WorksheetsFinal Exam Review
Total questions: 111
Worksheet time: 52mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The four distant planets are made mostly of
a)
gas
b)
water
c)
rock
d)
radiation
2.
The layer of the atmosphere in which rainstorms occur
a)
hydrosphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
thermosphere
3.
Rocks formed from cooling lava of volcanic eruptions are
a)
igneous
b)
lithospheric
c)
metamorphic
d)
sedimentary
4.
Temperatures in the thermosphere can reach
a)
-100 ˚C
b)
200 °C
c)
1000 °C
d)
2000 °C
5.
Earth can support life because of the presence of
a)
heat
b)
ice
c)
liquid water
d)
rocks
6.
Earth's fairly steady surface temperature is due to the presence of
a)
oxygen
b)
rocks
c)
water
d)
wind
7.
Fossils are usually found in
a)
igneous rock
b)
sedimentary rock
c)
metamorphic rock
d)
lava rock
8.
More than 97% of the hydrosphere is
a)
salt water
b)
fresh water
c)
underground water
d)
ice caps and glaciers
9.
Aquifers transport
a)
water from reservoirs
b)
surface runoff
c)
ocean water
d)
groundwater
10.
An organism interacts most with the
a)
hydrosphere
b)
biosphere
c)
lithosphere
d)
atmosphere
11.
The ozone layer is part of the
a)
troposphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
thermosphere
12.
The most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere is
a)
nitrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water vapor
13.
Glaciers, weather, and water shape Earth by:
a)
hibernation
b)
tectonics
c)
El Nino
d)
erosion
14.
The most recent ice age ended about:
a)
10,000 years ago
b)
100,000 years ago
c)
1 million years ago
d)
100 years ago
15.
The decline of the anchovy industry in Peru is blamed on:
a)
economics
b)
global warming
c)
pollution
d)
El Nino
16.
Almost all the energy used by living things comes from
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
Earth
d)
the sun
17.
Hibernation enables an animal to save:
a)
energy
b)
time
c)
space
d)
range
18.
The type of environment that is suitable for a certain species is its:
a)
geographical range
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
community
19.
All members of a species that live in an area make up a(n):
a)
ecosystem
b)
habitat
c)
community
d)
population
20.
A stable ecosystem includes:
a)
two types of organisms
b)
one type fo organism
c)
at least one type of plant and one kind of animal
d)
a wide variety of organisms
21.
Habitat destruction can result in a loss of:
a)
energy
b)
land
c)
air
d)
species
22.
In this diagram of an electric circuit, what is actually flowing through the wires, providing the energy needed to power the light bulb?
a)
Electrons
b)
Protons
c)
Neutrons
d)
Large atoms
23.
How is electricity consumption measured (e.g. on your electric bill)?
a)
In watts(W).
b)
In kilowatts(kW).
c)
In watt-hours(Wh).
d)
In kilowatt-hours(kWh).
24.
What is not a drawback in using solar energy?
a)
The total amount of solar energy that reaches the Earth is too low to be useful
b)
The solar energy that reaches the Earth is diffuse and hard to collect
c)
Solar cells and other equipment are expensive
d)
Sunlight is not always available, depending on season and time of day
25.
Presently, which source of renewable electricity makes up the greatest portion of total electricity generation?
a)
Solar
b)
Hydroelectric
c)
Wind
d)
Geothermal
26.
Potential drawbacks of utilizing wind as a source of electricity do not include�
a)
Interrupting the view in normally scenic and uninhabited places
b)
Noise
c)
Electricity from wind farms is far more expensive than fossil fuel-generated electricity
d)
None of the above; These are all issues with wind power
27.
Which location would make the most sense for a geothermal electricity plant?
a)
An exceptionally windy area off the coast of Massachusetts
b)
Along a wide and powerful river flowing through Colorado
c)
In a hot and dry area like Arizona
d)
In a volcanically active area like Washington state
28.
How can the construction of a dam negatively impact an ecosystem?
a)
It increases the rate of nutrient deposition from the river to the surrounding area
b)
The water held in the dam�s reservoir becomes warmer and does not evaporate as well
c)
Fish cannot move upstream to mate or spawn
d)
Dams do not negatively impact ecosystems
29.
