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Final Exam Review

Total questions: 147

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
2.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
3.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
4.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
5.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
6.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
7.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
8.
How many daughter cells does Meiosis create?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
1
9.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
10.
How many chromosomes does a human cell have?
a)
42
b)
46
c)
24
d)
64
11.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
12.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
13.
phenotypes that is a blend of the heterozygous gene pair
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
multiple alleles
c)
regulatory genes
14.
trait shows only if both parents pass it on
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
codominan
15.
when you have two different genes
a)
heterozygous
b)
dominant
c)
homozygous
16.
when you have two of the same genes
a)
heterozygous
b)
recessive
c)
homozygous
17.
phenotypes that shows both traits
a)
semi-dominant
b)
heterozygous
c)
codominance
18.
the physical look of a trait
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
recessive
19.
the following letters are an example of _______  dd
a)
recessive
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
homozygous dominant
d)
dominant
20.
Dd letters are an example of....
a)
heterozygous genes
b)
homozygous genes
c)
dominant genes
d)
recessive genes
21.
DD is an example of
a)
homozygous recessive
b)
dominant
c)
Homozygous dominant
d)
recessive
22.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
23.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
24.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
25.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
26.
Term for an organism that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
27.
Sex cells are produced through the process of
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
binary fission
d)
meiosis
28.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
29.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
30.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Yy
b)
Y
c)
yy
d)
YY
31.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
32.
A single cross such as flower color.
a)
mono hybrid
b)
dihybrid
c)
crossing over
d)
homozygous
33.
What type of "square" helps us solve genetic problems?
a)
carpenter square
b)
Mendel square
c)
Punnett square
d)
genetic square
34.
If "T" is the allele for tall and "t" is the allele for short, then Tt would produce?
a)
tall
b)
short
c)
medium
d)
not enough info
35.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
36.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
37.
Which of the following genotypes is a purebred?
a)
Bb
b)
Gg
c)
bb
d)
Dd
38.
Brown fur color is dominant over black fur color. Which of the following is the actual genotype of ALL of the offspring in the next generation of this cross for fur color?
AA x aa
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
brown fur
39.
The visual representation of an individual's chromosomes is a 
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
karyotype
d)
stereotype
40.
Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked disease or disorder because
a)
males are the weaker sex
b)
males have less DNA
c)
males have 1 X chromosome, so the disorder is more likely to be expressed
41.
When we say that a woman is a carrier for a genetic disease or disorder it means that
a)
she has 1 gene, but not the disorder
b)
she has 2 genes for the disorder
c)
she can pass the gene only to male children
d)
she can pass the gene only to female children
42.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be 
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
43.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
44.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
45.

Evolution is best defined as:

a)

the process which organisms die.

b)

the process which organisms change over time.

c)

the process which organisms that are extinct become revived.

d)

the process which non-living things fossilize.

46.

What type of evidence is represented in the picture above:

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial Structures

c)

DNA

d)

Homologous Structures

47.

What type of evidence is shown in this picture?

a)

Fossils

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

d)

DNA

48.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

49.

Adaptations are:

a)

physical or behavioral tendencies.

b)

physical or behavioral characteristics that help an organisms survive and reproduce.

c)

physical or behavioral characteristics that do not help the organism in any way.

d)

genetic mutations that have gone wrong.

50.
The similarities of the bones in the diagram provide evidence that---
a)
The organisms shown lived in the same natural envionrment
b)
The organisms shown may have developed from a common ancestor
c)
The organisms shown have the same genetic diseases
d)
All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs
51.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
52.

Which scientist is known for his work that he did on the Galapagos Islands to develop his theory of natural selection?

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Anton Van Leewenhoek

d)

Robert Brown

53.

The process by which two populations of the same species become so different that they can no longer interbreed.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

speciation

d)

fossilization

54.

Overproduction, Genetic Variation, Struggle to Survive, and Successful Reproduction are the 4 parts of:

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Speciation

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Fossilization

55.

A species is defined as:

a)

a group of organisms that are extremely different.

b)

a group of organisms that have similar characteristics and always live in the same place.

c)

a group of organisms with similar characteristics and can reproduce to make fertile offspring.

d)

any two organisms to make a hybrid.

