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WorksheetsGenetics Part 1
Total questions: 157
Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
2.
Which of these phases of mitosis take place first?
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
3.
During interphase, the DNA is in the form of
a)
chromatin
b)
chromosomes
c)
chromatids
d)
centromeres
4.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
5.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
6.
Structure B is pointing to the _____.
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
7.
Structure C is pointing to one ____.
a)
sister chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
d)
gene
8.
How many chromosomes are normally found in human body cells?
a)
46
b)
23
c)
26
d)
44
9.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome
10.
Identify the phase of mitosis.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
11.
Identify the phase of mitosis.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
12.
In which cell below would a student likely observe a cell plate during mitosis?
a)
rat muscle cell
b)
alligator stomach cell
c)
onion root cell
d)
human lung cell
13.
A process where one cell forms two identical daughter cells is called...
a)
cell cycle
b)
cell division (mitosis)
c)
interphase
d)
cytokinesis
14.
During interphase the cell ___________.
a)
divides into two cells
b)
divides its nucleus
c)
replicates its DNA
d)
replicates the organelles within the cell
15.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
DeNatured Acid
b)
DomiNant Acid
c)
DeoxyriboNucleic Acid
d)
DiriboNucleic Acid
16.
Replication is when __________.
a)
the cell makes a copy of its DNA in nucleus
b)
the cell forms 2 identical cells
c)
the cell produces 2 sets of organelles
d)
the cell continues to complete the same function
17.
Where does replication occur within the cell?
a)
in the cytoplasm
b)
in the nucleus
c)
in the ribosome
d)
in the chromatin
18.
What are the two daughter strands of replicated chromatin that are condensed and connected by a centromere called?
a)
DNA
b)
chromatin
c)
chromatid
d)
chromosome
19.
The following describes ________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the center of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
20.
The following describes __________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The nuclear membrane breaks apart.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
21.
The following describes _________ during mitosis. The spindle fiber splits the centromere and the chromatids move to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
22.
What is the correct term for "the basic building block of all living organisms"?
a)
cell
b)
cell cycle
c)
cell plate
d)
centriole
23.
What is the correct term for "cylinder-shaped organelles found in animal cells which help to form spindle fibers during cell division"?
a)
centriole
b)
nucleus
c)
spindle fibers
d)
cytokinesis
24.
What is the correct term for "contains the genetic material (DNA) and serves as the control center of the cell"?
a)
centriole
b)
nucleus
c)
spindle fibers
d)
cytokinesis
25.
What is the correct term for "form during prophase of mitosis and attach to chromosomes at the centromere to pull them apart during cell division"?
a)
centriole
b)
nucleus
c)
spindle fibers
d)
cytokinesis
26.
A new organism is produced from one parent organism.
a)
Sexual Reproduction
b)
Asexual Reproduction
27.
Mitosis is a type of ________________ reproduction.
a)
Sexual
b)
Asexual
28.
Results of cell division or mitosis include all of the following EXCEPT?
a)
growth
b)
repair damaged cells
c)
replace damaged cells
d)
dead cells
29.
Two new nuclei form and the cytoplasm splits
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Prophase
30.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
31.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
32.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
33.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
34.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
35.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad (pair of chromosomes, one from mom and one from dad)
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
quad (group of 4 replicated chromosomes, 2 from mom and 2 from dad)
36.
Crossing over creates
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation (differences)
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
37.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
38.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
39.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
40.
What phase is shown in the picture?
a)
metaphase 2
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
41.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
42.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
43.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
44.
How many daughter cells does Meiosis create?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
1
45.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Anaphase II
46.
After meiosis II the daughter cells will contain ____ chromosomes if the original cell contained 78.
a)
78
b)
39
c)
23
d)
46
47.
Which of the following cells is a gamete?
a)
egg
b)
bone
c)
heart
d)
muscle
48.
The pair of chromosomes that contain the same genes (but may be coded differently) and are inherited from a male and female parent are termed ___.
a)
gametes
b)
alleles
c)
zygote
d)
homologs or homologous chromosomes
49.
The fertilized egg is termed a/an _____.
a)
gamete
b)
allele
c)
homolog
d)
zygote
50.
In mitosis cells are genetically _______, but in meiosis cells are genetically ______.
a)
diverse, identical
b)
identical, diverse/different
51.
When does replication of chromosomes occur in animal cell meiosis?
a)
Before Meiosis I and Meiosis II
b)
Before Meiosis II Only
c)
Before Meiosis I Only
d)
During Prophase I and Prophase II
52.
