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Worksheets2019 IS2 Final Exam Review
Total questions: 127
Worksheet time: 4hrs 22mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Bacteria are prokaryotes which means they
a)
have a nucleus on their capsule
b)
do not contain a nucleus
c)
can live in environments with and without oxygen
2.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
coccus
b)
spirillum
c)
bacillus
3.
Bacteria that help break down dead material in the environment are called
a)
vaccines
b)
decomposers
c)
oats
4.
Bacteria reproduce asexually by a process called
a)
replication
b)
meiosis
c)
mitosis
d)
binary fission
5.
In binary fission how does the DNA of the daughter cells compare to the DNA of the parent cell?
a)
It is only half of the amount of DNA found in the parent.
b)
It is identical.
c)
It is a mix of the parent's DNA.
d)
It has some similarities and some differences.
6.
Bacteria exchange genetic information during
a)
asexual reproduction
b)
binary fission
c)
conjugation
d)
photosynthesis
7.
In this diagram the bacteria can move using it's ___________.
a)
psuedopod
b)
DNA
c)
flagella
d)
medusa hair
8.
Identify the pili.
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
Identify the plasmid.
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Identify the cell part.
a)
ribosomes
b)
plasmids
c)
chloroplasts
d)
nucleoid
11.
Besides DNA or RNA, what else is a virus made of?
a)
a cell wall
b)
a cell membrane
c)
a protein coat or capsid
d)
a lipid coat
12.
Viruses require a host cell to
a)
breathe and eat
b)
move and sleep
c)
replicate and use energy
d)
make protein and carbohydrates
13.
Viruses are difficult to treat because they
a)
are very very sneaky
b)
they are constantly mutating
c)
they are immune to all medicines
d)
they move too fast to catch
14.
Which of the following describes a bacteriophage?
a)
A virus that only infects plants
b)
A virus that only infects birds
c)
A species of bacteria that infects plants
d)
A virus that only infects bacteria
15.
A virus may have DNA or RNA as its genetic material.
a)
True
b)
False
16.
Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by breaking it open?
a)
lytic
b)
lysogenic
17.
The ___________ cycle allows replication of the phage genome without destroying the host.
a)
lysogenic
b)
lytic
18.
Viruses are cells.
a)
True
b)
False
19.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
20.
Chicken pox, SARS, Ebola, and AIDS are all types of
a)
fungal diseases
b)
plant diseases
c)
bacterial diseases
d)
viral diseases
21.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
22.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
23.
What is another name for the "surface spikes" around a virus?
a)
DNA
b)
Capsomeres
c)
Glycoproteins
d)
Anchors
24.
Which of the following does a virus not have?
a)
Capsid
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Glycoproteins
d)
Nucleic acids
25.
How could you describe the size of a virus?
a)
Smaller than bacteria
b)
Larger than a parasite
c)
About the size of a dime
d)
Smaller than a proton
26.
Glycoproteins on the outside of a virus
a)
To send signals to other viruses.
b)
To maintain their structure.
c)
Signals host cells to recognize the virus and permit entry.
d)
To reproduce.
27.
What is buoyant force?
a)
An upward force exerted by fluids on an object.
b)
An downward force exerted by fluids on an object.
28.
Archimedes' Principle states that...
a)
The buoyant force acting on an object equals the volume of the fluid displaced by the object.
b)
The buoyant force acting on an object equals the weight (force of gravity) of the fluid displaced by the object.
c)
The buoyant force acting on an object will always be equal.
29.
Why is pizza a heterogeneous mixture?
a)
It has the same composition and appearance throughout the mixture
b)
There are visible differences within the mixture
c)
There are some differences and similarities
d)
It is mixed once stirred
30.
Why is air a mixture?
a)
Because it consists of more than one substance (i.e. Nitrogen, Oxygen, CO2)
b)
Because it consists of one compound (CO2)
c)
Because it is a mixture of one pure substance
d)
Because it is a combination of elements or a compound
31.
Why is Gold (Au) considered a Pure Substance and NOT a Mixture?
a)
It is an element not physically mixed with anything else.
b)
It is a compound NOT mixed with anything else
c)
It is a mixture of 24-karat and 14-karat gold
d)
All gold (Au) has a fragments of silver within them
32.
Why are compounds considered Pure Substances?
a)
Every molecule is made up of the SAME kind of atoms arranged in the same way
b)
Every molecule is a compound
c)
They are actually considered mixtures
d)
Every molecule is composed of different elements, with different combinations
33.
Why are most kinds of foods mixtures?
a)
They are made of numerous different combinations of substances
b)
They are made of only one type of mixture
c)
They are made of only ONE type of compound
d)
Sugar and salt are not mixtures, but salt water is.
34.
