WorksheetsBiology II Final
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The threadlike structure of DNA and protein that contains genetic information
a)
Chromosome
b)
Chromatin
c)
Chromatid
d)
Centriole
2.
The first and longest phase of mitosis in which the genetic material inside the nucleus condenses on the chromosome becomes visible.
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
3.
Choose the correct definition for telophase:
a)
the final phase of cell division in which the chromatids or chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell and two nuclei are formed.
b)
the first phase of cell division in which the chromatids or chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell and two nuclei are formed.
c)
the final phase of interphase in which the chromatids or chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell and two nuclei are formed.
d)
the first phase of interphase in which the chromatids or chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell and two nuclei are formed.
4.
Choose the correct answer for the term anaphase:
a)
the stage of meiotic or mitotic cell division in which the chromosomes first appear as sister chromatids
b)
the stage of meiotic or mitotic cell division in which the chromosomes move toward one another & to the center of the cell.
c)
the stage of meiotic or mitotic cell division in which the chromosomes move away from one another to opposite poles of the spindle.
d)
the stage of meiotic or mitotic cell division in which the chromosomes and spindles firs attach
5.
Mitosis produces daughter cells which are ?
a)
similar
b)
different
c)
identical
d)
almost the same
6.
What is the phase where the chromosome align in the cell
a)
Anaphase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Cytokinesis
7.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
8.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
9.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
10.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
11.
When a plant cell goes through cell division, _____________.
a)
the 2 new nuclei are separated by the cell membrane pinching off.
b)
4 new cells are formed
c)
a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new nuclei
d)
None of the above
12.
If a fruit fly has 8 chromosomes in each of its body cells, how many chromosomes will be in each daughter cell after mitosis?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
16
13.
Interphase contains three stages, including the G1 and G2 stages. Which of the following occurs during these gap stages?
a)
separation of chromosomes
b)
cellular growth
c)
DNA replication
d)
viral transformation
14.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
15.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
16.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
17.
Which of the following phrases best describes cytokenesis
a)
division of the cytoplasm
b)
division of the nucleus
c)
division of DNA
d)
division of surface area
18.
The absorption of nutrients is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's ribosomes
d)
The cell's DNA
19.
The amount of nutrients needed is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's Rough ER
d)
The cell's Smooth ER
20.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
21.
How long is the whole cell cycle for most animal cells?
a)
2-3 days
b)
24 hours
c)
2-3 hours
d)
23 hours
22.
A cell with only half the normal number of chromosomes is called a ___________ cell.
a)
haploid
b)
prokaryotic
c)
heterotrophic
d)
eubacterial
23.
Meiosis produces cell called
a)
gametes
b)
diploids
c)
embryos
d)
DNA
24.
A zygote is a
a)
fertilized egg
b)
haploid cell
c)
small organism
d)
type of chromosome
25.
Chromosomes exchange genetic material during
a)
crossing over
b)
replication
c)
synthesis
d)
translation
26.
When does crossover take place in meiosis?1
a)
Prophase II
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase I
d)
Metaphase I
27.
During which phase of meiosis does the nuclear membrane reform around the chromosome?
a)
Interphase
b)
Anaphase I
c)
Telophase II
d)
Prophase I
28.
Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that...
a)
homologous chromosomes synapse
b)
DNA replicates before division
c)
The chromosome number is reduced
d)
Sister chromatids separate during anaphase
29.
Which 2 cells would be more genetically similar to each other?
a)
2 gametes produced by the same person
b)
2 somatic cells produced by the same person
c)
2 eggs produced by the same woman
d)
2 sperm produced by the same man
30.
A diploid cell of a normal male human contains
a)
22 autosomes and two Y-chromosomes.
b)
22 pairs of autosomes and two Y-chromosomes.
c)
22 pairs of autosomes, one X and one Y-chromosome
d)
22 autosomes and two X-chromosomes
31.
Which is the correct sequence?
a)
mitosis - gametes - zygote - meiosis - fertilization - embryo
b)
Fertilization-mitosis-zygote-gametes-meiosis-embryo
c)
meiosis-zygote-gametes-mitosis-fertilization-embryo
d)
meiosis-gametes-fertilization-zygote-mitosis-embryo
32.
The likely cause of genetic disorders is...
a)
Nondisjunction
b)
Overfertilization
c)
Uncontrolled Meiosis
d)
Translocation
33.
What 2 structures make up a replicated chromosome?
a)
2 homologous chromosomes
b)
2 tetrads
c)
2 centromeres
d)
2 sister chromatids
34.
In what type of organs are the cells that enter Meiosis I found?
a)
Liver
b)
Sex organs (ovaries and testes)
c)
Heart
d)
Pancreas
35.
