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Unit 1-4

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
When John turns on the light to his aquarium the fish swim to the top even before he sprinkles the food.  What used to be a neutral stimulus for the fish?
a)
the food
b)
the water
c)
the light
d)
John
2.
Once Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to the sound of a bell, the bell was a(n)
a)
unconditioned stimulus
b)
neutral stimulus 
c)
conditioned stimulus
d)
unconditioned response
3.
Tamara normally feeds her cat canned cat food. She noticed that every time she uses her electric can opener, her cat comes to the kitchen. What is the conditioned stimulus?
a)
The cat food
b)
The sound of the electric can opener
c)
The cat coming to the kitchen
d)
Tamara
4.

Who theorized Classical Conditioning?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

BF Skinner

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

John B. Watson

5.

Who conducted the Little Albert experiment in the early 1900s?

a)

Ivan Pavlov

b)

Sigmund Freud

c)

BF Skinner

d)

John B. Watson

6.

Behavior: Joy smiles at everyone


Consequence: She makes a lot of friends

a)

+ reinforcement

b)

-- reinforcement

c)

+ punishment

d)

-- punishment

7.

Behavior: The teacher sings to the class


Consequence: The students laugh at her

a)

+ reinforcement

b)

-- reinforcement

c)

+ punishment

d)

-- punishment

8.

Behavior: Zane has his phone out in class


Consequence: He gets it taken away

a)

+ reinforcement

b)

-- reinforcement

c)

+ punishment

d)

-- punishment

9.
Fill in the blanks correctly. Agonists _______ and Antagonists _________ neurotransmitters.
a)
mimic; block
b)
block; mimic
c)
destroy; block
d)
mimic; destroy
10.
The average sleep cycle is about ______ minutes
a)
100
b)
90
c)
60
d)
30
11.
Opiates mimic which neurotransmitter?
a)
GABA
b)
serotonin
c)
endorphins
d)
glutamate
12.
When you feel most alert depends on your
a)
sleep cycle
b)
circadian rhythm 
c)
personality
d)
diet
13.
Sleep spindles show up during which sleep stage?
a)
stage 1 NREM
b)
stage 2 NREM
c)
stage 3 NREM
d)
REM
14.
Which scan would give us a view of the brain waves occurring during sleep?
a)
EEG
b)
MRI
c)
PET
d)
CAT
15.
The dreams we remember come during which sleep stage?
a)
stage 1 NREM
b)
stage 2 NREM
c)
stage 3 NREM
d)
REM
16.
What part of the eye allows us to see color?
a)
cones
b)
rods
c)
iris
d)
eyeball
17.
The part of your eye that gives it its color.  It is a muscle that controls the size of your pupil.
a)
cornea
b)
lens
c)
pupi
d)
iris
18.
Proposed theory for color vision with opposing retinal process for red-green, yellow-blue, white-black.
a)
opponent process theory
b)
tri-chromatic theory
c)
frequency theory
19.
theory that the retina contains three different color receptors- Red, Green, and Blue
a)
Young Helmholtz Trichromatic  Theory
b)
Gate control Theory
c)
Place Theory
d)
Tri Hue Theory
20.
The first part of the eye that light hits. 
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
pupil
d)
retina
21.
Receptors for Visual Processing, Detect Black, white and gray, important in dim light
a)
Rods
b)
Feature Detectors
c)
Bipolar Cells
d)
Occipital Cells
22.
The process where stimuli is converted into a neural signal, then send to the brain:
a)
perception
b)
sensation
c)
conduction
d)
transduction
23.
Scores pile up at the low end of the scale in 
a)
a negatively skewed distribution
b)
a positively skewed distribution
c)
any skewed distribution
d)
a normal distribution
24.
A correlation coefficient of 0.8 is a _______________ and suggests that as one variable ____________, the other variable ______________.
a)
strong positive | increases | increases
b)
weak positive | increases | increases
c)
strong positive | increases | decreases
d)
weak positive | increases | decreases
25.

