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Nursery Landscape Semester 1 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chloroplasts capture light energy and use it to manufacture the plant's food through the process of respiration.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Stomates control water loss by periodically opening and closing based on environmental conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Stratification is the process of satisfying seed dormancy.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Which of the following parts of the plant or animal cell is only found in plants?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Protoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cell Membrane

e)

Cell Wall

5.

Which of the following is true about biennials?

a)

Biennials flower the first season and die the second year.

b)

Biennials germinate, flower, produce seed, and die within one growing season.

c)

Biennials experience dormancy only as seeds.

d)

Biennials flower the second season and then die.

e)

Biennials are not grown in Michigan because they cannot survive the winter.

6.

Growth resulting from apical meristems includes

a)

Increases in plant height

b)

Primary growth

c)

Lengthening the roots

d)

Cell division

e)

All of the above

7.

Which of the following must occur for viable seeds to be produced?

a)

Cross-pollination

b)

Fertilization

c)

Pollination and fertilization

d)

Wind pollination

e)

Showy flowers

8.

Scarification is the process where

a)

Seeds are kept moist in cold temperatures to enhance germination.

b)

Seeds are subject to drying conditions prior to sowing.

c)

Seed coats are partially removed by mechanical or chemical treatment to enhance germination.

d)

Seeds must go through a wet/dry cycle to enhance germination.

9.

Photosynthesis, the energy process in green plants, requires:

a)

Light, water, oxygen

b)

Water, nutrients, carbon dioxide

c)

Light, water, nutrients

d)

Light, water, carbon dioxide

10.

Water enters a plant through the roots and is conducted through the plant in the

a)

Cambium

b)

Phloem

c)

Parenchyma

d)

Xylem

11.

The basic structural unit of plants is the

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell

c)

Cambium

d)

Tissue

12.

The major difference between plant cells and animal cells is the presence of a

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell wall

d)

Nucleus

13.

Plants that have a _________ root system are more difficult to transplant

a)

Fibrous

b)

Geotropic

c)

Senescence

d)

Tap

14.

The largest group of plants that live longer than two growing seasons are

a)

Perennials

b)

Annuals

c)

Biennuals

d)

Monocots

15.

During a period of water stress the stomates will remain

a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

On the top of the leaf

d)

Open or closed depending on the temperature

16.

When the day length controls the timing of reproductive processes in many species, the phenomenon is called

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Photoperiodism

c)

Pollination

d)

Geotropism

17.

The area where the addition of new cells continues while other plant parts reach maturity is called

a)

Meristem

b)

Apex

c)

Internodes

d)

Bark

18.

The organ whose primary function is to capture light and manufacture food is

a)

Roots

b)

Stems

c)

Leaves

d)

Flowers

19.

Plants that produce poisonous chemicals or toxins do this to

a)

Ward of predators

b)

Produce auxins

c)

Enlarge roots

d)

All of the above

20.

Plants nomenclature is the scientific system of naming plants.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

For each scientific name there is more than one plant to which it can be correctly applied.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

When reading or writing scientific plant names, they must be distinguished from the words that surround them by either underlining, italicizing, or setting in bold type.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Scientific plant names, in an effort to avoid confusion among the various modern languages, are typically derived from:

a)

Latin

b)

Italian

c)

Greek

d)

A and C

24.

In the binomial plant nomenclature system, the first word is the:

a)

Genus

b)

Species

c)

Cultivar

d)

Hybrid

25.

Plants are named using the binomial which consists of two parts, the first part is the

a)

Family

b)

Genus

c)

Species

d)

Latin name

26.

Hybrids are plants that

a)

Are naturally occurring biological strain of a species

b)

Naturally occurring variant that has a geographical distribution

c)

Plants that are selected or maintained in cultivation and are propagated to retain their distinguishing features

d)

Result from the interbreeding from separate species or plants within a species

27.

Scientific names are always

a)

Underlined

b)

Italicized

c)

Bold Face

d)

All of the above

28.

