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Biology S1

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Rudolf Virchow's and Louis Pasteur's work resulted in significant contributions to cell theory but also (2 points)

a)

contradicted earlier cell theories significantly

b)

contradicted the accepted belief in spontaneous generation

c)

remained unpublished until after their deaths

d)

completed the work on the main ideas of the cell theory

2.

Glucose and fructose are monosaccharides that have the same chemical formula, C6H12O6. However, they do not react the same chemically. Which of the following generalizations can explain this? (2 points)

a)

Monosaccharides have different properties, but the disaccharides they form when combined with other molecules will have the same properties.

b)

The atoms of monosaccharides are arranged similarly, but the monomers from which they are formed have different physical and chemical properties.

c)

Monosaccharides serve different cellular functions, and they are only involved in reactions in which they are needed.

d)

The atoms of monosaccharides are arranged differently, and the different shape gives each monosaccharide unique properties.

3.

Which characteristic of an amino acid is most affected by the uniqueness of the organic side chain? (2 points)

a)

The amino acid's physical and chemical properties

b)

The carboxyl group (COOH) ability to react

c)

The amino acid's ability to react with other amino acids

d)

The central carbon atom's attachment point

4.

Which of the following provides the best description of a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? (2 points)

a)

Prokaryotic cells contain chloroplasts and mitochondria, while eukaryotic cells do not contain specialized organelles.

b)

The cell membrane of prokaryotic cells contains proteins, while the cell membrane of eukaryotic cells contains only lipids and carbohydrates.

c)

The DNA in eukaryotic cells is enclosed in the nucleus, while the DNA in prokaryotic cells is not separated from the rest of the cell's contents.

d)

Eukaryotic cells have cell walls that consist mainly of sugars, while prokaryotic cells do not.

5.

What is the function of the lysosome in eukaryotic cells? (2 points)

a)

The lysosome secretes enzymes to break down large molecules.

b)

The lysosome uses messenger RNA to synthesize proteins.

c)

The lysosome modifies proteins and sends them to where they are needed.

d)

The lysosome takes in nutrients and breaks them down to provide energy for the cell.

6.

Which of the following is true of modern cell theory? (2 points)

a)

Early cell theory has turned out to be incorrect.

b)

Scientists have learned all they can about cells at this point.

c)

Multi-celled organisms are the focus of most modern discoveries.

d)

As technology improves so will our understanding of cells.

7.

Which of the following correctly describes the image?

a)

RNA Molecule

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Protein Molecule

d)

Carboxylic Acid

8.

The contracting and relaxing of muscle is regulated by the amount of calcium present in the cells of muscle fibers. These cells must be able to move the calcium ions from areas with low concentrations to areas with high concentrations. What process would be necessary for this movement to occur? (2 points)

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Passive Transport

c)

Active Transport

d)

Osmosis

9.

Why is it important that the inside of a lysosome have a lower pH than the surrounding cytoplasm in the cell? (2 points)

a)

The digestive enzymes in the lysosome work best at a lower pH.

b)

The waste products stored in the lysosome require a lower pH.

c)

The protein molecules constructed in the lysosome form best at a lower pH.

d)

The substances stored in a lysosome are most stable at a lower pH.

10.

When a cell has to endure lasting changes in its environment that require it to actively transport more molecules than normal through the cell membrane, what effect will this have on the mitochondria of the cell? The cell will need (2 points)

a)

fewer mitochondria since there will be fewer molecules left in the cell.

b)

fewer mitochondria since the transport proteins will also create ATP.

c)

more mitochondria to repair damage to the ATP molecules.

d)

more mitochondria to meet the increased energy demand.

11.

Which of the following correctly describes contrasting features of a plant cell and an animal cell?

a)

Plant cells have both rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, while animal cells have only smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Plant cells have a cell membrane, and animals have both cell walls and a cell membrane.

c)

Plant cells have a large central vacuole that takes up most of the cell's space, and animal cells have many smaller vacuoles.

d)

Plant cells have lysosomes with enzymes, while animal cells have only the Golgi apparatus.