56.
Charles Darwin came up with this theory 
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Mutation
57.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
58.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers 
b)
Genotypes 
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
59.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
60.
The environment around Manchester, England, changed during the Industrial Revolution.  How did this change affect peppered moths living in the area?
a)
Natural selection favored moths with dark wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
b)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings that were easy for predators to see.
c)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
d)
Natural selection caused moths with white wings to become extinct.
61.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
62.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
63.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
64.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
65.
What would indicate that a series of fossils represent evolution?
a)
the fossils were identical
b)
the fossils were found in the same layers of rock
c)
the fossils show similarities
d)
the fossils were completely different
66.
What animal is Darwin known for studying?
a)
dinosaurs
b)
tunicates
c)
finches
d)
horses
67.
Structures that are inherited from a common ancestor are homologous.
a)
True
b)
False
68.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
69.
Bird wings and butterfly wings are an example of
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Mimicry
d)
Camoflague
70.
Analogous structures show common ancestry.
a)
True
b)
False
71.
How would you describe this evolution?
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Structural adaption
d)
Functional adaption
72.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

73.

Orcas occur in the same habitat but some are avoiding each other and do not interbreed. They have different diets, vocal behavior, and social structures. What type of speciation is this?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Complex

d)

Covergent

74.

The emergence of a mountain range is an event that would lead to _______________ speciation

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Temporal

d)

Behavioral

75.

Occurs when stable environment favours the intermediate phenotype

a)

Directional selection

b)

Disruptive selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Inbeeding

76.

A balanced polymorphism exist through disruptive selection in seed cracker finches from Cameroon in which small and large billed birds specialized in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population?

a)

Sexual selection

b)

Stabilizing selection

c)

Directional selection

d)

Disruptive selection

77.

Occurs when changing environment favours one extreme phenotype

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Outbreeding

78.

Occurs when environmental conditions fluctuate between two opposite extreme values.

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Distruptive selection

c)

Directional selection

d)

Stabilizing selection

79.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

80.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

geographic selection

d)

disruptive selection

81.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

disruptive selection

82.

Aspen trees that are over 25 m tend to blow over in high winds; aspen that are under 15 m don't get enough sun

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

83.

Fish that produce 40,000+ eggs have greater fitness than fish that produce less than this number

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

84.
Choose which scientist corresponds best with the statement: 
use or disuse
a)
Darwin 
b)
Lamarck
85.
Choose which scientist corresponds best with the statement: 
acquired characteristics are inherited
a)
Darwin 
b)
Lamarck
86.

______ generated very similar ideas to Darwin. His key phrase was organisms "struggle for existence"

a)

Alfred Russel Wallace

b)

Thomas Malthus

c)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

d)

Charles Lyell

87.
All of the living and nonliving things in an area that interact with each other are called a/an ______.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
88.
The living part of an ecosystem
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
c)
Mother Earth
d)
Flowers
89.
The non-living part of an ecosystem
a)
Ocean
b)
Lava Flow
c)
Birds
d)
Abiotic
90.
Examples of a producer
a)
frog
b)
algae
c)
worm
d)
mouse
91.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
92.
A tree is a ....
a)
composer
b)
decomposer
c)
producer
93.

What is an autotroph?

a)

an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms

b)

an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food

c)

an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste

d)

