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WorksheetsSemester Exam Review 3(DNA, Function, Protein Synthesis)
Total questions: 119
Worksheet time: 3hrs 31mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A portion of mRNA is coded CUG. The corresponding DNA is coded
a)
GAC
b)
GTC
c)
CTG
d)
CAG
2.
A portion of DNA reads GAG. The corresponding mRNA would be
a)
GUG
b)
GTG
c)
CTC
d)
CUC
3.
The process of creating RNA using DNA as the template is
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
translocation
d)
Transylvania
4.
In RNA, uracil takes the place of the DNA nitrogen base called
a)
guanine
b)
cytosine
c)
thymine
d)
adenine
5.
The process shown in this image
a)
is called replication
b)
results in a new copy of the DNA
c)
does not happen during mitosis
d)
All of these apply
6.
Molecule 3 is synthesized in
a)
ribosomes
b)
chloroplasts
c)
the cell membrane
d)
the nucleus
7.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
8.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
9.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
10.
What mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift
11.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
12.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
13.
Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?
a)
Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring
b)
Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.
c)
No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring
d)
Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.
14.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
15.
RNA is read in sections called:
a)
Triplets
b)
Genes
c)
Codons
d)
Genes
16.
Transcription is a process that in eukaryotic cells takes place in the:
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Rough E.R.
17.
Translation is a process in eurkaryotic cells takes place in the:
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Nucleus
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Golgi Bodies
18.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
19.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
20.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
21.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
22.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
23.
Cytosine always pairs with
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
24.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
25.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a)
nitrogenous base
b)
nucleic acid
c)
cholesterol
d)
fatty acid
26.
What is the complement to the DNA strand below:
5'-ATGCCAT-3'
5'-ATGCCAT-3'
a)
5'-TACGGTA-3'
b)
3'-TACGGTA-5'
c)
3'-ATGGCAT-5'
d)
5'-ATGGCAT-3'
27.
Which of the following is not a nitrogen base found in DNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Uracil
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
28.
What is the significance of the sequence (order) of the Nitrogen Bases in DNA?
a)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the number of chromosomes present in an organism.
b)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the traits that an organism will possess (have).
c)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines the gender of an organism.
d)
The order of the Nitrogen Bases determines whether an organism is abiotic biotic.
29.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
30.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
31.
What is the shape of DNA?
a)
Double helix
b)
Triple helix
c)
Flat, bilayer
d)
Three-pronged rigid ladder
32.
These are the "smaller", single ringed bases such as thymine and cytosine
a)
complementary
b)
cytosine
c)
purine
d)
pyrimidine
33.
These are the "larger", double-ringed bases such as adenine and guanine.
a)
complementary
b)
cytosine
c)
purine
d)
pyrimidine
34.
In Chargaff's Rule, adenine pairs with ________, and cytosine pairs with _________.
a)
thymine, guanine
b)
guanine, thymine
c)
uracil, guanine
d)
thymine, uracil
35.
A process where one cell forms two identical daughter cells is called...
a)
cell cycle
b)
cell division (mitosis)
c)
interphase
d)
cytokinesis
36.
The cell cycle is ______________.
a)
the process of cells circling throughout the body
b)
the process of splitting the organelles
c)
a process where one cell gets energy
d)
the sequence of stages of growth and division that a cell undergoes
37.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
DeNatured Acid
b)
DomiNant Acid
c)
DeoxyriboNucleic Acid
d)
DiriboNucleic Acid
38.
During interphase the cell ___________.
a)
divides into two cells
b)
divides its nucleus
c)
replicates its DNA
d)
replicates the organelles within the cell
39.
Replication is when __________.
a)
the cell makes a copy of its DNA in nucleus
b)
the cell forms 2 identical cells
c)
the cell produces 2 sets of organelles
d)
the cell continues to complete the same function
40.
Where does replication occur within the cell?
a)
in the cytoplasm
b)
in the nucleus
c)
in the ribosome
d)
in the chromatin
41.
Mitosis is made up of how many phases?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
42.
The following describes __________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The nuclear membrane breaks apart.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
43.
The following describes ________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the center of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
44.
The following describes _________ during mitosis. The spindle fiber splits the centromere and the chromatids move to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
45.
What is the correct term for "develops in the middle plane of a plant cell separating it into two daughter cells during cell division"?
a)
cell
b)
cell cycle
c)
cell plate
d)
centriole
46.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
47.
DNA is replicated during the ______ phase of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
Synthesis
c)
G2
d)
G0
48.
How many chromosomes are normally found in human body cells?
a)
46
b)
23
c)
26
d)
44
49.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
50.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
51.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
52.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
53.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
54.
In which cell below would a student likely observe a cell plate during mitosis?
a)
rat muscle cell
b)
alligator stomach cell
c)
onion root cell
d)
human lung cell
55.
Which of these are part of Mitosis?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
e)
Cytokines
56.
Which of the following is the correct order of the Cell Cycle?
a)
Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Interphase, Prohase, Cytokinesis
57.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand:
GTAGTCA
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
58.
The central dogma of biology states that information flows in one direction from
a)
nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes to proteins to DNA
c)
genes to nuclei to ribosomes
d)
DNA to RNA to proteins
59.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
60.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
61.
