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Sports Medicine Final Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a sprain occurs in a
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
muscle
d)
bone
2.
a strain occurs in a
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
muscle
d)
bone
3.
the acronym R.I.C.E.R stands for
a)
Rest, Ice, Contusion, Elevate, Referal
b)
Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, Referal
c)
Referal, Ice, Compression, Elevate, Rest
d)
Recurrence, immersion, contusion, elevate, refer
4.
A contusion is a 
a)
region of injured tissue or skin in which blood capillaries have been ruptured
b)
a cut in the skin
c)
type of broken bone
d)
a ruptured muscle
5.
A laceration is a 
a)
region of injured tissue or skin in which blood capillaries have been ruptured
b)
a cut in the skin
c)
type of broken bone
d)
a ruptured muscle
6.
A concussion is a type of:
a)
Traumatic brain injury
b)
Headache
c)
Disease
d)
Degenerative brain disease
7.
Towards the top/head section of the body
a)
medial
b)
lateral
c)
superior
d)
inferior
8.
The neutral position of the body, facing forward, arms to the side, palms up.
a)
Neutral stance
b)
Anatomical Position
c)
Natural Position
d)
Anatomy
9.
Examples of this type of joint are the knee and elbow.
a)
Gliding
b)
Hinge
c)
Saddle
d)
Ellipsoid
10.
Eversion
a)
Turning the sole of the foot outward
b)
Turning the sole of the foot inward
c)
Opening of a joint
d)
Closing of a joint
11.
Movement towards the midline of the body
a)
circumduction
b)
adductio
c)
abduction
d)
eversion
12.
A location closer to the trunk of the body.
a)
Proximal
b)
Superficial
c)
Medial
d)
Lateral
13.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
14.
What is the name of the thigh bone?
a)
Tibia
b)
Fibula
c)
Femur
d)
Patella
15.
Rotation of the palm down
a)
supination
b)
pronation
c)
flexion 
d)
extension 
16.
What is another name for the collar bone
a)
clavicle
b)
sternum
c)
rib
d)
humerus 
17.

A wrongful act that does not involve a contract is known as...

a)

Assault

b)

Abuse

c)

Tort

d)

None of these

18.

The act that defines boundaries for disclosure of health information by healthcare providers is...

a)

HIPAA

b)

FERPA

c)

NIFTA

d)

YAPA

19.

The legal term for when a healthcare provider causes harm to a patient from neglect or omission is....

a)

Negligence

b)

Malpractice

c)

Omission

d)

Unprofessional

20.

The degree of care and skill expected of an average health provider, is known as....

a)

Scope of practice

b)

Scale of skill

c)

Standard of care

d)

Degree of care

21.

What is the main cause of medical malpractice?

a)

Negligence

b)

Misdiagnosis

c)

Incorrect follow up

d)

No AED available

22.

What law protects individuals who give reasonable assistance to people believed to be ill or injured?

a)

Good Samaritan Law

b)

Bystander Protection Law

c)

Public Help Law

d)

Public Service Law

23.
What is an athletic trainer ?
a)
a weight loss specialist 
b)
a person who helps you lift weights
c)
a health care professional who is responsible for the recognition, prevention, evaluation and rehabilitation of athletic injuries 
d)
a health care professional who is a weight loss specialist and designs weight lifting plans 
24.
when did athletic training as we know it come into existence? 
a)
19th century
b)
late 18th century
c)
late 19th century
d)
late 17th century 
25.

A __________ is a method of treatment, such as applying heat to an injured area.

a)

modality

b)

exercise

c)

strength test

d)

brace or splint

26.

Which of the following is NOT a cryotherapy?

a)

Ice pack

b)

Ice water immersion

c)

Paraffin bath

d)

Ice massage

27.

Never apply heat immediately after an injury. Heat will increase swelling in the acute phase

a)

True

b)

False

28.

This type of modality uses high frequency sound waves to penetrate high protein tissues and promote healing.

a)

EMS

b)

Ultrasound

c)

TENS

d)

Heat pack

29.

Cryotherapy causes the tissues to ____, which causes ____ blood flow to the area.

a)

vasodilate, decreased

b)

vasoconstrict, decreased

c)

vasodilate, increased

d)

vasoconstrict, increased

30.

The use of electrical current to block the sensation of pain to a given area or body part is called ________

a)

iontophoresis.

b)

ultrasound.

c)

TENS.

d)

EMS.

31.

_____________ is the systematic manipulation, methodical pressure, friction, and kneading of the soft tissues of the body.

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Traction

c)

Intermittent compression

d)

Massage

32.