The first letter of the first part of the name is always

a)

The

b)

Capitalized

c)

Lower Case

d)

Starts with an L

29.

Scientific names are derived from

a)

French

b)

German

c)

Latin or Greek

d)

Just Latin

30.

Topsoil refers to a loam or sandy loam soil

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Water movement is not dependent on the type of soil

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Organic matter is any carbon containing material in the soil

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which of the following is a benefit of soil testing:

a)

Helps monitor the nutrient status of the soil

b)

Saves money by pinpointing the nutrients needed by the soil

c)

Increases yield or quality of the plants by providing optimum conditions for their growth

d)

Alerts you to possible problems before they show up in the plants, thus providing the opportunity to correct before they become serious

e)

All of the above

34.

Soil texture triangle, identify soils by percentage of

a)

Macropores or Micropores

b)

Nutrient levels

c)

Sand, Silt, Clay

d)

Water infiltration rate

35.

What is the smallest soil particle

a)

Clay

b)

Sand

c)

Silt

d)

Loam

36.

A soil that has an equal part of sand, silt, and clay is called

a)

An aggregate

b)

A mixture

c)

Loam

d)

Parent rock

37.

The moisture holding capacity of soil is something improved by

a)

Adding organic matter

b)

Using tile drains

c)

Irrigation

d)

Sand

38.

Sandy soils have

a)

Large soil particles

b)

Good drainage but little moisture holding capacity

c)

Large pore spaces

d)

All of the above

39.

Which of the following is a benefit of soil testing

a)

Helps monitor the nutrient status of the soil

b)

Saves money by pinpointing the nutrients needed by the soil

c)

Increases yield or quality of the plants by providing optimum conditions for their growth

d)

All of the above

40.

Plant appearance should be used to determine when to water

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Over-watering is one of the biggest causes of root disorders and disease infections

a)

True

b)

False

42.

What should you consider when irrigating container plants:

a)

The rate of water penetration into the soil or container substrate

b)

The ability of the pot to drain out excess water

c)

The nutrient status of the soil

d)

A and B only

43.

Water is lost from the soil or container substrates by

a)

Evaporation

b)

Transpiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Both a and b

44.

Evaporation is the _______ on hotter, windy day with high light intensities

a)

Highest

b)

Lowest

c)

Least affected

d)

Apparent

45.

To manage high soluble salts the following should be done

a)

Leach the soil

b)

Use slow release fertilizers

c)

Reduce rate of non-slow release fertilizers

d)

All of the above

46.

Movement of water downward through the soil is called

a)

Absorption

b)

Leaching

c)

Recharge

d)

None of the above

47.

Younger plants require more fertilizer

a)

True

b)

False

48.

NPK stands for Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Most plants perform best when the soil pH is:

a)

4.0 to 5.5

b)

5.5 to 6.5

c)

6.0 to 7.0

d)

6.5 to 8

50.

A complete fertilizer formula such as 20-10-10 indicates:

a)

All major elements are present

b)

There is 20 pounds of nitrogen

c)

Nitrogen is in the amount of 20%

d)

A and B only

e)

A and C only

51.

The percentage of potassium oxide in 25-5-15 analysis fertilizer is

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

15%

d)

5%

52.

Organic nutrients are

a)

Generally naturally occurring and are derived from living things

b)

Present in the form of relatively simple compounds

c)

Generally consistent and of higher analysis

d)

Generally lower in cost/unit of plant food

53.

A fertilizer is

a)

Any organic material that is used to add nitrogen to the soil

b)

Any material of mixture of material used to supply one or more of the essential plant nutrient elements

c)

Any chemical material containing carbon dioxide

d)

None of the above

54.

Organic fertilizers

a)

Become available to the plant slowly

b)

Have to be broken down into an inorganic form before plants can use them

c)

Improve the structure of the soil

d)

All of the above

55.

Organic fertilizers are best applied

a)

Late fall

b)

Early spring

c)

Middle of summer

d)

Whenever the plants need it

56.

