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Worksheets

Semester 2 Review

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mitosis is used in the body for growth and repair.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

_________________ are end caps on chromosomes that protect DNA but do not contain genes.

a)

Centromeres

b)

Telomeres

c)

Chromatin

d)

Spindle fibers

3.

Sister chromatids are slightly different from each other.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Meiosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

During _________________, the nuclear membrane breaks down.

a)

telophase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

metaphase

7.

____________________ is where spindle fibers attach to chromosomes.

a)

A centriole

b)

A centromere

c)

A telomere

d)

A chromatid

8.

Which is the correct order of the phases of mitosis?

a)

prophase, anaphase, cytokinesis, telophase, metaphase

b)

metaphase, anaphase, prophase, cytokinesis, telophase

c)

cytokinesis, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

9.

Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm after prophase occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

An example of a gamete is a ____________.

a)

sperm cell

b)

skin cell

c)

nerve cell

d)

muscle cell

11.

Humans have 22 autosomes which control their gender.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

A gamete is a diploid cell.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Meiosis __________________.

a)

occurs throughout the body

b)

results in diploid cells

c)

produces genetically unique cells

d)

produce genetically identical cells

14.

The zygote is _____________________.

a)

an egg cell fertilized by a sperm cell

b)

when the same chromosome comes from each parent but carries different genes

c)

determines the gender in humans

d)

are haploid

15.

Meiosis creates genetic diversity through crossing over.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Homologous chromosomes separate during Meiosis 2.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Sister chromatids separate during Meiosis 2.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Spermatogenesis creates how many sperm cells?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

1

d)

2

19.

Oogenesis creates how many viable (working) egg cells?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.

Somatic cells are body cells.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Adenine and Guanine are both Pyramidines.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Chargraff's base pairing rules state that because a pyramidine (___________ ring) pairs with a purine (_____________ ring), the helix has uniform width. Fill in the blanks.

a)

single, double

b)

double, single

c)

single, single

d)

double, double

23.

The nitrogen bases inside DNA are bonded together by ________________ bonds.

a)

phosphate

b)

nitrogen

c)

hydrogen

d)

covalent

24.

The nucleotide Thymine pairs with _____________.

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

25.

The nucleotide Cytosine pairs with _____________.

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Cytosine

26.

The sugar-phosphate backbone inside DNA is bonded together by ______________.

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

nitrogen bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

phosphate bonds

27.

The central dogma of biology is the flow of genetic information from RNA to DNA to protein.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is the name of the enzyme used during DNA replication?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA helicase

d)

RNA ligase

29.

Which of the following is not found in a nucleotide of RNA?

a)

phosphate group

b)

nitrogen base

c)

deoxyribose sugar

d)

ribose sugar

30.

Which of the following is in charge of bringing amino acids to ribosomes to make proteins?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

DNA

d)

tRNA

31.

Which of the following carries all of a living thing's genetic information?

a)

tRNA

b)

DNA

c)

rRNA

d)

mRNA

32.

RNA is made up of a single strand while DNA is made up of 3 strands.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which of the following is the correct complementary strand of DNA to the following template sequence?


ATAGCG

a)

UAUCGC

b)

CGCTAT

c)

TATCGC

d)

CGCUAU

34.

Which of the following is the correct mRNA strand to the following template sequence?


GGATCA

a)

CCTAGT

b)

AGTCCT

c)

AGUCCU

d)

CCUAGU

35.

Which of the following is the SECOND step in RNA Transcription? Hint: All of the answer choices are correct steps but just listed out of order.

a)

RNA polymerase binds to DNA and unwinds a segment of it.

b)

DNA winds again as the gene is transcribed.

c)

RNA polmerase uses one strand of DNA as a template from which nucleotides are added using base pairing rules.

d)

The RNA strand detaches from the DNA once the gene is transcribed and travels to the ribosome.

36.

Where does the process of translation occur?

a)

mRNA

b)

ribosome

c)

nucleus

d)

tRNA

37.

Codons consist of ______ nucleotide(s).

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

38.

Long chains of nucleic acids bonded together are called proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which of these is NOT a stop codon?

a)

UAG

b)

UGG

c)

UAA

d)

UGA

40.

The START codon in mRNA codes for threonine.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

In proteins, the amino acids are bonded together by ______________ bonds.

a)

sulfuric

b)

peptide

c)

hydrogen

d)

nitrogen

42.

Ribosomes are made up of ___________ subunits.