It is a bell-shaped curve which shows the probability distribution of a continuous random variable.

a)

U chart variables

b)

Graph

c)

Normal curve

d)

Statistical curve

26.
The tendency for REM  sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation 
a)
REM rebound 
b)
NREM sleep
c)
Stage 2 sleep
d)
awakness
27.
Characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks
a)
Night Terrors
b)
Insomnia
c)
Narcolepsy
d)
Sleep Apnea
28.
REM Sleep triggers neural activity that evokes random visual memories, which our sleeping brain weaves into stories
a)
Freud's Wish-Fulfillment
b)
Information Processing
c)
Cognitive Development
d)
Activation-Synthesis Theory
29.
Stage 3 sleep is dominated by these brain waves
a)
theta
b)
delta
c)
alpha
30.
Poor Choice Patty took LSD which caused her to experience...
a)
delusions
b)
hallucinations
c)
dissociations
d)
dreams
31.
Melanie is addicted to her cell phone.  She can't sleep at night because she keeps checking all her social media apps and even wakes up in the middle of the night to check it.  What neurotransmitter would be the main reason for Melanie's addiction? 
a)
serotonin 
b)
GABA
c)
dopamine
d)
Glutamate 
32.

The ________ rhythm is the biological rhythm that occurs over approximately 24 hours.

a)

pineal

b)

meta

c)

circadian

d)

homeostatic

33.

The hidden meaning of a dream is called the ________ content.

a)

alpha

b)

Freudian

c)

latent

d)

manifest

34.
When in REM sleep, a person's body is
a)
Moving
b)
Paralyzed
c)
Sleepwalking
d)
Acting out their dreams
35.
Another name for our biological clock or the regular bodily rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle
a)
Melatonin
b)
Circadian Rhythm
c)
Sleep Stages
d)
Paradoxical Sleep
36.

Which of the following is the name of the cell clusters that control and stimulate our circadian rhythm?

a)

Feature Detectors

b)

Stimulus-Response Cells

c)

Suprachiasmatic Nucleus

d)

Circadian Cells

37.

What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in sleep?

a)

It induces REM sleep approximately every 90 minutes during sleep.

b)

It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin in the morning.

c)

It causes the pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin in the evening.

d)

It causes the pituitary gland to increase the release of human growth hormone.

e)

It causes the pituitary gland to decrease the release of human growth hormone.

38.
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the "Fight or Flight" response?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Endorphins
c)
Norepinephrine
d)
Serotonin
39.
Which neurotransmitter inhibits brain activity?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
GABA
c)
Endorphins
d)
Dopamine
40.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate:
a)
learning and memory
b)
pain and pleasure
c)
muscle movements
d)
sleep, moods/emotions
41.
Loss of Dopamine-producing neurons is a cause of:
a)
paralysis
b)
Parkinson's
c)
anxiety
d)
Alzheimer's
42.
Dysfunction of Norepinephrine can lead to:
a)
Anxiety disorders
b)
Painkiller addiction
c)
Schizophrenia
d)
Huntington's disease
43.
The release of this neurotransmitter is 100x more potent than any opiate (painkilling drug):
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Serotonin
c)
GABA
d)
Endorphin
44.

Neurotransmitter associated with Alzheimer's disease

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

45.

Cocaine and Amphetamines elevate activity at WHICH synapses?

a)

Serotonin and Dopamine

b)

Dopamine and Norepinephrine

c)

GABA and Serotonin

d)

GABA and Dopamine

46.