Distraction or pulling; gravitational weight application:

a)

massage

b)

traction

c)

TENS

d)

compression

33.
What is the biggest bone in your body?
a)
fibula
b)
humerus
c)
pelvis
d)
femur
34.
How many bones does an adult human have?
a)
300
b)
306
c)
206
d)
602
35.
a)

Maxilla

b)

Frontal

c)

Mandible

d)

Zygomatic

36.
a)

Mandible

b)

Zygomatic

c)

Temporal

d)

Maxilla

37.
what bone is highlighted
a)
shoulder blade
b)
Clavicle
c)
shoulder
d)
Scapula
38.
what bone is highlighted?
a)
xiphoid process
b)
Clavicle
c)
Breast bone
d)
sternum
39.
What bone is highlighted
a)
ulna
b)
radius
c)
Humerus
d)
Scapula
40.
What bone is highlighted
a)
 ulna
b)
Scapula
c)
radius
d)
arm
41.
What bones are these
a)
Carpals
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Phalanges
d)
 hand
42.
What bone is highlighted
a)
femur
b)
thigh
c)
tibia
d)
Fibula
43.
what bone is highlighted
a)
Thigh bone
b)
Tibia
c)
Fibula
d)
shin bone
44.
what bone is highlighted
a)
Fibula
b)
Tibia
c)
Shin bone
d)
leg
45.
what bone is highlighted
a)
Patella
b)
Knee cap
c)
Femur
d)
Radius
46.
Name the bone that is highlighted
a)
Calcaneous
b)
Talus
c)
Phalanges
d)
Metatarsals
47.
What  bone is highlighted
a)
Metatarsals
b)
Phalanges
c)
feet 
d)
Tarsals
48.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Tricep

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Biceps

d)

Pectorals

49.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Gluteius Maximus

c)

Triceps

d)

Pectorals

50.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Biceps

b)

Abdominals

c)

Deltoids

d)

Quadriceps

51.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Triceps

b)

Biceps

c)

Hamstrings

d)

Latissimus Dorsi

52.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Pectorals

53.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Abdominals

b)

Pectorals

c)

Triceps

d)

Quadricpes

54.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Abdominals

b)

Latissimus Dorsi

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Gluteus Maximus

55.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Pectorals

d)

Biceps

56.

Identify the highlighted muscle.

a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Triceps

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Hamstrings

57.

This type of fracture has little or no movement or displacement of broken bones.

a)

Closed Fracture

b)

Open Fracture

58.

Bone breaking through the surrounding tissues, including the skin, secondary to significant displacement of the bones.

a)

Closed Fracture

b)

Open Fracture

59.
 a fracture in which the bone breaks diagonally. 
a)
Oblique Fracture
b)
Fracture
c)
Diagonal Fracture
d)
Horizontal Fracture 
60.
Name this joint
a)
pivot
b)
saddle
c)
gliding
d)
hinge
61.
Name this joint 
a)
gliding
b)
saddle
c)
hinge
d)
ball and socket
62.
Name this joint
a)
gliding
b)
saddle
c)
condyloid
d)
pivot
63.
The knee joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
64.
Connects bone to bone
a)
Ligament
b)
Tendon
c)
Cartilidge
65.
What is the name for the connector that attaches muscle to bone?
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
patella
d)
string
66.
An overuse injury; a tendon strain and inflammation at either of the epicondyles:
a)
bursitis
b)
synovitis
c)
sprain
d)
epicondylitis
e)
carpal tunnel syndrome
67.
What injury involves a torn extensor tendon over the middle phalynx of a finger? The result is the inability to extend the middle joint of the finger.
a)
Jersey finger
b)
Mallet finger
c)
Scaphoid fracture
d)
Colles fracture
e)
Boutonniere deformity
68.
What injury involves a torn extensor tendon over the distal phalynx? The result is the inability to extend the distal joint of the finger.
a)
Jersey finger
b)
Mallet finger
c)
Scaphoid fracture
d)
Colles fracture
e)
Boutonniere deformity
69.
What injury involes a torn flexor tendon over the distal phalynx? The result is the inability to flex the distal joint of the finger.
a)
Jersey finger
b)
Mallet finger
c)
Scaphoid fracture
d)
Colles fracture
e)
Boutonniere deformity
70.
What injury involves a fracture to the 5th metacarpal, usually caused by punching?
a)
Scaphoid fracture
b)
Colles fracture
c)
Boxers' fracture
d)
Sprain
e)
Strain
71.
____________________ tunnel syndrome is considered an inflammatory disorder caused by repetitive stress or other conditions that cause the flexors around the median nerve to become swollen.
a)
Carpal
b)
Acromial
c)
Bicipital
d)
Radial
e)
Pronator Teres
72.
Name the R.O.M.  
a)
Flexion
b)
Extension
c)
Adduction
d)
Abduction
73.
Name the ROM
a)
Flexion
b)
Extension
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
74.
From Right to Left - what ROM is being performed
a)
Horizontal Adduction
b)
Adduction
c)
Horizontal Abduction
d)
Abduction
75.