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

2

43.

Gregor Mendel is the father of genetics. He used pea plants during his research.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Traits are determined by chromosomes carried on genes.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

____________ are different forms of genes.

a)

Factors

b)

Traits

c)

Alleles

d)

Carriers

46.

Which one of these is NOT one of Mendel's laws? Mark all that apply.

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Integration

c)

Law of Dominance

d)

Law of Independent Assortment

e)

Law of Dependent Assortment

47.

A _____________ allele is sometimes expressed and represented by a lowercase letter.

a)

recessive

b)

segregated

c)

genetic

d)

dominant

48.

The Law of ____________ states that genes that segregate independently do not influence each other's inheritance.

a)

Independent Assortment

b)

Segregation

c)

Dominance

d)

Genetics

49.

Which of the following of Mendel's laws accounts for the many genetic variations observed in many sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Independent Asssortment

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

None of these

50.

A _______________ is a specific position on a pair of homologous chromosomes.

a)

gene

b)

trait

c)

recessive area

d)

locus

51.

The phenotype is the physical representation of a genetic trait.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

When a dominant and recessive allele are combined, they are called _____________________. Mark all that may apply.

a)

hybrid

b)

homozygous

c)

heterozygous

d)

analagous

53.

Testcrosses are a cross between an organism with an unknown genotype and an organism with the recessive phenotype.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

A ______________ is the physical appearance of a trait.

a)

genotype

b)

archetype

c)

dominant type

d)

phenotype

55.

In the mythical land of Camelot, there are owlbears! Owlbears can either be gray (dominant, G) or white (recessive, g). These owlbears can also have hooked beaks (dominant, H) or be straight beaked (recessive, h). A group of bandits wants to have some as pets for their hideout. They mate two COMPLETELY heterozygous gray and hook-beaked owlbears. What are the chances they get an owlbear with white fur and hooked beaks.

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

No chance.

56.

A monohybrid cross involves ______________ trait(s).

a)

two

b)

three

c)

one

d)

no

57.

In the mythical land of Camelot, there are owlbears! Owlbears can either be gray (dominant, G) or white (recessive, g). These owlbears can also have hooked beaks (dominant, H) or be straight beaked (recessive, h). A group of bandits wants to have some as pets for their hideout. They mate two COMPLETELY heterozygous gray and hook-beaked owlbears. What are the chances they get an owlbear that has the same phenotype traits of the parents?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

No chance.

d)

9/16

58.

Incomplete dominance is when the heterozygous phenotype is a mixture (both traits show) of the two homozygous phenotypes.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

In beholders, red eyes (R) and blue eyes (B) exhibit (show) incomplete dominance. If a red-eyed beholder and a blue-eyed beholder had babies, what color would the babies' eyes be?

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

purple

d)

not enough information

60.

In beholders, red eyes (R) and blue eyes (B) exhibit (show) incomplete dominance. If two purple-eyed beholders had babies, what would the chances babies would have purple eyes like their parents?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

61.

In human blood, the four blood types (phenotypes) are A, B, AB, and o. The alleles A and B are dominant to o. The phenotype AB exhibits codominance. If a mother with genotype Ao and a father with genotype Bo are told that their baby has AB type blood, should they be concerned the hospital had a baby mixup? Does this AB-type baby belong to them?

a)

Yes, there is a 25% chance for the AB blood type to come from Ao x Bo.

b)

Yes, there is a 50% chance for the AB blood type to come from Ao x Bo.

c)

Not enough information.

d)

No, there is 0% chance for the AB blood type to come from Ao x Bo.

62.

In human blood, the four blood types (phenotypes) are A, B, AB, and o. The alleles A and B are dominant to o. The phenotype AB exhibits codominance. If a dad with genotype AB and mom with genotype Bo had a baby, what percent chance would the baby have Ao blood?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

63.

The inheritance of acquired characteristics was one mechanism of evolution supported by Darwin.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Darwin observed that the finches on the Galapagos Islands were the same on each island.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Species that have evolved from a common ancestor should have certain characteristics in common.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Who thought that evolution occurred by organisms passing on traits they acquired during their lives?

a)

Lamarck

b)

Darwin

c)

Malthus

d)

Lyell

67.

If people choose certain animals to breed because of some desirable traits, this is called _________________.

a)

farming

b)

artificial selection

c)

natural selection

d)

survival of the fittest

68.