12.

When plants wilt, their soft stems and leaves begin to droop. What is going on inside the plants' cells that causes plants to droop like this?

a)

The central vacuoles in the cells lose water and can no longer help support the cells.

b)

The cell membranes begin to come apart when there is insufficient water around the cells.

c)

The cell walls become brittle as they dry out, and some of them collapse.

d)

The cytoplasm of the cells becomes more concentrated, which slowly poisons the cells.

13.

Runners only have enough stored ATP in their muscle cells to run for about five seconds. Which answer correctly explains how the runner's body adjust to the longer distance, for example, a marathon (42.1 km)?

a)

The runner's body will supply the needed energy by producing starch.

b)

The runner's body will convert stored fat molecules into energy.

c)

The runner's body will produce the energy by activating the Golgi apparatus.

d)

The runner's body will create the needed energy by breaking down proteins.

14.

During photosynthesis, unused oxygen atoms form oxygen gas (O2) which is released as a waste product. How did these oxygen atoms originally enter the plant?

a)

They were part of the sugar molecules (C6H12O6) the plant brought in for food.

b)

They were part of the water molecules (H2O) pulled in through the roots.

c)

They were part of the ATP molecules gathered by the chloroplasts.

d)

They were part of the carbon dioxide (CO2) molecules that entered through the leaves.

15.

Which of the following correctly compares fermentation and cellular respiration? (2 points)

a)

Both result in substantial ATP molecules and lactic acid production.

b)

Cellular respiration provides ATP molecules at a slower rate than fermentation.

c)

Both provide ATP molecules, but only fermentation occurs when oxygen is present.

d)

Cellular respiration produces more ATP molecules than fermentation.

16.

If the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) outside of the thylakoids were equal to the concentration of H+ inside the thylakoids, how would it affect the chloroplasts? (2 points)

a)

The chloroplasts would make more glucose molecules.

b)

The chloroplasts would be unable to generate ATP.

c)

The chloroplasts would release excess O2.

d)

The chloroplasts would make more NADPH than usual

17.

Which of the following does not provide evidence for endosymbiotic theory? (2 points)

a)

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own genetic material.

b)

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own ribosome.

c)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce without the use of binary fission.

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts control their own reproduction.

18.

Cellulose is a carbohydrate with an alternating pattern of glucose molecules. How would plants be affected if cellulose did not have this alternating pattern? (2 points)

a)

Plants would lack the ability to reproduce.

b)

Plant would not be able to store energy.

c)

Plants would not be able to produce chlorophyll.

d)

Plants would lack stability and strength.

19.

While the average human is able to hold his or her breath for approximately one minute, a whale can dive for over 30 minutes without returning to the surface. Which of the following correctly describes this difference?

a)

Whales have cells that produce energy differently than humans.

b)

Whales gather energy from their environment better than humans.

c)

Whales need less energy than humans.

d)

Whales are able to conserve oxygen better than humans.

20.

Studies have shown that some medications can damage mitochondria. Which of the following would you predict to be the most likely long-term effect on an organism with damaged mitochondria?

a)

Proteins would not be modified after being synthesized, and the organism would be unable to grow.

b)

Substances would not be able to enter or leave the cells of the organism, and affected cells would eventually burst.

c)

Errors would be made during DNA replication, and the organism would be more likely to develop cancer.

d)

The organism would suffer as its cells would be less able to provide the energy needed to carry out life functions.

21.

What can you conclude about the advantage of the cell membrane being made up of phospholipids?

a)

The phospholipids improve the immune response of the cell.

b)

The phospholipids allow for the regulation of metabolism.

c)

The phospholipids controls what enters and leaves the cell.

d)

The phospholipids offer the ability to digest enzymes.

22.