Which form of renewable energy does not rely on physically spinning a large turbine to generate electric current?
a)
Hydrokinetic
b)
Geothermal
c)
Wind farms
d)
Photovoltaic solar cell
30.
Which form of renewable energy does generate some air pollution as it operates?
a)
Photovoltaic solar cells
b)
Wind farms
c)
Hydrokinetic
d)
None of these generates air pollution
31.
A greenhouse is built with clear glass or plastic panels that allow sunlight through; trapping the heat inside
a)
Active heating solar structure
b)
Passive heating solar structure
c)
Photovoltaic cell
d)
High temperature parabolic collector
32.
One problem with renewable energy is the difficulty in storing energy
a)
Lead-acid
b)
Nickel-Metal Hydride
c)
Lithium Ion
d)
Alkaline
33.
What waste product(s) is/are released by hydrogen fuel cell vehicles?
a)
Carbon dioxide and water vapor
b)
Carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide
c)
Carbon dioxide only
d)
Water vapor only
34.
Biomass or biofuels would include�
a)
Ethanol fermented from corn
b)
Wood
c)
Dung
d)
All other choices
35.
To produce the same intensity and color of light, you can choose from a 60-watt incandescent bulb, a 17-watt compact fluorescent bulb, or a 10-watt LED bulb
a)
The incandescent bulb
b)
The compact fluorescent (CFL) bulb
c)
The LED bulb
d)
All other choices
36.
If your car is about 30% efficient in producing motion, what is happening to the other 70% of the energy it takes in?
a)
The energy is destroyed
b)
The energy is lost as heat due to friction
c)
The other 70% is still in the gas tank
d)
All other choices
37.
The state of Pennsylvania has a law that requires 18% of electricity in the state be produced by renewable energy sources by the year 2021
a)
A distributional surcharge
b)
Green pricing
c)
A renewable portfolio
d)
All other choices
38.
Ethanol can be used as an additive or replacement for petroleum-derived gasoline
a)
Ethanol produces more air pollution than regular gasoline
b)
Ethanol is currently produced mainly from corn, which can influence food prices
c)
Ethanol is actually nonrenewable and must be extracted from the ground
d)
All other choices
39.
Earth is a closed system with respect to
a)
people
b)
energy
c)
information
d)
matter
40.
Earth is an open system with respect to
a)
energy
b)
people
c)
information
d)
matter
41.
The Gaia hypothesis states that the Earth acts like a
a)
living being
b)
non-living planet
c)
non-living planet with living parts
d)
non-living being
42.
Fully modern humans have lived on the Earth for about
a)
35,000 years
b)
1 million years
c)
1000 years
d)
10,000 years
43.
Hunter-gatherer societies are often
a)
permanent
b)
semi-permanent
c)
nomadic
d)
very dense
44.
An early invention that helped raise food production in agricultural societies was
a)
mass production
b)
gunpowder
c)
the plow
d)
sustainable development
45.
Industrial societies were made possible by inventions such as the steam engine and
a)
the plow
b)
gunpowder
c)
mass production
d)
sustainable development
46.
A renewable resource is one that regenerates
a)
slowly
b)
not at all
c)
without human action
d)
quickly
47.
A non-renewable resource is one that regenerates
a)
only after human action
b)
without human action
c)
slowly or not at all
d)
quickly
48.
An ethic is a set of rules in a society that determines
a)
economic functions
b)
government
c)
holidays
d)
right or wrong
49.
The factor most likely to result in a decrease in the size of a specific population is
a)
improved medical care
b)
increased food availability
c)
famine
d)
industrialization
50.
The germ theory of disease established that many diseases are caused by
a)
microorganisms
b)
water
c)
poor nutrition
d)
bad luck
51.
A nation with a population that is not increasing is
a)
Kenya
b)
United States
c)
Germany
d)
China
52.
When calculating global population growth, the death rate is
a)
added to the birth rate
b)
subtracted from life
c)
multipled by 100
d)
subtracted from the birth rate
53.
At present, the growth patterns of the human population are best described as
a)
above the carrying capacity
b)
geometric/exponential
c)
arithmetic/linear
d)
stable
54.
The most rapid population growth rate resuled from
a)
the industrial revolution
b)
the agricultural revolution
c)
early permanent settlements
d)
hunting and gathering
55.
