is dominant over brown coat color. What is the probability of producing a rabbit with brown coat color from two rabbits that are both heterozygous for black coat color?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
75%
d)
100%
24.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
25.
A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (orange and white). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan steer mate together?
a)
4: Orange and White
b)
1: Orange : 1 White
c)
2 Orange: 2 Orange and White: 0 White
d)
1: Orange: 2 Orange and White: 1 White
26.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance. What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
27.
In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of Thymine, then how much Guanine would be present?
a)
30%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
10%
28.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
29.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
30.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
31.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
32.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
33.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
34.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
35.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
36.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
37.
Which two scientists are accredited with correctly deducing the double helix model of DNA?
a)
Watson and Crick
b)
Wilkins and Franklin
c)
Wilkins and Crick
d)
Watson and Franklin
38.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
39.
In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA molecules are made from
a)
exons spliced together after introns are removed
b)
introns spliced together after eons are removed
c)
exons spliced together with introns
d)
long pieces of RNA shortened by the Dicer enzyme
40.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
41.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
42.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
43.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
44.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
45.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
46.
Which amino acid pairs with the codon AGA
a)
Thr
b)
Arg
c)
Ala
d)
Glu
47.
Evolution is best defined as:
a)
the process which organisms die.
b)
the process which organisms change over time.
c)
the process which organisms that are extinct become revived.
d)
the process which non-living things fossilize.
48.
The solidified remain or imprint of a once living thing are called:
a)
Fossils
b)
Homologous Structures
c)
Vestigial Structures
d)
DNA
49.
What type of evidence is represented in the picture above:
a)
Fossils
b)
Vestigial Structures
c)
DNA
d)
Homologous Structures
50.
What type of evidence is shown in this picture?
a)
Fossils
b)
Homologous Structures
c)
Vestigial Structures
d)
DNA
51.
What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?
a)
Fossils
b)
Embryology
c)
Homologous Structures
d)
Vestigial Structures
52.
Adaptations are:
a)
physical or behavioral tendencies.
b)
physical or behavioral characteristics that help an organisms survive and reproduce.
c)
physical or behavioral characteristics that do not help the organism in any way.
d)
genetic mutations that have gone wrong.
53.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
54.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
55.
Which scientist is known for his work that he did on the Galapagos Islands to develop his theory of natural selection?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Anton Van Leewenhoek
d)
Robert Brown
56.
The process by which two populations of the same species become so different that they can no longer interbreed.
a)
natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
speciation
d)
fossilization
57.
A species is defined as:
a)
a group of organisms that are extremely different.
b)
a group of organisms that have similar characteristics and always live in the same place.
c)
a group of organisms with similar characteristics and can reproduce to make fertile offspring.
d)
any two organisms to make a hybrid.
58.
what did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations of the Galapagos Islands off the coast of South America?
a)
different species on different islands
b)
all species on one of the islands
c)
identical species on all the islands
d)
the same species as North America
59.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
60.
Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are
a)
heritable
b)
new
c)
mutated
d)
better than the best
61.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
62.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism?
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
63.
Which two orgainsms have hair?
a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)
Rabbits & Birds
64.
According to this cladogram, birds are LEAST related to:
a)
Amphibians
b)
Sharks
c)
Ray Finned Fish
d)
Crocodiles
65.
According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the human?
a)
crayfish
b)
grasshopper
c)
perch
d)
frog
66.
Which trait do only humans have, according to the cladogram?
a)
jaws
b)
mammary glands & hair
c)
terrestrial during all life stages
d)
bipedal & opposable thumbs
67.
On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the human?
a)
Frog
b)
Hare
c)
Caiman
d)
Parrot
68.
An ecosystem is a community of animals and plants interacting with their ____________.
a)
habitat
b)
climate
c)
environment
d)
community
69.
Which is an example of an abiotic factor in a desert?
a)
Sun
b)
cactus
c)
scorpion
d)
snake
70.
Which is an example of a biotic factor in a desert?
a)
Sun
b)
soil
c)
snake
d)
minerals
71.
Which answer best describes a producer in an ecosystem?
a)
a living organism
b)
a living organism that produces its own food
c)
a living organism that produces its own food and is food for other living organisms
d)
a living organism that produces and consumes other living organisms
72.
Which answer best describes a consumer in an ecosystem?
a)
A living organism that eats other living organisms
b)
Someone that buys something
c)
A living organism that produces food for other living organisms
d)
An abiotic factor
73.
A group of bunnies living in the forest is an example of a __________.
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Individual
d)
Community
74.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...
a)
carrying capacity
b)
population crash
c)
lag phase
d)
mutualism
75.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
76.
Food, water, sunlight, shelter, and space are resources that are often __________.
a)
limiting factors
b)
wet
c)
messy
d)
found in rocks
77.
number of organisms per certain area
a)
carrying capacity
b)
limiting factor
c)
total population
d)
population density
78.
When organisms move out of the population, this is known as
a)
emigration
b)
abandonment
c)
immigration
d)
succession
79.
All of the following are limiting factors except
a)
immigration
b)
competition
c)
predation
80.
What type of population growth is shown in the graph?
a)
logistic growth
b)
logical growth
c)
exponential growth
d)
density-dependent growth
81.
What type of growth is shown on this graph?
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
average
d)
density-independent
82.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales. This neither harms nor benefits the whales.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
83.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from the spruce tree to the tree's detriment.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitisim
c)
mutualism
84.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs in the flowers where the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds. Both species benefit.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
85.
Hermit crabs live in shells made and then abandoned by snails. This neither harms nor benefits the snails.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
86.
Oxpeckers feed on the ticks found on rhinoceros. Both species benefit.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
87.
A flea feeds on a mouse's blood to the mouse's detriment.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
88.
Ticks feed on deer blood to the deer's detriment.
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
89.
A cuckoo may lay its eggs in a warbler's nest. The cuckoo's young will displace the warbler's young and will be raised by the warbler. This is detrimental to the warbler's young.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
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