In which stage of Meiosis I do the homologous chromosomes come together, forming a tetrad?
a)
Prophase 1
b)
Metaphase 1
c)
Anaphase 1
d)
Telophase 1
36.
Occurs when the gamete from one parent fuses with gamete from the other parents. (union of gametes)
a)
Fragmentation
b)
Fertilization
c)
Zygote
d)
Crossing Over
37.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
38.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
39.
Which of the following best explains why the chromosome number is an even number in organisms?
a)
It is only by coincidence, many organisms have an odd number
b)
The diploid number is always even so that when mitosis occurs each cell gets the same number of chromosmes
c)
The diploid chromosome number represents pairs of chromosomes, one from ech parent, so that it is always an even number
d)
Chromosomes double very time the cell divides, so after the first division, the number is always even
40.
What is something that happens in meiosis, and not in mitosis?
a)
Synapsis/crossing over occurs
b)
The cell is split into two cells
c)
There is no genetic variety
d)
Copying of DNA
41.
What is the science of organizing, classifying and naming living things?
a)
taxonomy
b)
taxadermy
c)
taxicab
d)
toxicology
42.
In a properly written scientific name, which part is lowercase?
a)
species
b)
genus
c)
phylum
d)
family
43.
In the 8 levels of classification which level is the broadest category?
a)
Kingdom
b)
Family
c)
Species
d)
Domain
44.
Things that are classified together ___________.
a)
are not related to each other.
b)
share a similar evolutionary history.
c)
are larger organisms.
d)
have a different evolutionary history
45.
Who organized living things based on shared characteristics and created a system for assigning scientific names?
a)
Carolus Linnaeus
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d)
James Watson
46.
What are the 8 levels of classification of living things from most general to most specific?
a)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b)
domain, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genius, species
c)
domain, kingdom, family, class, order, family, genus, species
d)
domain, king, phillip, class, order, family, genus, species
47.
What is the best explanation for the continual changes in the classification system of organisms?
a)
All organisms struggle for existence and become extinct.
b)
All organisms compete to be at the top of the food chain.
c)
Technological advances have allowed scientists to better compare organisms.
d)
More species have been discovered, but scientists have not analyzed all the data.
48.
Which kingdom is autotrophic AND has a cell wall?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Plantae
d)
Protista
49.
Choose the correct way to write the scientific name for humans:
a)
homo sapiens
b)
Homosapiens
c)
Homo sapiens
d)
Homo Sapiens
50.
The science of classifying, describing and naming organisms is called:
a)
Astronomy
b)
Genetics
c)
Botany
d)
Taxonomy
51.
Cladograms are constructed by grouping organisms together based on their____________ characteristics.
a)
shared
b)
different
c)
similar
d)
opposite
52.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism?
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
53.
Choose the correct order of taxa from LARGEST to SMALLEST
a)
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom
b)
Family, Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Order, Species, Genus
c)
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Phylum, Order, Species, Family, Genus, Kingdom
54.
Having a wide variety and lots of different species (like that in a rain forest) is called:
a)
Biodiversity
b)
Species Richness
c)
Phylogeny
d)
Systematics
55.
The main language of scientific names is:
a)
Greek
b)
English
c)
Latin
d)
Arabic
56.
Phylogeny is:
a)
Analysis of the evolutionary or ancestral relationships among taxa
b)
Classifying animals by structure
c)
Analyzing mutations in organisms
d)
Determining when animals evolved
57.
The scientific name for an organism is made from the:
a)
class and family name
b)
genus and species name
c)
domain and kingdom name
d)
kingdom and phylum name
58.
Aristotle classified plants into three groups based on ____ and ____.
a)
habitat and physical differences
b)
size and structure
c)
size and habitat
d)
structure and physical differences
59.
An organism identified with binomial nomenclature includes which two taxa?
a)
class and order
b)
family and genus
c)
genus and species
d)
kingdom and phylum
60.
Which description best fits that of an organism in the Animalia kingdom?
a)
Unicellular, Autotroph, Asexual
b)
Multicellular, Heterotroph, asexual
c)
Unicellular, Heterotroph, sexual
d)
Multicellular, Heterotroph, sexual
61.
What type of structures are shown?
a)
Homologous
b)
Analogous
c)
Vestigial
d)
Heterologous
62.
The "Best" form of evidence for evolutionary relationships is-
a)
Molecular- DNA
b)
Fossils
c)
Homologous Structures
d)
Analogous Structures
63.
According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?
a)
evolution by natural selection
b)
migration
c)
inbreeding
d)
commensalism
64.
Darwin’s finches is an example of this type of evolution.
a)
Divergent
b)
Coevolution
c)
Convergent
d)
Artificial
65.
What does it mean when organisms share a common ancestor?
a)
They evolved from 1 species that lived in the past
b)
They are the same species
c)
The organisms have exactly the same traits
d)
The organisms are very different from one another
66.