Meiosis is the _____.
a)
nuclear division of gametes
b)
nuclear division of body cells
c)
division of body cells
d)
division of sex cells
53.
In sexual reproduction, chromosome reduction is necessary to ___.
a)
ensure that all offspring have the correct diploid number of chromosomes
b)
ensure that all offspring have the correct haploid number of chromosomes
c)
ensure that all daughter cells are identical
54.
Is this a normal human karyotype?
a)
YES
b)
NO
55.
Is this karyotype for a male or female?
a)
MALE
b)
FEMALE
56.
Mitosis makes sure that all daughter cells are _____.
a)
genetically identical, diploid
b)
genetically identical, haploid
c)
genetically diverse, diploid
d)
genetically diverse, haploid
57.
Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG?
ATG TGA CAG?
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
58.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
59.
Which of the following monomers are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
60.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of adenine present is always equal to the amount of _________.
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
61.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
62.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
63.
The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
64.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
d)
Protein Synthesis
65.
The drawing shows the structure of what molecule?
a)
A DNA molecule
b)
A lipid molecule
c)
A carbohydrate molecule
d)
A protein molecule
66.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
67.
Who was given credit for determining the shape of DNA?
a)
Avery
b)
Watson and Darwin
c)
Watson and Crick
d)
Franklin and Crick
68.
Identify #2.
a)
nitrogen base
b)
phosphate group
c)
deoxyribose sugar
d)
nucleotide
69.
X outlines a(n) ___________.
a)
amino acid
b)
nitrogen base
c)
nucleotide
d)
nitrogen base pair
70.
The molecule pictured is a monomer of _______.
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
a carbohydrate
d)
a protein
71.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
72.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
73.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
74.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
75.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
76.
What is a gene?
a)
A bundle (like a hot dog bun) that the DNA is packed into
b)
something inside the nucleus
c)
a piece of DNA
d)
all of your DNA
77.
Bundled up, organized DNA is called a
a)
gene
b)
trait
c)
chromosome
d)
nucleotide
78.
The sugar in DNA is ?
a)
sucrose
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
fructose
79.
When DNA makes a copy of itself, the new strands are identical or different?
a)
identical
b)
different
80.
What kind of information does DNA carry?
a)
genetic
b)
nuclear
c)
cell structure
d)
it doesn't carry any info
81.
The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
82.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
83.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
84.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
85.
The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in
a)
none of these
b)
Two DNA molecules. One original molecule and one with two new strands
c)
two exact copies with new strands
d)
two identical molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.
86.
Why does DNA replicate?
a)
To create another copy for the new cell
b)
To create a duplicate copy in case the original gets damaged
c)
To create a new copy to replace the damaged original
87.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
88.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
89.
a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________
a)
pedigree
b)
Punnett Square
c)
Venn Diagram
d)
Karyotype
90.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
91.
You are viewing a patients karyotype. You see 23 chromosomes total. There are no homologous chromosomes. Which type of cell are you viewing?
a)
Egg cell
b)
Zygote
c)
Skin cell
d)
White blood cell
92.
The results of the karyotype indicate that an individual has 3 chromosome #21. Which of the following genetic disorders do they have?
a)
Edwards Syndrome
b)
Patau's Syndrome
c)
Down's Syndrome
d)
Klinefelter's Syndrome
93.
Based on the karyotype, what is the sex of this baby?
a)
Male
b)
Female
94.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
95.
Which would be considered a somatic cell?
a)
Sperm cell
b)
Egg Cell
c)
Skin Cell
d)
All of these
96.
What is the haploid number for this Karyotype?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
52
d)
54
97.
Which of the following would be considered a Gamete cell?
a)
Egg Cell
b)
Sperm Cell
c)
Both of these
d)
None of these
98.
What is the diploid number of chromosomes for a bat if the sperm cell has 22 chromosomes?
a)
22
b)
11
c)
44
d)
21
99.
The union of egg and sperm to form a new offspring is
a)
zygote
b)
fertilization
c)
homologous pairing
d)
meiosis
100.
When one base replaces another, this is a common type of mutation called what?
a)
Insertion
b)
Substitution
c)
Inversion
d)
Deletion
101.
When an extra base has been added to the sequence of bases, this is what type of mutation?
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Inversion
d)
Insertion
102.
What is the name given to part of a DNA molecule that codes for a protein?
a)
Glucose
b)
Chromosome
c)
Gene
d)
Phosphate
103.
Are all mutations harmful?
a)
Yes, they are caused by toxic chemicals and radiation
b)
No, all mutations are beneficial
c)
Yes, mutations cause fatal diseases
d)
No, some can be useful in a changing environment
104.