The most common cause of stress fractures in the femur is

a)

jumping

b)

swimming

c)

twisting

d)

running

76.

The hip flexor group is the

a)

subscapularis

b)

hamstrings

c)

quads

d)

pelvis connectors

77.

When bone grows inside a muscle it is called

a)

iliotibial band syndrome

b)

myositis ossificans

c)

Perthes disease

d)

avulsion fractures

78.

What is the best way to treat a femural stress fracture?

a)

rest

b)

reduce activity

c)

aquatic activity

d)

all of these

79.
Name of the muscles that control knee extension?
a)
Quadriceps
b)
Hamstrings
c)
Glutes
80.
Occurs from a direct blow to the quads, hams, knee
a)
Contusion
b)
Myositis Ossificans
c)
Osteochondritis Dissecans
81.
This band of tissue becomes tight and aggravated over time. It's located on the lateral thigh.
a)
Tensor Fascia Latae
b)
I.T. Band
c)
Lateral Collateral Ligament
82.
What type of joint is the knee?
a)
Hinge
b)
Pivot
c)
Saddle
83.
This ligament is located nearest the midline
a)
MCL
b)
ACL
c)
PCL
d)
LCL
84.
This ligament is located internally and crosses in the front
a)
MCL
b)
ACL
c)
PCL
d)
LCL
85.
Inflammation of the area just below the knee where the patella tendon attaches to the tibia.
a)
Osgood Schlatter
b)
Patella Tendinitis
c)
Tibial Plateau Fracture
86.
Inflammation of the patella tendon.
a)
Osgood Schlatter
b)
Patella Tendinitis
c)
Tibial Plateau Fracture
87.

What is the name of the Bone

a)

Tarsals

b)

cuboid

c)

cunieforms

d)

calcaneus

88.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Navicular

89.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Navicular

90.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Patella

d)

Femur

91.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Patella

d)

Femur

92.

This foot injury is caused by inflammation of bursa beneath the achilles tendon. It is the result of pressure and rubbing of shoe heel counter of a shoe and is nicknamed the "pump bump." Correct shoe fitting can prevent this condition.

a)

Blister

b)

Callus

c)

Retrocalcaneal Bursitis

d)

Sever's Disease

93.

This foot injury is fluid accumulation between layers of skin occurs from shearing forces on skin. Wearing appropriate footwear (socks and shoes) and applying lubricants, and covering with tape/band aid/donut pad can relieve pressure and friction.

a)

Blister

b)

Callus

c)

Retrocalcaneal Bursitis

d)

Sever's Disease

94.

This heel injury can occur from sudden starts, stops, or changes of direction, and irritate the fat pad and become discolored. Athletes may resume activity with heel cup or doughnut pad after pain has subsided (be sure to wear shock absorbent shoes).

a)

Heel Bruise

b)

Plantar Fasciitis

c)

Retrocalcaneal Bursitis

d)

Sever's Disease

95.

A fracture to a long bone in the foot. The cause of this injury is direct force or by placing torsional/twisting stresses on the bone. An x-ray may be necessary to distinguish a fracture from a sprain.

a)

Metatarsal Fracture

b)

Metatarsal Stress Fracture

c)

Jones' Fracture

d)

Phalange Dislocation

e)

Phalange Fracture

96.

This is the foot deformity that causes the big toe to point towards the smaller toes. It medically known has the Hallux Valgus deformity. Bursitis and overpronation can be secondary problems from this deformity.

a)

Bunion

b)

Morton's Neuroma

c)

Subungual Hematoma

d)

Turf Toe

97.

A pooling of blood under the toenail that is a result of direct pressure, dropping an object on toe, kicking another object, or repetitive, shearing forces on the toenail.

a)

Bunion

b)

Morton's Neuroma

c)

Subungual Hematoma

d)

Turf Toe

98.

The hyperextension of the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint. Ligament and tendon tears can be a result of severe injuries to the big toe.

a)

Bunion

b)

Morton's Neuroma

c)

Subungual Hematoma

d)

Turf Toe

99.

This is the foot injury where your toenail grows into the edges of your skin on your toes. Your toe can be become infected and it best to prevent it by cutting your toenails straight across.

a)

Bunion

b)

Morton's Neuroma

c)

Subungual Hematoma

d)

Turf Toe

e)

Ingrown Toenail

100.

This heel injury is the inflammation of the fascia along the bottom of the foot. Pain occurs along the anterior medial aspect of the calcaneus, and can be very painful when you take your first few steps in the morning. Arch massage, arch support, a heel cup and calf/toe flexor stretching can help reduce/relieve the pain.

a)

Heel Bruise

b)

Plantar Fasciitis

c)

Retrocalcaneal Bursitis

d)

Sever's Disease

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