What would happen if we did not have start codons?
a)
Polypeptide chains would continue to grow
b)
Amino acids would bind to tRNA
c)
Protein synthesis wouldn't occur
d)
mRNA would form a double strand
62.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
63.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
64.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
65.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
66.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
67.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
68.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
69.
In proteins, the amino acid order is determined by
a)
nitrogenous bases in RNA
b)
random placement
c)
nitrogenous bases in DNA
d)
there is no order
70.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
71.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
72.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
73.
Which man is the father of this baby?
a)
Father 1
b)
Father 2
c)
Father 3
d)
None of them
74.
DNA fingerprinting works because
a)
Most genes are dominant
b)
All organisms contain RNA
c)
The most important genes are different among most people
d)
No two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA
75.
Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by examining a person's unique sequence of DNA pairs.
a)
DNA Fingerprint
b)
Allele
c)
Chromosome
76.
Why type of evidence is DNA?
a)
Class
b)
Trace
c)
Individual
d)
Direct
77.
Which of the following does NOT have DNA?
a)
Blood
b)
Hair
c)
Urine
d)
Fibers
78.
What are the four bases that make up DNA?
a)
AUCG
b)
ABCD
c)
ATCG
d)
ATCU
79.
Which of the following is a circular DNA from bacteria that can hold a foreign gene?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
80.
Which of the following is a protein that acts as DNA scissors?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
81.
Which of the following is an enzymatic protein that acts as DNA glue?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
82.
An organism that contains DNA from another organism is called:
a)
transatlantic
b)
recombinant
c)
binary
d)
selective species
83.
Has membrane bound organelles
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
84.
One example of a prokaryote is a...
a)
fungus
b)
bacteria
c)
animal
d)
plant
85.
Which of the following provide evidence for the hypothesis that prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes.
a)
prokaryotes are more complex
b)
prokaryotes have no nucleus and fewer genes
c)
eukaryotes are multicellular which makes them simpler
d)
prokaryotes grow into eukaryotes
86.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
87.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
88.
Which has a chloroplast?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Plant Cell
c)
Animal Cell
89.
Oldest type of cell
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
90.
Smaller
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
91.
Which has ribosomes?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
92.
Has cytoplasm
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
93.
Has nucleus
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
94.
Bacteria
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
95.
Has chloroplast
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
96.
more complex
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
d)
both
97.
Where is the DNA found in a eukaryotic cell?
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm
b)
in the nucleus
98.
What is the most basic unit of life?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
99.
Reproduction that only involves one parent and all offspring are identical; for example, binary fission of bacteria or amoebas.
a)
Asexual
b)
Sexual
c)
Division
d)
Addition
100.
How do heterotrophs get the energy they need to survive?
a)
photosynthesis
b)
eating other organisms
c)
decomposing dead materials
d)
chemosynthesis
101.
A _____ is something in the environment that causes an organism to respond.
a)
stimulus
b)
response
c)
cause
d)
effect
102.
When a baby kitten becomes an adult cat, this is an example of...
a)
energy metabolism
b)
growth and development
c)
response to stimuli
d)
having cells
103.
The combination of chemical reactions through
which an organism builds up or breaks down
materials as it carries out its life processes is called ...
a)
absorption
b)
metabolism
c)
digestion
d)
consumption
104.
Maintaining a stable internal
environment is called
a)
homeostasis
b)
equilibrium
c)
balance
d)
evenness
105.
Identify the characteristic: A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt/respond to their environment
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things have cells
d)
All living things use energy
106.
Identify the characteristic: Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
107.
In order for something to be considered a living organism, it must display _____ of the eight characteristics of living things.
a)
all
b)
some
c)
one
d)
more than half
108.
Needs host cell to reproduce.
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
109.
What happens in the lytic cyle?
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus sleeps inside of the host cell
d)
Virus stay dormant for a long time
110.
What happens in the lysogenic cycle?
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus inject the nucleic acid into the host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant for a long time
d)
Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell
111.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
112.
Antibiotics kill viruses
a)
True
b)
False
113.
Which of the following systems protects the body from disease?
a)
Digestive System
b)
Nervous System
c)
Immune System
d)
Skeletal System
114.
What is a way to become immune to a disease without first having the disease?
a)
antibiotics
b)
Anti-retroviral drugs
c)
Vaccinations
d)
Exposure Therapies
115.
In what way are a virus and a bacteria similar?
a)
They contain antibodies
b)
They reproduce by mitosis
c)
They have identical genomes
d)
They lack membrane-bound organelles
116.
The top arrow is pointing to...
a)
Capsid
b)
Cell Wall
c)
DNA
d)
Flagellum
117.
During Lysogenic Infections..
a)
the host cell is copied many times over
b)
the host cell is destroyed
c)
the host cell is unaffected
d)
the virus dies
118.
What is NOT an example of controlling bacteria?
a)
Nitrogen Fixing
b)
Disinfecting
c)
Antibiotics
d)
Food Storage and Processing
119.
Retroviruses are made of
a)
RNA only
b)
Proteins Only
c)
DNA and a protein coat
d)
RNA and a protein coat
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