Soil pH is a measure of

a)

Soil acidity

b)

Nutrient content

c)

Water holding capacity

d)

All of the above

57.

When growing annual flowers, fertilizers should be applied

a)

When planted and in the fall

b)

Every two weeks

c)

When planted and in the middle of summer

d)

Whenever it looks like it needs it

58.

Lawns should be fertilized

a)

Just before it rains

b)

Depending on the quality of lawn desired

c)

Depending on the kind of grass present

d)

All of the above

59.

Of the thousands of described insect and mite species, a large percentage injure ornamental plants

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is the practice of using all suitable techniques and methods in as compatible a manner as possible to maintain pest populations at levels below those causing economic injury, and having minimal impact on the environment

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following is not a step in the Integrated Pest Management (IPM) process:

a)

Identify and understand the host and the pest causing the problem

b)

Monitor the pest

c)

Develop the IPM goal

d)

Identify the appropriate chemical pesticide

e)

Record and evaluate results

62.

The Disease Triangle includes all but one of the following conditions:

a)

Insect

b)

Pathogen

c)

Susceptible host plant

d)

Right environmental condition

63.

Some signs of plant disease are:

a)

Rots, cankers, wilt, dieback, decline

b)

Chlorosis, necrosis, mosaic/mottling

c)

Mold, mildew, fungal fruiting bodies, bacterial ooze

d)

Insect chewing and mining on leaves

64.

Abiotic diseases are

a)

Caused by cultural problems

b)

Cause by living organisms

c)

Infectious

d)

Not controllable

65.

Use of beneficial insects would be considered a

a)

Mechanical control

b)

Cultural control

c)

Biological control

d)

Chemical control

66.

A cause for an abiotic disease would be

a)

Pollution

b)

Overwatering

c)

Planting problems

d)

All of the above

67.

Another term for a bactericide is

a)

Fungicide

b)

Herbicide

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Penicillin

68.

Making money should be your primary sales goal

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Your attitude should be sales oriented, not customer oriented

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Customers will likely come to garden centers, nurseries and landscape service providers with:

a)

Wants

b)

Problems

c)

A concern that is difficult to articulate

d)

All of the above

71.

What results from a sales transaction that meets customer's needs:

a)

Profit alone

b)

Profit and repeat business

c)

Profit and knowing that you have met all the customer's current and future needs

72.

All products have:

a)

Benefits and features

b)

A lifetime warranty

c)

A promise that consumers will be loyal customers

73.

Your sale goal should be

a)

Making money

b)

Helping the customer identify their needs and then meet their needs through products and services

c)

Pushing products on customers

d)

Providing the customers' needs at minimal cost

74.

Good marketing is

a)

Pushing products on the customers

b)

Selling a product or service that the customer does not need

c)

Meeting the needs of the customer by providing products they value

d)

Creating a problem for the customer to handle

75.

Which of the following is considered a basic communication skill?

a)

Smile, be polite and ask permission

b)

Speak in a clear manner and look the person in the eye

c)

Be a professional

d)

All of the above

76.

Just as important as basic communication skills is being

a)

Technically competent

b)

Able to fake answers

c)

Not worry about your appearance

d)

Able to gossip or express your bad days

77.

The first step in the sales process is

a)

Greeting the customer

b)

Inquiry about specific needs or challenges

c)

Offering alternatives

d)

Answering objections and questions

78.

When assisting a customer come up with

a)

2-3 possible solutions with three price points

b)

The most expensive solution first to sell to the customer

c)

A product to sell

d)

Ignore their needs and concentrate on the specials

79.

All products have

a)

A guarantee

b)

Lifetime warranty

c)

Benefits and features

d)

A promise that consumers will be loyal customers

80.

One of the best ways to overcome the price objections is to

a)

Show them something less expensive

b)

Tell them it really is worth the price

c)

Show them what they get in value for what they pay

d)

Show them something more expensive