If two objects are made of the same substance and have the same mass, the shape of the object determines whether or not it sinks or floats in a fluid.
a)
True
b)
False
35.
Which block has the largest buoyant force when floating?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
36.
Which block has the smallest buoyant force?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
37.
Salt water (oceans or seas) have a density less than distilled water.
a)
True
b)
False
38.
Buoyancy is the difference between the force of gravity pulling an object down and the opposite force pushing an object up in a liquid.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
What is labelled "B" on the graph?
a)
solids
b)
liquids
c)
gases
d)
a phase change
40.
ΔH value in an endothermic reaction is a positive number.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
A catalyst works by
a)
changing the order of the reaction
b)
increasing the temperature
c)
lowering the activation energy
d)
making the activated complex
42.
What type of reaction is shown in the reaction pathway?
a)
endothermic reaction
b)
exothermic reaction
43.
_?_ is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of any substance 1oC.
a)
Specific heat
b)
A calorie
c)
Thermal energy
d)
Conduction
44.
As 120 g of hot milk cools in a mug, it transfers 20, 000 J of heat to the environment. What is the temperature change of the milk? The specific heat of milk is 2.6 J/g·°C. (Q=mcΔT)
a)
64 °C
b)
1.56 °C
c)
640 °C
d)
cannot be determined
45.
If 100 g of aluminum at 145ºC gains 6,800 J of heat, what is the final temperature (Tfinal) of the aluminum? Aluminum has a specific heat of 0.897 J/gºC. (Q=mcΔT)
a)
-69°C
b)
0.52°C
c)
221°C
46.
C+ O2 --> CO2 + 60kJ, what is the value for ΔH for the reaction?
a)
+60
b)
-60
c)
there is no way to know
47.
Energy in exothermic reactions are
a)
released
b)
absorbed
48.
Which would NOT increase the rate at which a sugar cube dissolves?
a)
Reducing the amount of solvent
b)
Crushing the sugar cube
c)
Stirring the solution
d)
Heating the solvent
49.
A solution that contains all of the solute it can hold at a given temperature is
a)
diluted.
b)
saturated.
c)
supersaturated.
d)
unsaturated.
50.
Three 10 g samples of sugar are represented below.
Sample A dissolves in water more slowly than sample B.
Sample B dissolves more slowly than sample C.
Which of the following best explains why sample A dissolves more slowly than the other two?
a)
It has the most volume.
b)
It has the smallest surface area.
c)
It has the largest number of sugar molecules.
d)
It has the fewest bonds between sugar modules.
51.
Students in Ms. McGurn’s science class are investigating how temperature, in degrees Celsius (C), affects the solubility of a compound in 100 g of water. Ms. McGurn provides the students with a graph that shows the solubility of a certain compound, as shown below.
She then tells the students that she will demonstrate how many grams (g) of the compound will dissolve in 100 g of water at 40 C. Based on the information in the graph, which of the following is the best prediction of how many grams of the compound will dissolve at 40 C?
a)
40 g
b)
65 g
c)
85 g
d)
100 g
52.
How much KNO3 solute is saturated at 40 degrees?
a)
75
b)
55
c)
65
d)
85
53.
At what temperature can you fully dissolve 140g of NaNO3?
a)
62
b)
73
c)
81
d)
You cannot determine this
54.
What type of a solution is 60g NaNO3 at 40ºC in 100g H2O?
a)
Saturated
b)
Unsaturated
c)
Supersaturated
55.
When 50 grams of potassium chloride, KCl, is dissolved in 100 grams of water at 50 ºC, the solution can be correctly described as:
a)
supersaturated
b)
unsaturated
c)
saturated
56.
Which salt is LEAST soluble at 0 ºC?
a)
K2Cr2O7
b)
KNO3
c)
KClO3
d)
Ce2(SO4)3
57.
The amount of solute actually dissolved in a given amount of solvent.
a)
dilution
b)
concentration
c)
saturated solution
d)
supersaturated mixture
58.
How does a solution become supersaturated?
a)
dissolve lots of solute in it.
b)
dissolve a little solute in it.
c)
dissolve more solute than you should be able to.
d)
dissolve a super amount of solvent in it.
59.
What does it mean to dilute a solution?
a)
lower the concentration of solute per solvent
b)
increase the concentration of solute per solvent
60.
You can make a solution more concentrated by adding __________.
a)
solute
b)
solvent
c)
water
61.
The ___ is the thing being dissolved.
a)
solute
b)
solvent
c)
mixture
d)
suspension
62.
The higher the temperature, the more dissolved oxygen in water.
a)
True
b)
False
63.
What is a solvent?
a)
The substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
b)
The substance that is being dissolved in a solution.
c)
The mixing of different substances.
d)
The process in which neutral molecules lose or gain electrons
64.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
65.