Problems associated with a declining population size include
a)
increased famine
b)
decreased health care
c)
loss of habitat
d)
weakened economic strength
56.
The change in energy consumption in the United States during the past 100 years is due to
a)
population growth
b)
modernization
c)
both populatioon growth and modernization
d)
neither population growth nor modernization
57.
The birthrate is 25 per 1000 people. The deathrate is 10 per 1000 people. What is the growth rate?
a)
25
b)
1.5
c)
3.5
d)
35
58.
What makes it difficult to control human population growth?
a)
declining food supply
b)
increased political pressure
c)
lack of higher education
d)
personal and cultural views
59.
The kilocalories in a food indicates the amount of:
a)
healthfulness
b)
carbohydrates
c)
energy
d)
protein
60.
The effects of tilling include:
a)
improved crop production
b)
reduced energy needs
c)
increased soil erosion
d)
reduced soil drainage
61.
An IPM system is used to:
a)
aerate soil
b)
improve soil nutrients
c)
reduce erosion
d)
control pests and insects
62.
Energy in food is provided by
a)
minerals
b)
vitamins
c)
macronutrients
d)
micronutrients
63.
Nitrogen is a component of all:
a)
carbohydrates
b)
vitamins
c)
proteins
d)
fats
64.
The nutrient that provides the greatest amount of energy per gram is:
a)
carbohydrates
b)
fats
c)
proteins
d)
vitamins
65.
The Green Revolution occurred during the:
a)
nineteenth century
b)
Middle Ages
c)
the 1990's
d)
the 1960's
66.
A cash crop is a crop intended for:
a)
animal feed
b)
protecting the soil between growing seasons
protecting the soil between growing seasons
c)
local use
local use
d)
sale
67.
In some developing nations, the percent of animal protein that comes from fish can be as high as:
a)
20%
b)
40%
c)
80%
d)
10%
68.
To helps restore nitrogen to the soil, fields should occasionally be planted with:
a)
legumes
b)
weeds
c)
grains
d)
cash crops
69.
Quinoa is a:
a)
type of cover crop
b)
ancient grain of the Incas
c)
type of wheat
d)
plant native to Asia
70.
Some metals are very important in electronics because they are
a)
conductors
b)
magnetic
c)
inexpensive
d)
strong
71.
The bedrock from which an area of soil may have formed is called the soil's
a)
parent rock
b)
B horizon
c)
mineral deposit
d)
A horizon
72.
Fertilizers and pesticides can lead to soil mismanagement by
a)
poisoning soil organisms
b)
taking minerals from the soil
c)
feeding plant roots
d)
forming holes in the soil
73.
The environmental impact of mineral extraction can be reduced by
a)
recycling
b)
15 percent
c)
using clean minerals
d)
getting minerals from the ocean floor
74.
Mineral deposits in streams may be extracted by
a)
dredging
b)
open-pit mining
c)
satellite imagery
d)
leaching
75.
The fertile layer of a soil profile is the
a)
topsoil
b)
subsoil
c)
bedrock
d)
rooting layer
76.
Soils form over periods of
a)
hundreds to thousands of years
b)
20-25 years
c)
10 years
d)
50 years
77.
The United States is a major producer of
a)
copper
b)
diamonds
c)
aluminum
d)
mercury
78.
Minerals are solid, inorganic substances that
a)
exist naturally
b)
are made by machines
c)
are found only on the Earth
d)
are made of iron
79.
Soils with a high percentage of clay are
a)
able to hold water for a long time
b)
ideal for growing crops
c)
able to drain rapidly
d)
full of large grains of sand
80.
Waste products that are easily broken down by nature are
a)
hazardous waste
b)
biodegradable
c)
toxic waste
d)
pesticides
81.
Grass clippings and other plant material are returned to the environment for recycling by collecting them in a
a)
deep well
b)
terrace
c)
composte pile
d)
concrete vault
82.
Substances that can eat through metals and other containers are classified as
a)
ignitable wastes
b)
toxic wastes
c)
radioactive wastes
d)
corrosive wastes
83.
Overgrazing and poor cultivation can lead to
a)
deforestation
b)
incineration
c)
irrigation
d)
desertification
84.
Wastes that explode easily are classified as
a)
ignitable wastes
b)
reactive wastes
c)
toxic wastes
d)
corrosive wastes
85.