_______ plays a key role in Reward Pathways and is implicated in addictive disorders

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

GABA

47.
Too much dopamine is linked with
a)
Alzheimers
b)
Schizophrenia
c)
Parkinsons
d)
Depression
48.
What is Acetylcholine mainly responsible for?
a)
mood
b)
alertness
c)
emotion
d)
muscle action/movement
49.
Which neurotransmitter is mostly responsible for alertness and arousal?
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Serotonin
c)
Dopamine
d)
GABA
50.
Low levels of serotonin is linked to
a)
Depression
b)
Alzheimer's
c)
Parkinson's
d)
Schizophrenia
51.
What is a neurotransmitter?
a)
fatty covering of the axon
b)
nerve cell
c)
chemical messenger
d)
gap between neurons
52.
part of autonomic nervous, calms you down
a)
Parasympathetic 
b)
sympathetic 
53.
inside of the neuron is negatively charged relative to the outside of membrane
a)
polarization
b)
depolarization
54.
regulates blood sugar, secreting insulin
a)
pancrease
b)
gall bladder
55.

Which part of the cerebral cortex directs the muscle movements involved in producing speech?

a)

amygdala

b)

angular gyrus

c)

Broca's area

d)

reticular formation

56.

What part of the brain has been surgically altered in "split-brain" patients?

a)

cerebellum

b)

hippocampus

c)

cerebrum

d)

corpus callosum

57.

As Jill walked towards the stage to give her speech, her heartbeat accelerated, her blood pressure rose, and she began to sweat. Jill's state of arousal was activated by what part of the nervous system?

a)

sympathetic

b)

central

c)

parasympathetic

d)

peripheral

58.

A squirrel fails to react with fear to a signal of impending shock if they have suffered damage to the...

a)

hippocampus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

corpus callosum

d)

amygdala

59.

The term "soma" is synonymous with...

a)

cell body

b)

axon

c)

neuron

d)

dendrite

60.

What is the brief electrical charge that travels down an axon called?

a)

refractory period

b)

resting potential

c)

action potential

d)

all-or-one impulse

61.

Which region of the brain controls our breathing and heartbeat?

a)

pons

b)

medulla

c)

thalamus

d)

hippocampus

62.

Damage to the hippocampus would result in which of the following?

a)

difficulties with balance and coordination

b)

emotional outbursts

c)

memory problems

d)

death

63.

What brain scan allows us to see structures within the brain using magnetic fields and radio waves?

a)

PET scan

b)

EEG scan

c)

MRI scan

d)

CAT scan

64.

Hormones released in the fight or flight response are secreted from?

a)

thyroid glands

b)

parathyroids

c)

adrenal glands

d)

pituitary glands

65.

The "old part" of the brain is otherwise referred to as?

a)

cerebellum

b)

corpus callosum

c)

medulla

d)

brain stem

66.

A neurons reaction of either firing (with a full length response) or not firing.

a)

all-or-none response

b)

refractory period

c)

threshold

d)

action potential

67.
Occipital Lobes are responsible for: 
a)
balance
b)
vision
c)
hearing
d)
movement
68.
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
69.
Controls hearing, and language comprehension
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
70.
brain's "sensory switchboard":  directs sensory messages to proper area of the brain
a)
thalamus
b)
hypothalamus
c)
hippocampus
d)
reticular formation
71.
The one gland that rules them all
a)
Adrenal
b)
Thyroid
c)
Pituitary
d)
Gandolf
72.
The activity of the hypothalamus most directly influences: 
a)
MUSCULAR COORDINATION
b)
HUNGER AND THIRST
c)
ATTENTION AND MEMORY
d)
HEARTBEAT AND BREATHING
73.

Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your feet by the ________ nervous system

a)

autonomic

b)

central

c)

parasympathetic

d)

peripheral

74.

If this area of the brain were damaged, you might slip into a coma

a)

cerebellum

b)

reticular activating system

c)

amygdala

d)

hypothalamus

75.
A principle that states, for any change in a stimulus to be detected, a constant proportion of that stimulus must be added or subtracted.  
a)
Gate-Control Theory
b)
Weber's Law
c)
Difference Threshold
d)
Multiple constant 
76.
Smell is transmitted to the brain via the.....
a)
Optic Nerve
b)
Olfactory Nerve
c)
Auditory (chochlear nerve)
d)
Sensory Nerve
77.
The weakest amount of a stimulus that a person can detect half of the time.  
a)
Differnce threshold
b)
Absolute threshold
c)
Gate threshold
d)
Subliminal message
78.