Which of the following characteristics of carbon is responsible for the variety of carbon-based molecules on Earth?

a)

It has four valence electrons.

b)

It is organic in nature.

c)

It can form bonds.

d)

It can form proteins.

23.

Which of the following best describes an example of how an enzyme inhibitor can work in a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme?

a)

The enzyme inhibitor catalyzes the reverse reaction, which counteracts the work of the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme inhibitor binds to the products of the reaction, which makes the work of the enzyme unproductive.

c)

The enzyme inhibitor fits into the enzyme's active site, which prevents the enzyme from catalyzing the reaction.

d)

The enzyme inhibitor attacks and destroys the enzyme, which prevents the enzyme from helping in the reaction.

24.

Which of the following is needed for cellular respiration to occur?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Sodium

25.

If a chemical reaction catalyzed by an enzyme is being carried out, and there is a sudden, drastic decrease in temperature, what is most likely to happen next?

a)

Enzyme activity will decrease, and the reaction will proceed very slowly, or possibly not at all.

b)

The reaction will proceed more quickly since the activation energy is decreased.

c)

Less heat will be lost to the environment, and the reaction will take place more efficiently.

d)

The reaction rate will decrease and eventually return to normal as the enzyme adapts to the temperature change.

26.

A compound with the molecular formula of C5H10O5 would be classified as which organic molecule? (2 points)

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

27.

Color-blindness is a x-linked recessive disease. Under what circumstances will this condition manifest in a child? (2 points)

a)

If the child is a male and its mother has the recessive allele.

b)

If the child is a female and its father has the recessive allele.

c)

If the child is a female and its mother has the recessive allele

d)

If the child is a male and its father has the recessive allele.

28.

In which of the following ways is DNA replication similar to transcription? (2 points)

a)

New cells are created after both have happened.

b)

Both take place in the cell cytoplasm.

c)

Both create new DNA strands.

d)

Cytosine pairs with guanine in both.

29.

During meiosis, sister chromatids are separated and move toward opposite ends of the cell as the centromeres that hold them separate. Which of the following processes will begin next? (2 points)

a)

Telophase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Metaphase II

30.

Tobacco products have been identified has mutagens. However, some tobacco users develop cancer and some do not. The reason for this apparent inconsistency is (2 points)

a)

tobacco use only causes benign tumors that are identified as non-cancerous

b)

mutagens only have the capability to cause mutations if exposure lasts over 20 years

c)

some people are more predisposed to developing cancer when exposed to mutagens

d)

not all tobacco products are cancerous

31.

Which of the following statements is true of both binary fission and mitosis? (2 points)

a)

They both involve the division of a single nucleus.

b)

They both produce two daughter cells with complete DNA.

c)

They both produce four daughter cells with one set of chromosomes.

d)

They both are used primarily for asexual reproduction.

32.

If a mutation occurs in a gamete, which of the following is most likely to result? (2 points)

a)

The mutation will not always cause the offspring to be genetically disadvantaged.

b)

The mutation will not be passed on to the offspring.

c)

If the mutation is non-disjunctive then it will not be passed on.

d)

If the mutation occurs on a recessive gene, it will most likely be expressed.

33.

In pea plants, the allele for round seeds is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds. If a plant that is heterozygous for seed type is crossed with one that has only homozygous wrinkled seeds, what percent of their offspring would you expect to have wrinkled seeds? (2 points)

a)

0 percent

b)

50 percent

c)

100 percent

d)

25 percent

34.

A plant breeder is trying to develop a deep purple violet. She knows the violets come in deep purple, light purple, and white. She crosses two violets hoping to produce only the deep color. Which parent plants should she use? (2 points)

a)

Both parents must be Pp.

b)

At least one parent must be pp.

c)

At least one parent must be Pp.

d)

Both parent must be PP.

35.