During osmosis
a)
water moves from high to low concentration
b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
66.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
67.
The picture is an example of...
a)
active tranport
b)
passive transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
68.
_______ regulates what enters and leaves a cell.
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cytoplasm
69.
The diagram shows various molecules that move into and out of the cell. How does molecule C move out the cell?
a)
Active Transport
b)
Diffusion
c)
The use of a protein pump
d)
Manipulated osmosis
70.
An animal cell placed in a highly concentrated salt solution will
a)
Stay the same
b)
Shrink- get smaller
c)
Swell- get bigger
71.
An gummy bear placed in a pure water solution will
a)
Stay the same
b)
Shrink- get smaller due to osmosis
c)
Swell- get bigger due to osmosis
72.
An ecosystem has :
a)
living things
b)
living and nonliving things
c)
nonliving things
d)
nothing
73.
Why do ice cubes float in a glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
74.
Mercury is a metal that is liquid at room temperature and has a density of 13.5 g/cm3. Which of these metals would sink below the mercury if dropped into a container of mercury?
a)
gold (density=19.3 g/cm3)
b)
lead (density=11.4 g/cm3)
c)
iron (density=7.9g/cm3)
d)
aluminum (density=2.7g/cm3)
75.
A substance made of two or more different elements. Example: H2O, CO2
a)
Molecule
b)
Compound
c)
Surface Tension
d)
Surfactant
76.
Water, being polar, and will dissolve
a)
Polar materials
b)
most Ionic materials
c)
Non polar materials
d)
Both polar and most ionic materials
77.
True or False. In this energy pyramid, the consumers on each level only get about 10 percent of energy that the trophic level before it has stored.
a)
True
b)
False
78.
A pyramid shape is used to show the amount of available energy at each trophic level because...
a)
energy decreases as you go up the food chain, just like the pyramid shape gets smaller as you go up.
b)
energy increases up the food chain just like the pyramid shape gets smaller as you go up.
c)
energy amounts are the same at each trophic level
79.
If only 10% of an organism's energy is available for the next trophic level, what happens with the other 90% of the energy?
a)
It is destroyed after it is used up.
b)
It is used for life processes or lost as body heat.
c)
It remains for the next trophic level IF the predator consumes ALL of the organism.
d)
It is lost completely as body heat.
80.
In this energy pyramid, what is the proper name for ANY ORGANISM ABOVE THE PRODUCER LEVEL?
a)
decomposers
b)
consumers
c)
producers
d)
omnivores
81.
Why are producers found at the base of the pyramid?
a)
They create all of the energy and therefore have the most energy of all of the trophic levels
b)
There are more plants than animals.
c)
They begin the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
d)
All of these answers are correct.
82.
True or False: Organisms will always stay in the same trophic level.
a)
True-- an organism's trophic level is permanent based on the species it is.
b)
False-- the trophic level an organism belongs to is based on what it is consuming in the food chain.
83.
The diagram represents a model of a food pyramid. Which statement best describes what happens in this food pyramid?
a)
More organisms die at higher levels than at lower levels, resulting in less mass at higher levels.
b)
Energy is lost to the environment at each level, so less mass can be supported at each higher level.
c)
When organisms die at higher levels, their remains sink to lower levels, increasing the mass of lower levels.
d)
Organisms decay at each level, and thus less mass can be supported at higher levels
84.
Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a)
Used in reproduction
b)
Stored as body fat
c)
Stored as body tissue
d)
Eliminated as heat
85.
The diagram is intended to show relationships in an ecosystem. What do the arrows represent?
a)
The direction of population migration
b)
Differences in dietary habits
c)
Progressively smaller organisms
d)
The direction of the energy flow
86.
In the energy pyramid below, which organism has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
87.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
88.
Which of the following organisms is a herbivore.
a)
butterfly
b)
snake
c)
fox
d)
ladybird
89.
Which of the following organisms is a carnivore.
a)
greenfly
b)
plant
c)
mouse
d)
buzzard
90.
The owl receives energy from which organisms?
a)
grasshopper and mouse
b)
mouse and rabbit
c)
rabbit and butterfly
d)
butterfly and frog
91.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
92.
An organism that gets energy from breaking down dead organisms, non-living material or waste is a(an) ___________.
a)
producer
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
autotroph
93.
An animal that is hunted and eaten for food is a __________.
a)
predator
b)
prey
c)
population
94.
What does a food chain represent?
a)
How all living organisms within a habitat are connected.
b)
All of the things that a particular animal eats.
c)
How plants create their own food.
d)
A single path of energy transfer within a habitat.
95.
A consumer that hunts is called:
a)
a producer.
b)
an omnivore.
c)
a predator.
d)
a herbivore.