What sense helps maintain balance?

a)

Vestibular

b)

Kinesthetic

c)

Proprioception

d)

Audition

e)

Olfaction

79.

The specialized cells in each of the sense organs that collect information to send to the brain are called...

a)

sensory cells

b)

sensory nuerons

c)

bipolar cells

d)

ganglion cells

e)

sensory receptors

80.

The phenomenon of color constancy best demonstrates that...

a)

an object's perceived color is influenced by its surrounding objects

b)

the retina has three types of color receptors

c)

the brain processes information about color and shape simultaneously

d)

quivering eye movements help to maintain the perception of color

e)

color vision depends on pairs of opposing retinal processes

81.

Almost half the birds in the tree outside Brian's window were brown and the rest were red, so Brian perceived them as two different groups of birds. This best illustrates...

a)

proximity

b)

closure

c)

similarity

d)

connectedness

e)

disparity

82.

Where is the basilar membrane located?

a)

middle ear

b)

auditory canal

c)

semicircular canal

d)

cochlea

e)

feature detected

83.

The coiled, fluid filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called...

a)

eustachian tube

b)

auditory canal

c)

semicircular canal

d)

cochlea

e)

vestibular aparatus

84.

A person's diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as...

a)

accomodation

b)

parallel processing

c)

sensory adaptation

d)

transduction

e)

sensory equilibrium

85.

If you are expecting an important text message, you are much more likely to notice the sound as soon as the message arrives. This best illustrates...

a)

priming

b)

signal detection theory

c)

difference threshold

d)

absolute threshold

e)

Weber's law

86.
Alice is eating a piece of fruit. After a while, she notices that the fruit tastes less sweet and tangy than it did when she first bit into it. Alice is experiencing ____.
a)
habituation
b)
accommodation
c)
sensory adaptation
d)
subliminal perception
87.
The sequentially flashing Christmas tree lights appeared to generate pulsating waves of motion. This best illustrates:
a)
perceptual adaptation
b)
the phi phenomenon
c)
retinal disparity
d)
vsiaul capture
88.
The cocktail party effect provides an example of:
a)
the phi phenomenon
b)
selective attention
c)
perceptual constancy
d)
perceptual set
89.
The tendencies of humans to group stimuli by similarity and by physical proximity to each other are illustrative of 
a)
Perceptual inference
b)
Gestalt principles
c)
Concept of constancy
d)
Prototype theory
90.
A reversible figure, such as the vase/face figure, makes use of which principle of perception?
a)
closure
b)
proximity
c)
similarity
d)
figure-ground relationship
91.
Depth cues that only require one require one eye are
a)
Binocular Cue
b)
Trichronocular Cue
c)
Monocular Cue
d)
Single Vision Transparency
92.

Helps with colorful and 20/20 vision

a)

Optic Nerve

b)

Fovea

c)

Lens

d)

Cornea

e)

Vitreous Humor

93.

The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel respond to specific aspects of ________ stimulation.

a)

vestibular

b)

visual

c)

auditory

d)

olfactory

e)

kinesthetic

94.

Which of the following is a binocular cue for the perception of distance?

a)

relative size

b)

retinal disparity

c)

relative motion

d)

linear perspective

e)

visual cliff

95.

The convergence of parallel lines provides the distance cue known as

a)

interposition.

b)

closure.

c)

relative height.

d)

linear perspective.

e)

continuity.

96.

Although Sue Yen sees her chemistry teacher several times a week, she didn't recognize the teacher when she saw her in the grocery store. This best illustrates the importance of

a)

monocular cues.

b)

context effects.

c)

proximity.

d)

linear perspective.

e)

perceptual adaptation.