The statement "improving the intelligence of an adult through education will result in that adult's descendants being born with greater intelligence" is an example of:

a)

natural selection

b)

adaptation

c)

Darwinism

d)

Lamarckism

69.

You hear a student say, "The giraffe stretched its neck to reach for the higher leaves; its offspring would inherit a longer neck as a result." You would correct them by saying:

a)

tell someone who cares

b)

characteristics acquired during an organism's life are NOT passed down through its genes

c)

disuse of an organ may lead to its disappearance

d)

you are correct

70.

Evolution is _______________________.

a)

the study of how things change over time

b)

how organisms can pass traits acquired during their lifetime to their offspring

c)

the breeding of domesticated plants and animals for specific traits

d)

survival of the fittest

71.

Individuals evolve of time, NOT populations.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

A bear may produce more cubs than can survive due to struggle for survival. This statement exemplifies Darwin's principle of __________________.

a)

overproduction

b)

variation

c)

adaptation

d)

descent with modification

73.

In a litter of puppies, half of the puppies are white with brown patches while the other half are completely white. This statement exemplifies Darwin's principle of ______________.

a)

descent with modification

b)

adaptation

c)

overproduction

d)

variation

74.

A certain bird species has developed over thousands of years long skinny beaks to capture insects from trees. These descendants have drastically different shaped beaks than their ancestors. This statement exemplifies Darwin's principle of _______________.

a)

adaptation

b)

overproduction

c)

descent with modification

d)

variation

75.

Lizard's are able to grow back their tail if a predator tears it off. This statement exemplifies Darwin's principle of _______________.

a)

adaptation

b)

overproduction

c)

variation

d)

descent with modification

76.

A species of large cat undergoes natural selection. Individuals in this species with long claws are able to dig into rodent nests while individuals with short claws are able to run fast and catch deer. Individuals with medium length claws are able to perform both tasks EXTREMELY well. Individuals with medium length claws become the majority of the population after 1000 years. What kind of natural selection is this?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

extinction

77.

Larger wolves can take down more prey than smaller wolves. They outcompete smaller wolves when prey is limited during the harsh winter months leading to decreased number of small wolf population. What kind of natural selection is this?

a)

disruptive selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

average selection

78.

The rocks at the bottom of a stream are either black or white. Snails that live on these rocks are a range of color from solid black to solid white. A local freshwater fish loves to munch on these snails, but it cannot see the solid black or solid white snails when the snails are matching rocks. Grey snails do not blend into either rock color and are much easier to see. What kind of natural selection is this?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

average selection

79.

Bacteria are ___________________.

a)

multi-cellular organisms

b)

viruses

c)

prokaryotes

d)

smaller than viruses

80.

A plasmid is the ____________________ of a bacteria.

a)

shape

b)

plasma membrane

c)

cell wall

d)

circular piece of DNA

81.

Eubacteria have cell walls which contain peptidoglycan.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Bacteria are able to move around with the help of their _______________________.

a)

plasmid

b)

pili

c)

flagella

d)

capsule

83.

Extremophiles live in __________________ environments.

a)

very salty

b)

very acidic

c)

very hot

d)

all of these

84.

Endospores are ___________________.

a)

whiplike tails

b)

a tough envelop that bacteria use to endure harsh conditions

c)

hairlike extensions which help bacteria to attach to a surface

d)

an organelle that helps with photosynthesis

85.

Hairlike extensions which help bacteria attach to a surface are called _____________.

a)

pili

b)

flagella

c)

capsules

d)

plasmids

86.

Protists are prokaryotic because they have a true nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Protists can mainly be found in ___________.

a)

rock

b)

air

c)

water

d)

soil

88.

Animal-like protists are _______________ and _____________. (mark all that apply)

a)

heterotrophs

b)

autotrophs

c)

multicellular

d)

unicellular

89.

Pseudopods move around by _____________.

a)

they don't move around

b)

wiggling around

c)

moving tiny oar-like cilia

d)

using a false foot

90.

Phytoplankton are classified by _______________.

a)

how they reproduce

b)

how they move

c)

what color their pigments are

d)

how they smell

91.

A "bloom" is when a population of algae ______________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

92.

All animals are _________________. Mark all that apply.

a)

eukaryotic

b)

prokaryotic

c)

multicellular

d)

heterotrophic

e)

autotrophic

93.

When an animal exhibits (shows) radial symmetry, its body __________________.

a)

shows no symmetry

b)

is arranged around a central axis

c)

has two halves that are mirror images

94.