Who started the theory of evolution?
a)
Allen Wallace
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Albert Einstein
67.
In Darwin's theory of evolution, he uses his idea of _________________ to explain evolution.
a)
decent by modification
b)
species dying out
c)
when species use new traits
68.
Darwin's theory of evolution is supported by his idea on...
a)
natural selection and adaptation
b)
natural living animals like fossils
c)
chickens have the same amount of genes
69.
A structure that is inherited from ancestors but has long lost much or all of its original use.
a)
vestigial structure
b)
miniscule structure
c)
analogous structure
70.
In natural selection, the selective agent is the
a)
humans
b)
mutations
c)
breeders
d)
environment
71.
Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. The change is called a(n)
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
gene pool
d)
allele
72.
The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagrams below show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?
a)
It provides information about the organisms' habitats.
b)
It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.
c)
It provides information to determine the organisms' ages.
d)
It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.
73.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram?
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
74.
Natural selection is best described as
a)
a change in an organism in response to a need of that organism
b)
a process of nearly constant improvement that leads to an organism that is nearly perfect
c)
differences in survival rates as a result of different inherited characteristics
d)
inheritance of characteristics acquired during the life of an organism
75.
Which occurrence represents an example of evolution?
a)
Exposure to radiation reduces the rate of mutation in leaf cells.
b)
A mutation in a liver cell causes a person to produce an enzyme that is less efficient.
c)
Cells in a zygote eventually change into bone cells or skin cells
d)
Some antibiotics are almost useless, because pathogens have developed a resistance to these antibiotics.
76.
What is a species?
a)
A group of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
b)
A group of organisms that can interbreed to produce infertile offspring.
c)
A group of different organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
77.
A population of chimpanzees was separated when the forest that they lived in had a section cut down and a town was built. After a long period of time, the chimpanzees came back into contact but were incapable of breeding. Which of the following best describes the process that occurred?
a)
adaptation
b)
speciation
c)
convergent selection
d)
stabilizing selection
78.
Which of the following is the best definition of geographic isolation?
a)
the separation of members of a species through geographical forces
b)
the separation of members of different species through geographical forces
c)
the separation of populations of different species through time
d)
the separation of members of a species through anatomical forces
79.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
80.
What do phylogenetic trees do?
a)
Help you visualize how species are related.
b)
Provide windbreaks in your yard.
c)
Provide DNA details.
d)
Show the distribution of organisms
81.
A farmer's use of the best livestock for breeding is an example of
a)
natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
extinction
d)
adaptation
82.
Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?
a)
prokaryotic and aerobic
b)
prokaryotic and anaerobic
c)
eukaryotic and aerobic
d)
eukaryotic and aerobic
83.
A large population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide. A few of the cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray. What can best be inferred from this example?
a)
A Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce.
b)
B The environment has no effect on the survival of an organism.
c)
C Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation.
d)
D A species will adapt no matter what the environment.
84.
In which populations does genetic drift most often occur?
a)
in small populations
b)
in large populations
c)
in marine populations
d)
in terrestrial populations
85.
Which fact provides the best evidence for the theory that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from free-living cells?
a)
A. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are about the same size as bacteria.
b)
B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts carry their own DNA.
c)
C. Mitochondria and chloroplasts perform the same function.
d)
D. Mitochondria and chloroplasts look like bacteria.
86.
Which fossil is the youngest by the principle of relative aging (dating)?
a)
E
b)
D
c)
C
d)
B
87.
One of Darwin's 4 principles of evolution states more offspring are produced in an environment than it can support. This is called....
a)
Overproduction
b)
Competition
c)
Survival of the Fittest
d)
Variation
88.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
89.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
90.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
91.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
92.
A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27°C. The gas being collected is probably ________.
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
ATP
d)
glucose
93.
Most plants appear green because chlorophyll
a)
absorbs green light.
b)
absorbs violet light.
c)
reflects green light.
d)
does not absorb violet light.
94.
What are the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
glucose & carbon dioxide
b)
glucose & oxygen
c)
water & oxygen
d)
water & carbon dioxide
95.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
96.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
97.
If oxygen is not present what process will occur in yeast cells?
a)
Alcoholic fermentation
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Lactic acid fermentation
98.
Which process produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose?
a)
lactic acid fermentation
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
alcoholic fermentation
d)
all are about the same
99.
When a phosphate group is removed from an ATP molecule,
a)
a substantial amount of energy is released
b)
an enzyme is formed
c)
energy is stored
d)
activation energy is increased
100.
In the presence of oxygen, cellular respiration takes place in two stages. They are
a)
glycolysis and fermentation
b)
electron transport chain, then fermentation
c)
glycolysis, then aerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis, then the Calvin cycle
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