DNA molecule segment is: TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ______ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ______ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Inversion
d)
Translocation
105.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ______ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ______ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
106.
What are the building blocks of proteins called?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
107.
What is the first step in protein synthesis?
DNA -> mRNA
DNA -> mRNA
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
d)
mutation
108.
What type of mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift
109.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
110.
Where do mutations occur?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
d)
mRNA and tRNA
111.
Identify the INSERTION mutation from the following DNA sequence:
ATG CCA AAT
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
112.
Conditions caused by mutations that occur in genes are called what?
a)
Cancers
b)
Genetic Disorders
c)
Mutagens
d)
Insertions
113.
Identify the DELETION mutation from the following DNA sequence:
ATG CCA AAT
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
114.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
115.
If you are a boy, what percent of your genes did you get from your dad?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
116.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
117.
Which of these processes begin with an mRNA molecule?
a)
DNA Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
None of them
118.
A physical or chemical agent that can cause a change in DNA is called what?
a)
Gene Expression
b)
Protein
c)
Mutagen
d)
mRNA
119.
An organism’s genotype is its
a)
stem height
b)
feather color
c)
genetic makeup
d)
physical appearance
120.
In what process is mRNA synthesized?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Mitosis
121.
Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Mitochondria
122.
Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?
a)
because DNA can't leave
b)
because ribosomes are in the nucleus
c)
because DNA polymerase is found there
d)
because helicase unzips the DNA
123.
How many codons equals 1 amino acid?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
124.
How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
125.
On which molecule can an anticodon be found?
a)
mRNA
b)
DNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
126.
Where is the anticodon located?
a)
at the top of the molecule it's found on
b)
at the bottom of the molecule it's found on
c)
on the right of the molecule it's found on
d)
on the left of the molecule it's found on
127.
What is the purpose for anti-codons?
a)
to ensure the correct amino acid is dropped off
b)
to match the strand of DNA
c)
to decode a sequence of 4 nucleotides into an amino acid
d)
to make me hate biology
128.
A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.
a)
amino acids; peptide
b)
fatty acids; ionic
c)
proteins; hydrogen
d)
fatty acids; covalent
129.
How do you know when to STOP translating a strand of mRNA?
a)
look for the STOP codon
b)
stop at the end of the strand
c)
you don't
d)
when Mrs. Faris tells me to
130.
TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT
a)
AUGCAAUGA
b)
ATGCAATGA
c)
AUGGATUGA
d)
TACGTTACT
131.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
132.
The important enzyme related with transcription is;
a)
gyrase
b)
DNA polymerase
c)
RNA polymerase
d)
ligase
133.
The central dogma of biology states that information flows in one direction from
a)
nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes to proteins to DNA
c)
genes to nuclei to ribosomes
d)
DNA to RNA to proteins
134.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
135.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
136.
Which of the following is the site of translation?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
137.
Which of the following is created in the nucleus and carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
rRNA
138.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
139.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
140.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
141.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
142.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand:
GTAGTCA
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
143.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
144.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria in cytoplasm
c)
ribosome in cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast in cytoplasm
145.
Translation is the process where
a)
mRNA is created in the Nucleus
b)
mRNA is decoded to form a protein
c)
glucose molecules are made
d)
is where lipids are synthesised
146.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
147.
What process is happening in the diagram?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
dna replication
d)
mitosis
148.
RNA is read in sections called:
a)
Triplets
b)
Genes
c)
Codons
d)
Genes
149.
tRNA molecules match the mRNA codons with a(n):
a)
Codon
b)
Anti-Codon
c)
Intron
d)
Methylated Cap
150.
When the Ribosome reaches ________________ the process of translation stops
a)
Stop Codon
b)
Okazaki Fragment
c)
Terminator
d)
taq Polymerase
151.
Translation is a process that produces
a)
mRNA
b)
Protein
c)
Polypeptide Chains
d)
tRNA
152.
The process of copying a gene's DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA is called:
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Splicing
d)
Protein Synthesis
153.
RNA contains which bases?
a)
adenine, guanine, uracil, cytosine
b)
thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
c)
thymine, uracil, cytosine, guanines
d)
adenine, uracil, guanine, thymine
154.
How many viable sperm cells are created as a result of meiosis?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
155.
How many viable egg cells are created as a result of meiosis?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
156.
How many polar bodies are created as a result of meiosis?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
157.
The bond between the phosphate group and the deoxyribose sugar is called the..
a)
peptide bond
b)
phosphodiester bond
c)
phosphate bond
d)
polypeptide bond
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