Over the last several decades, the scientific community has gathered a large amount of information regarding genetics and genetic variation. What are two main sources that lead to increased genetic variation? (Both answers must be selected.) (2 points)

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Selective breeding

c)

Gamete mutations

d)

Recombination

36.

While mRNA strands are being created a sequence is sometimes miscopied. What will be the effect of this on the cell? (2 points)

a)

The damaged mRNA may cause cell death.

b)

Future transcription will not take place.

c)

Ribosomes may be destroyed.

d)

Translation may not take place.

37.

The pedigree chart below shows the individuals in a family who exhibit a certain trait. Based on the information in the chart, what are the chances that a second child born to couple 4-5 in the third generation will show the trait? (2 points)

a)

100 percent

b)

0 percent

c)

25 percent

d)

50 percent

38.

In fruit flies, the allele for white eyes is recessive to the allele for red eyes. In a generation of fruit flies, 45 males with white eyes, 46 females with white eyes, 44 males with red eyes, and 47 females with red eyes are produced. Which of the following is the best conclusion you can make about the parents of this generation? (2 points)

a)

One parent had white eyes and the other was heterozygous for eye color.

b)

Both parents were homozygous with red eyes.

c)

One parent was heterozygous for eye color and the other was homozygous with red eyes.

d)

Both parents were heterozygous for eye color.

39.

A person with the genetic disorder Klinefelter's syndrome has an extra x-chromosome. Affected individuals have the genotype XXY. What can you infer is most likely the genetic mutation that results in Klinefelter's syndrome? (2 points)

a)

Crossing over during meiosis

b)

Complete duplication of chromosomes during polyploidy

c)

Non-disjunction during meiosis

d)

Translocation during genetic replication

40.

Codominance is a form of inheritance in which two different alleles for a gene are both expressed, and neither allele is dominant over the other. One example of codominance is blood type in humans; the alleles for type A blood and type B blood are codominant. If a man who is homozygous for type A blood and a woman who is homozygous for type B blood have children, what would you expect to find in the children? (2 points)

a)

Half will have type A and half will have type B blood.

b)

The children will all have type AB blood.

c)

The children will all have type A blood.

d)

The children will all have type B blood.

41.

A body cell is in the longest stage of its life cycle. The cell grows, synthesizing proteins and increasing in size. Eventually, the cell will grow too large to carry out normal activities and begin mitosis. Which phase is the cell in? (2 points)

a)

G1

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

G2

d)

S

42.

A wolf's diploid number of chromosomes is 78. How would the number of chromosomes in the wolf's body cells compare to the number of chromosomes in its gametes? (2 points)

a)

Its body cells and gametes would both have 78 chromosomes.

b)

Its body cells would have 39 chromosomes, and its gametes would have 78 chromosomes.

c)

Its body cells would have 78 chromosomes, and its gametes would have 39 chromosomes.

d)

Its body cells and gametes would both have 39 chromosomes.

43.

If a tRNA molecule has an anticodon which reads AUG, what was the codon of the mRNA molecule? (2 points)

a)

CGU

b)

UAC

c)

TAC

d)

TAG

44.

In which scenario would mitosis be least desirable in terms of a species' survival? (2 points)

a)

A species has little energy to devote to reproduction

b)

A species is unable to travel far to find a mate

c)

A species is preyed upon by numerous successful predators

d)

A species has to adjust rapidly to a changing environment

45.

Which of the following would most quickly devastate a human population?

a)

A flu virus breaking out in a large office building or school

b)

A genetic disorder found in a population of average women

c)

A deadly water-borne microorganism in a city's water source

d)

An illness that spreads through contact with bodily fluids

46.

The Venn diagram below shows similarities and differences between binary fission and mitosis. What is wrong with the diagram? (2 points)

a)

Binary fission is not a simple process.

b)

Mitosis forms four identical daughter cells.

c)

Mitosis does not form membrane-bound nuclei.

d)

Binary fission is not used by eukaryotes.

47.