97.

A customer loyalty program in which you receive a 40% off after accumulating 5,000 points is an example of a _____ reinforcement schedule.

a)

fixed variable

b)

fixed ratio

c)

variable ratio

d)

variable interval

98.

Receiving 15 minutes Youtube time after finishing reading every two chapters of a novel is an example of a _____ schedule of reinforcement.

a)

fixed ratio

b)

fixed interval

c)

variable ratio

d)

variable interval

99.

Every employee who achieves their yearly KPI would receive a salary increases every two years. This is an example of a _____ schedule of reinforcement.

a)

fixed ratio

b)

fixed interval

c)

variable ratio

d)

variable interval

100.

Buying lottery ticket is reinforced on a _____ schedule.

a)

fixed ratio

b)

fixed interval

c)

variable ratio

d)

variable interval

101.

Pop quizzes reinforce reading and studying on a _____ schedule.

a)

fixed ratio

b)

variable ratio

c)

fixed interval

d)

variable interval

102.

Which of the following describes negative reinforcement?

a)

A mother gives her son praise for doing homework

b)

Sarah studies hard because it earns her "A" grades in English

c)

Dennis used to walk to school but does not do so anymore because he was attacked by a dog in the neighborhood last month.

d)

Bob washes the dishes in order to stop his mother's nagging

103.

Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely to be repeated is known as

a)

law of effect

b)

operant conditioning

c)

shaping

d)

Premack principle

104.

A father is frustrated because his teenage daughter has started to curse frequently. He has decided to temporarily decrease her allowance each time she curses. He is going to continue doing this until she has stopped cursing. His plan uses

a)

positive reinforcement

b)

negative reinforcement

c)

positive punishment

d)

negative punishment

105.

Getting a soft drink after putting money into a vending machine

a)

Positive Reinforcement

b)

Positive Punishment

c)

Negative Reinforcement

d)

Negative Punishment

106.

My dad puts on his seatbelt to make his car stop beeping

a)

positive reinforcement

b)

negative reinforcement

c)

conditioned reinforcement

d)

unconditioned reinforcement

107.
Repeated periods during sleep when a person stops breathing for 10 seconds or longer is known as:
a)
Sleep apnea
b)
Narcolepsy
c)
Sleep agnosia
d)
Cataplexy
108.

This is the number , ranging from -1 to +1, that indicates the strength and direction of a relationship between variables.

a)

correlation coefficient

b)

correlation exponent

c)

positive/negative coefficient

d)

cause/effect coefficient

109.

This refers to researchers being required to clearly define the variables to be measured.

a)

operational definitions

b)

independent clarification

c)

dependent definitions

d)

confounding definitions

110.

These are any variables that could interfere with results.

a)

confounding variables

b)

interfering variables

c)

controlled variables

d)

experimental variables

111.

These are experiments in which the experimenters and the subjects do not know which group the subjects are in.

a)

single-blind studies

b)

double-blind studies

112.

The __________ is the one manipulated by the researcher.

a)

DV

b)

Confounding Variable

c)

Controls

d)

IV

113.

The ___________is expected to change as the IV changes.

a)

IV

b)

DV

c)

Controls

d)

Samples

114.

In __________ __________ every member of the target population has an equal chance of becoming part of the sample.

a)

Stratified sampling

b)

Random sampling

c)

Opportunity sampling

d)

Self-selected sampling

115.

Doctors Roger Sperry and Michael Gazzaniga (1983, 1988) studied split-brain patients—those who had surgery that separated the left and right hemispheres of the brain—and discovered that the two hemispheres had different talents, such as the left specializing in language processing. These psychologists are most likely:

a)

neuropsychologists

b)

cognitive psychologists

c)

developmental psychologists

d)

rehabilitation psychologists

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