All of the following are methods for disposal of hazardous wastes except
a)
deep-well injection
b)
controlled incineration
c)
waste exchange
d)
sanitary landfills
86.
The type of waste in most landfills is
a)
toxic waste
b)
radioactive waste
c)
solid waste
d)
compost
87.
Legislation designed to help identify and clean up hazardous areas is the
a)
Superfund
b)
NIMBY
c)
Love Canal Act
d)
Clean Land Act
88.
Substances containing mercury would be classified as
a)
radioactive waste
b)
corrosive waste
c)
toxic waste
d)
medical waste
89.
Ocean dumping is a source of pollution for
a)
land environments only
b)
air environments only
c)
water environments only
d)
land and water environments
90.
Cyanide is to toxic waste as
a)
compost is to grass
b)
radioactivity is to radiation
c)
sodium is to reactive waste
d)
trash is to hazardous waste
91.
Leaching is to groundwater pollution as
a)
acid rain is to corrosion
b)
air is to water
c)
heat is to incineration
d)
flames is to incineration
92.
The gas that is most abundant in the air is:
a)
nitrogen
b)
argon
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen
93.
Sounds can cause physical pain if they are louder than:
a)
10 dB
b)
80 dB
c)
120 dB
d)
50 dB
94.
Air pollution first became a widespread problem:
a)
about 100 years ago
b)
during the 13th century
c)
100,000 years ago
d)
during the 1700s
95.
Photochemical smog results from automobile pollutants reacting with:
a)
sunlight
b)
ozone
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
acid rain
96.
The greatest source of indoor air pollution:
a)
cigarette smoke
b)
insulation
c)
radon
d)
smog
97.
A pollutant that can reduce the amount of oxygen carried by the blood:
a)
carbon monoxide
b)
ozone
c)
sulfur dioxide
d)
carbon dioxide
98.
Normal rain has a pH of about:
a)
5.6
b)
4.0
c)
7.0
d)
8.4
99.
Acid rain is mostly a problem:
a)
throughout the Northern Hemisphere
b)
in Asia
c)
in the eastern US
d)
in Europe
100.
The ozone layer absorbs:
a)
chlorine molecules
b)
photochemical smog
c)
CFC's
d)
ultraviolet light
101.
Greenhouse gases trap:
a)
UV radiation
b)
infrared radiation
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
visible light
102.
The primary use of coal today in developed countries like the United States is…
a)
Steam-powered engines, such as in trains and ships.
b)
Household heat.
c)
Electricity generation at coal-fired power plants.
d)
Coal is no longer a widely-used fossil fuel.
103.
Which method of coal mining causes less ecological damage, but is more hazardous to the health of the workers?
a)
Mountaintop removal
b)
Open-pit mining.
c)
Strip mining.
d)
Subsurface, or underground mining.
104.
Natural gas is a mixture of gases. The single biggest component (50-90%) is…
a)
Methane
b)
Propane
c)
Butane
d)
Acetylene
105.
The type of coal that has the highest carbon content is
a)
lignite.
b)
bituminous.
c)
peat.
d)
anthracite.
106.
Natural gas is transported in _, like the Atlantic Sunrise going though Lancaster County.
a)
pipelines.
b)
trucks.
c)
tankers.
d)
trains.
107.
Which of the fossil fuels is considered the “cleanest” because its only waste products from combustion are carbon dioxide and water?
a)
Coal
b)
Oil
c)
Natural Gas (methane)
108.
Which fossil fuel is considered the most versatile, since it can be distilled and separated into many different types of fuels?
a)
Coal
b)
Oil
c)
Natural Gas (methane)
109.
Crude oil is another name for
a)
alcohol.
b)
peat.
c)
petroleum.
d)
methane.
110.
Assume the picture below shows the cooling tower of a nuclear power plant. Assuming normal operation, what is being released?
a)
Steam
b)
Particulate pollution in the form of ash and soot
c)
Carbon dioxide
d)
Radioactive elements
111.
The nuclear _______ reaction works by splitting the nucleus of the element uranium. This causes the release of heat and _____________, which then strike other, nearby atoms of uranium.
a)
Fission / Neutrons
b)
Fusion / Protons
c)
Fission / Light
d)
Fusion / Larger elements
100 %