During mitosis, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, spindle fibers form from one end of the cell to the other, and centrioles organize the spindle fibers. Which stage of mitosis happens next?

a)

Telophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

48.

While the DNA in a human skin cell was being replicated, a single base was miscopied. What will be the most likely result of this for the cell in which it happened?

a)

Both new DNA strands will end up together in a new cell, and the inaccurate one will be discarded.

b)

If the new sequence codes for the same amino acid as the original cell, it will function normally.

c)

All the proteins the cell creates from the miscopied strand will do different jobs than the old ones.

d)

Any miscopied DNA will be replaced with an accurate DNA copy once the cell divides.

49.

Recently, some crop plants were genetically modified to be immune to the effects of weed killers. Which of the environmental concerns should be considered before planting the resistant crops?

a)

A increase in crop diversity.

b)

A decrease in crop diversity.

c)

A increase in crop yield.

d)

A decrease in crop yield.

50.

Which of the following questions can be answered scientifically? (2 points)

a)

To what extent should we protect the rainforests?

b)

Are cotton or polyester clothes more comfortable?

c)

Can star positions be used to determine the future?

d)

Which liquid takes the longest to burn?

51.

Which of the following was most likely responsible for the fact that organic molecules no longer form spontaneously on Earth? (2 points)

a)

Earth's surface temperature warmed.

b)

The amount of UV radiation increased.

c)

The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere increased.

d)

Water accumulated in the oceans.

52.

Which of the following discoveries is most crucial to explaining why all organisms share the same genetic code?

a)

RNA's ability to self-catalyze

b)

Microspheres' similarities to modern meteorites

c)

DNA's ability to absorb carbon molecules

d)

Vesicles containing the same organelles

53.

Review the moth diagram. What can be correctly inferred from the information in the diagram?

a)

Black moths are adapted to their environment better than speckled moths.

b)

Black moths have a longer life span and produce more offspring than speckled moths.

c)

Speckled moths produce more offspring than black moths.

d)

Speckled moths are better tasting than black moths.

54.

Cameron is collecting data to determine the time of completion for each stage of germination in seeds. He is using bean seeds for his investigation and recording his results. He repeats his data collection many times to obtain reliable results. Which aspect of his experimental process is most important for obtaining reliable results?

a)

Taking observations at precise intervals

b)

Collecting enough varieties of onion types

c)

Talking to other scientists during the experiment

d)

Using a variety of microscopes for exact measurements

55.

If several highly educated scientists all study the same scientific data, which of the following is most likely to explain why they may all have different conclusions?

a)

Scientists make slight variations in procedure to test more broadly.

b)

Conclusions involve the scientist's interpretation.

c)

Not all scientists study the data with similar effort.

d)

Scientists state conclusions based on their own research needs.

56.

If carbon dioxide and water were abundantly available to a heterotrophic prokaryotic cell, would it be possible for the cell to use them as a food source?

a)

Sunlight would be needed for the reaction to occur, so they would not be a food source.

b)

Anything that contains carbon is an organic molecule, so the carbon dioxide could be a food source.

c)

Neither carbon dioxide nor water contains energy the cell could use, so they would not be a food source.

d)

Since carbon dioxide and water are used to make glucose, they could be used as a food source.

57.

Christiaan Eijkman shared the Nobel Prize in 1929 for the discovery of vitamins. Eijkman went to Java to isolate the pathogen causing beriberi, an illness that appeared to be contagious as it was common in prisons and among ship crews. Eijkman noticed that chickens fed a diet of white rice also suffered from a similar disorder. When the chickens were fed a diet of red rice, the chickens quickly recovered. What can Eijkman safely infer at this point from his observations?

a)

Beriberi is most certainly not a pathogen.

b)

White rice contains little nutritional value for humans and chickens.

c)

Diet may be the cause of beriberi, but more research is needed.

d)

Humans with symptoms similar to those of chickens should change their diet.

58.