The _______________ is the outer tissue layer in an animal.

a)

derm

b)

mesoderm

c)

endoderm

d)

ectoderm

95.

The word part -derm means _______________.

a)

cell

b)

hair

c)

skin

d)

nucleus

96.

What is the fluid-filled body cavity formed between the body wall and digestive tract?

a)

coelom

b)

mesoderm

c)

ectoderm

d)

endoderm

97.

Pseudocoelomates have ________________.

a)

no coelom

b)

a partial coelom

c)

a true coelom

98.

Based upon embryonic development patterns, animals can be classified into three groups.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

During embryonic development, protostomes form their anus first and mouth second.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Earthworms show ______________ symmetry.

a)

bilateral

b)

radial

c)

no

101.

Earthworms are ____________________.

a)

pseudocoelomates

b)

acoelomates

c)

coelomates

102.

The correct order of the earthworm digestive system is:

a)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus

b)

mouth, crop, gizzard, pharynx, esophagus, intestine, anus

c)

anus, pharynx, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus

d)

mouth pharynx, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus

103.

Earthworms have _____________________ which functions as the heart.

a)

a gizzard

b)

capillaries

c)

dorsal and ventral blood vessels

d)

aortic arches

104.

Gas exchange occurs along the earthworm's skin.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The ring on an earthworm towards the anterior end is known as the _____________.

a)

ganglion

b)

clitellum

c)

aortic arch

d)

gizzard

106.

What is the underside, or belly, of an animal known as?

a)

ventral side

b)

dorsal side

c)

anterior side

d)

posterior side

107.

If you cut open an earthworm's intestine you would find _____________.

a)

crop

b)

blood

c)

coelom

d)

dirt

108.

What were the cream-colored organs "moved out of the way" during the dissection in order to see the aortic arches?

a)

seminal vesicles

b)

pharynx

c)

seminal receptacles

d)

nerve chords

109.

What type of symmetry do mollusks have?

a)

asymmetrical

b)

bilateral symmetry

c)

radial symmetry

110.

What is the name of the tissue layer that often secretes a shell in mollusks?

a)

foot

b)

radula

c)

visceral mass

d)

mantle

111.

In mollusks, what body part contains the excretory and digestive organs?

a)

foot

b)

visceral mass

c)

mantle

d)

radula

112.

In mollusks, where is the foot usually located?

a)

ventral

b)

dorsal

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

113.

All mollusks have a shell.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Bivalves, like scallops, have a radula.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Which of the following mollusk classes HAS a closed circulatory system?

a)

bivalvia

b)

polyplacophora

c)

gastropoda

d)

cephalopoda

116.

In an open circulatory system, the blood leaves the vessels and washes over tissues in areas called ______________.

a)

ganglion

b)

sinuses

c)

nephridia

d)

mantles

117.

Clams belong to which class within mollusks?

a)

cephalopoda

b)

polyplacophora

c)

gastropoda

d)

bivalvia

118.

Bivalves are filter feeders.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

What kind of body symmetry do arthropods display?

a)

bilateral symmetry

b)

asymmetry

c)

radial symmetry

d)

longitudinal symmetery

120.

Arthropods are ____________.

a)

acoelomates

b)

coelomates

c)

pseudocoelmates

121.

The root word "arthro" means ____________.

a)

foot

b)

head

c)

joint

d)

many

122.

___________________ are a hard external covering for support and protection.

a)

Exoskeletons

b)

Endoskeletons

c)

Osculum

d)

Cephalopods

123.

The outer shell of arthropods are generally made of __________.

a)

chiton

b)

chitin

c)

visceral mass

d)

soft tissue

124.

What is the correct order of an arthropod's body from anterior to posterior?

a)

abdomen, cephalothorax

b)

thorax, abdomen, head

c)

abdomen, thorax, head

d)

head, thorax, abdomen

125.

A cephalothorax is the fusion of an arthropod's thorax and abdomen.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Arthropods do not have compound eyes.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Open circulatory systems have blood that flows out into _______________.

a)

sinuses

b)

osculum

c)

foot

d)

mantle

128.

What body part on a crayfish can be used to help determine gender?

a)

uropod

b)

antenna

c)

walking legs

d)

swimmerets

129.

Crayfish possess a cephalothorax.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

Crayfish use their _____________ to help catch food as well as for defense.

a)

walking legs

b)

swimmerets

c)

chelipeds

d)

uropods