96.
Remoras attach themselves to a shark's body. They then travel with the shak and feed on the left over scraps from the shark's meals.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
predation
d)
competition
97.
Hermit Crabs live in shells made and then abandoned by snails.
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Competition
d)
Parasitism
98.
Ostriches and Gazelles feed next to each other. They both watch for predators and alert each other to danger. Since the visual abilities of the two species are different, they can each identify threats the other animal would not as readily see.
a)
Parasitism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Mutualism
d)
Competition.
99.
The flea feeds on a mouse's blood to the mouse's detriment (or harm).
a)
Predation
b)
Parasitism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Mutualism
100.
Ticks feed on deer blood to the deer's detriment (or harm).
a)
Commensalism
b)
Predation
c)
Parasitism
d)
Mutualsim
101.
When a pine tree grows real tall and blocks sunlight to another pine tree it is _______ competition.
a)
Interference
b)
Intraspecific
c)
Interspecific
d)
Exploitative
102.
Sea Otters function as a _________in the kelp forest ecosystem because when they are removed, the whole system fails.
a)
Keystone Species
b)
Apex Predator
c)
Primary Producer
d)
Primary Consumer
103.
The image shows....
a)
Interspecific competition
b)
Intraspecific competition
c)
Mutualism
d)
Resource Partitioning.
104.
About _________% of energy is lost from one trophic level to the next
a)
10
b)
30
c)
70
d)
90
105.
How do decomposers help other living things in ecosystems?
a)
They release oxygen into the atmosphere
b)
They turn sunlight into energy
c)
They release matter and nutrients back into the soil
d)
They get rid of dead animals so they don't smell bad
106.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
107.
A cannonball with a mass of 0.5 kg is flying at an acceleration of 10 m/sec/sec. What is it's force?
a)
50 Newtons
b)
5 Newtons
c)
20 Newtons
d)
9.5 Newtons
108.
A skater pushes another skater forward, but the one pushing moves backwards.
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
3rd
Law of Motion
109.
With unbalanced forces, the object will move in the direction of the _______ force.
a)
larger
b)
smaller
c)
equal
110.
What is the magnitude (size) and direction of the net force?
a)
15 N to the left
b)
15 N to the right
c)
1 N to the left
d)
1 N to the right
111.
According to Newton's second law, if you increase the force applied to an object :
a)
it accelerates more
b)
it doesn't move
c)
you get more inertia
d)
it decelerates
112.
You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.
a)
20N
b)
40N
c)
10N
d)
70N
113.
Suppose that a sled is accelerating at a rate of 2 m/s2. If the net force is tripled then what is the new acceleration of the sled?
a)
12 m/s/s
b)
6 m/s/s
c)
12 in/s/s
d)
120 m/s/s
114.
Which of Newtons laws best explains why football teams have big, large, fast athletes.
a)
Gravity
b)
second law
c)
first law
d)
Third law
115.
What is the net force?
a)
30 N
b)
25 N
c)
5 N
d)
55 N
116.
Slamming on the brakes in a moving car makes a passenger move forward against his or her seat belt because
a)
the passenger has the inertia to keep moving forward
b)
the passenger is being pushed by the seats of the car
c)
the passenger is better able to stop themselves in this manner
d)
the passenger has an equal and opposite force supporting their weight
117.
How long will an object remain at rest, according to Newton's First Law of Motion?
a)
it can't rest
b)
until noon
c)
until an unbalanced force occurs
d)
as long as there are unbalanced forces acting on it
118.
A rocket is sent into space. When the power dies out, the rocket will just keep floating and moving in space forever (unless an unbalanced force, such as a meteor, runs into it).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
119.
When an unbalanced force acts on an object, the force ______________________.
a)
changes the motion of the object
b)
is cancelled by another force
c)
does not change the motion of an object
d)
is equal to the weight of the object
120.
What is the potential energy of the reactants?
a)
10 kJ
b)
45 kJ
c)
103 kJ
d)
58 kJ
121.
What is the potential energy of the products?
a)
10 kJ
b)
45 kJ
c)
103 kJ
d)
58 kJ
122.
What is the ΔH of the reaction?
a)
35 kJ
b)
- 35 kJ
c)
- 58 kJ
d)
58 kJ
123.
Does the reverse reaction absorb or release heat?
a)
Absorb
b)
Release
c)
Cannot be determine
124.
The ΔH of the reverse reaction is...
a)
-35 kJ
b)
35 kJ
c)
-58 kJ
d)
58 kJ
125.
Which letter corresponds to the activation energy of the forward reaction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
126.
Which letter corresponds to the energy of the activated complex?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
127.
Which letter corresponds to the ΔH of the reaction?
a)
F
b)
E
c)
C
d)
D
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