Which of the following best represents the relationship between the pH of water, vinegar, and ammonia?

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.

Which of the following best describes one way electron microscopes and light microscopes differ in structure?

a)

Light microscopes use vacuum tubes instead of electron beams to concentrate light on the stage.

b)

Electron microscopes use an infrared light source instead of a regular light source to display images.

c)

Electron microscopes use a beam of electrons instead of light to magnify images.

d)

Light microscopes use lamps instead of electric cables as a power source.

60.

Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?

a)

Water is a universal solvent.

b)

Water acts as a buffer.

c)

Water is an acid.

d)

Water has a high heat capacity.

61.

How does the use of a scanning electron microscope differ from that of a transmission electron microscope?

a)

A scanning electron microscope can produce only a two-dimensional black and white image, while a transmission electron microscope can produce a three-dimensional color image.

b)

A scanning electron microscope can be used to study live specimens, while a transmission electron microscope would harm the specimens that are being viewed.

c)

A scanning electron microscope can produce images of specimens prepared in liquid, while a transmission electron microscope requires all water to be removed from specimens first.

d)

A scanning electron microscope can be used to study the details of a specimen's surface, while a transmission electron microscope can be used to study the internal structures of a cell.

62.

After many experiments and observations, Jacques Charles described how gases expand at the same rate as a change in temperature. This observation is represented in the formula V100 − V0 = kV0. These findings are not the basis of a scientific theory because (2 points)

a)

they predict what will happen in nature without tests and supporting evidence

b)

they explain the relationship between gases and temperature based on observation

c)

they describe what happens in nature without explaining why it happens

d)

they establish a claim that can be tested and retested by the scientific community

63.

The study of biology is important because it focuses on

a)

the development of human forms

b)

the animals of the Earth

c)

the interactions of all living things

d)

the functions of the human body

64.

Many experiments on Earth's early atmosphere have resulted in the formation of organic molecules, but have never resulted in cell formation. In which of the following ways do the experimental conditions prevent cell formation in the lab?

a)

The experiments cannot last for billions of years as it did on early Earth.

b)

Ultraviolet light intensity of early Earth cannot be reproduced.

c)

Gas composition of early Earth cannot be replicated.

d)

The nutrients of early Earth are different from those found today.

65.

Kendra watches a television commercial for a new alternative medicine. She is interested in the medicine, but she is unsure if it will really work. Which of the following would give reliable evidence of the medicine's properties?

a)

Testimony of many users that the medicine really works

b)

The fact that the company owns several multi-million dollar research facilities

c)

Testimony of well-respected medical professionals supporting the medicine's abilities

d)

Many experimental trials with results that support the claims

66.

Reynaldo is reviewing a study on the effectiveness of a new drug-free remedy for depression. In the study, a group of participants was given a natural supplement for a period of six weeks. They rated their mood both before and after treatment. Two-thirds of the group reported a marked improvement after the trial. What change in this study would do the most to increase Reynaldo's confidence that sound scientific practices were followed?

a)

Including information about the manufacturer and cost of the supplement

b)

Including a control group that did not receive the supplement

c)

Including testimony of participants in the study's documentation

d)

Including more details about the self-reported mood ratings

67.

What do anaerobic organisms have in common with photosynthetic organisms?

a)

They both produce carbon dioxide as a waste product.

b)

They both can only exist as single-celled organisms.

c)

They both need an energy source in order to survive.

d)

They both appeared on Earth at about the same time.

68.

What must happen for scientific theories to be accepted as valid?

a)

The research team must apply for and receive federal funding based on several early tests.

b)

A hypothesis must be upgraded with supporting experimental evidence.

c)

Biological manufacturers must conduct clinical trials.

d)

Scientific evidence must be reported, verified, and accepted by the scientific community.

69.

Which type of microscope requires a nonmetal sample to be prepared for viewing by coating it with a thin layer of a conductive material?

a)

Scanning electron microscope

b)

Transmission electron microscope

c)

Compound light microscope

d)

Dissecting microscope

70.