an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food

94.
What is a herbivore?
a)
an animal that gets energy from eating other animals
b)
an organism that gets energy from eating only plants
c)
an animal that gets energy by eating both plants and other animals
d)
an animal that eats only herbs
95.
What is a carnivore?
a)
an animal that gets energy by eating other animals
b)
An animal that gets energy by eating only plants
c)
an animal that gets energy by eating both plants and animals
d)
an animal that makes its own energy through photosynthesis
96.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
97.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
98.
A producer is a (n) ______________.
a)
heterotroph
b)
omnitroph
c)
autotroph
d)
oscartroph
99.
All food chains begin with a ____________.
a)
primary consumer
b)
secondary consumer
c)
producers
d)
scavengers
100.
Which best describes what a food chain shows you?
a)
Energy flow through an ecosystem
b)
Food flowing through an ecosystem
c)
Consumers going into other consumers
d)
Who eats who
101.
Another name for a consumer is a
a)
heterotroph
b)
autotroph
c)
producer
d)
plant
102.
What does every food chain start with? (Even if it's not drawn or written there!)
a)
producers
b)
sun
c)
consumer
d)
decomposers
103.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
104.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Secondary Consumer
105.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
106.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
107.
As you move upward, from level to level, in an energy pyramid, energy _____.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
increases exponentially
108.
What are the Abiotic factors in this image? 
a)
water, sunlight, dirt, air
b)
birds and plants
c)
birds, water, dirt
d)
plants, water
109.
which symbiosis is this 
a)
parasitism 
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
d)
nonalism 
110.
symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit
a)
competition
b)
Mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
energy pyramid
111.
a relationship between two in which one species, the predator, feeds on the other species, the prey
a)
chemosynthesis
b)
predation
c)
cellular respiration 
d)
commensalism
112.
symbiotic relationship in which one organisms benefits and the other organism is not affected
a)
invasive (non-native) species
b)
mutualism 
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
commensalism
113.
Organisms that breaks down and absorbs nutrients from dead organisms 
a)
consumer
b)
trophic level
c)
decomposer
d)
species
114.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
115.
Carbon can be found in...
a)
The atmosphere
b)
Soil
c)
Fossil fuels
d)
All of the above
116.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
117.
Respiration is the process by which animals take in _____ and release _____. 
a)
photosynthesis, air
b)
carbon, oxygen
c)
oxygen
d)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
118.
What factor describes when populations increase because animals are moving into a population?
a)
Emigration
b)
Limiting Factors
c)
Immigration
d)
Exponential Growth
119.
What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?
a)
Emigration
b)
Limiting Factors
c)
Immigration
d)
Exponential Growth
120.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
121.
Which limiting factor would increase due to the number of individuals in a population?
a)
Unusual weather
b)
Natural disaster
c)
Births
d)
Disease
122.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
123.
As a population grows, it will most likely stop growing at what size?
a)
Growth limit
b)
Exponential limit
c)
Carrying Capacity
d)
It won't stop growing
124.
The carrying capacity of an environment for a particular species at a particular time is determined by the
a)
number of individuals in the species.
b)
distribution of the population.
c)
reproductive potential of the species.
d)
supply of the most limited resources
125.
Which kind of growth does the human population follow? It is described as a J-shaped curve.
a)
Exponential Growth
b)
Logistic Growth
c)
Outstanding Growth
d)
Minimal Growth
126.
What will happen to the population when the death rate is larger than the birth rate?
a)
grow
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same
d)
None of these
127.
What will happen to the population when the birth rate is larger than the death rate?
a)
grow
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same
128.
Which will add more organisms to a population? 
a)
5 animals die
b)
0 animals are born
c)
3 animals immigrate to the population
d)
2 animals emmigrate from the population
129.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
130.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

131.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

132.

As a population of a species increases within a territory, which of the following most likely also increases?

a)

Immigration

b)

Food supply

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Competition

133.

A population’s emigration in one month totaled 2 individuals. During the same period, immigration was 12 individuals. Natality (births) was 8, and mortality was 15 due to a parasite infection. What was the net effect on the population size?

a)

+5

b)

+3

c)

0

d)

-4

134.

What type of growth model is shown in image A?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

135.

What type of growth model is shown in image B?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

136.

What type of factors represent the living organisms in an environment?

a)

Abiotic

b)

Biotic

c)

Viruses

d)

Natural Disasters

137.

What type of factors represent the nonliving aspects of an environment?

a)

Abiotic

b)

Biotic

c)

Bacteria

d)

Protists

138.

When an environment has reached its carrying capacity for a certain population, which of the following is true?

a)

immigration and birth rates are higher than emigration and immigration rates.

b)

immigration and birth rates are lower than emigration and immigration rates.

c)

immigration and birth rates are equal to emigration and immigration rates.

139.

What process is occuring in the image?

a)

Secondary succession, because a forest fire has wiped out the original population and left fertile soil behind for a new community to grow.

b)

Secondary succession, because the community was not impacted greatly and this allows it to grow back rapidly.

c)

Primary succession because lightning created a wildfire that burned the dry vegetation covering all of the soil.

d)

Primary succession because lightning completely destroyed the community to allow a new one to emerge.

140.

A volcanic eruption would be an appropriate precursor to what process?

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

c)

Climax Community

d)

Invasive Species

141.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
142.
Which of the following statements about primary succession is true?
a)
It begins with a climax community
b)
Small mammals are the first to live there
c)
It begins with bare rock
d)
It begins with rock and soil
143.

What type of spatial dispersion does this organism exhibit?

a)

Clumped

b)

Random

c)

Uniform

144.

What type of spatial dispersion would dandelion seeds have?

a)

Clumped

b)

Random

c)

Uniform

145.
If two parents are heterozygous for type A blood, what is the probability that their offspring would have type O blood?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
146.
If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
147.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B

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