Which statement best describes a characteristic of a scientific theory?

a)

Supported by a substantial body of evidence observed in nature

b)

An educated guess that is yet to be tested consistently

c)

A readily demonstrable fact that cannot be disproven

d)

Supported by mathematics to explain a principle of nature

71.

In 1907, Dr. Duncan MacDougall performed a series of experiments in which he attempted to measure the weight of the soul as it left a dying person. In his experiments, MacDougall placed a dying person on a scale and measured their weight immediately prior to and following death. MacDougall determined the change in weight to be approximately 21 grams. From these experiments, he concluded that the soul exists and has mass. What is the fundamental scientific flaw in his conclusions?

a)

They are based on the concept that the soul can be measured.

b)

They are based on the concept of the soul, which is beyond the bounds of science.

c)

They are based on the idea that the soul is made of matter, not energy.

d)

They are based on the assumption that the soul does not remain in the body after death.

72.

The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?

a)

a covalent bond

b)

a hydrophilic bond

c)

a hydrogen bond

d)

an ionic bond

73.

Which of the following is the best example of a way human lifestyles affect environmental systems?

a)

Deforestation causes water pollution by decreasing water vapor in nearby lakes and rivers.

b)

Burning fossil fuels increases the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

c)

Using aerosol sprays increases the amount of ozone (O3) in the atmosphere.

d)

Using radioactive materials causes ground pollution when chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) seep into the ground.

74.

Which of the following best describes what happens to water molecules after they have condensed to form clouds?

a)

They will fall to Earth as precipitation in the form of rain, sleet, or snow.

b)

They will undergo evaporation and change to a gas.

c)

They will combine to form runoff and flow into rivers, lakes, and oceans.

d)

They will undergo transpiration and become water vapor.

75.

How are the energy transfers in lightning fixation similar to those in photosynthesis?

a)

They both transform electrical energy into chemical energy.

b)

They both transform chemical energy into electrical energy.

c)

They both transform one form of energy into radiant energy.

d)

They both transform one form of energy into chemical energy.

76.

The eggs and larvae of marine animals tend to require water with more dissolved oxygen in it than the adults do. If water flows from a freshwater source into a salt water bay, what effect would this have on the population of marine animals?

a)

The freshwater would decrease the populations of marine animals by decreasing both salinity and oxygen levels.

b)

The nutrient-rich freshwater would encourage algal blooms, thereby increasing the levels of oxygen and marine animals.

c)

The freshwater would increase the populations of marine animals because it holds more oxygen than the salt water.

d)

The freshwater would decrease the populations of marine animals because it would deplete the salt water of oxygen.

77.

Every year, millions of acres of land are cleared by forest fires. Which of the following best describes a consequence of these catastrophic events?

a)

Biodiversity will decrease in the area of the fire.

b)

Carbon dioxide levels decrease rapidly in the areas near the fire.

c)

Invasive species will quickly take over the disturbed area.

d)

Population sizes will increase as new species move into the cleared area.

78.

For the past 20 years, the population of the invasive Asian Carp in the Mississippi River has skyrocketed while populations of native species have declined. Which of the following conclusions provides the best explanation for this phenomenon?

a)

The native species migrated to new areas, while the carp remained.

b)

The native species contracted a virus that the carp were immune to.

c)

The food sources preferred by the carp increased.

d)

The carp out-competed the native species for food and space.

79.

Sustainability means developing practices which protect the environment while also providing for human needs. Which of the following changes would be most helpful in achieving sustainable agriculture?

a)

Growing crops that produce only renewable resources

b)

Clearing land for agriculture by cutting down trees instead of burning them

c)

Rotating crops to replenish the soil with nutrients

d)

Tilling the ground to remove weeds and create uniform crops

80.

In higher latitudes where lakes freeze over in winter, how do cool fall temperatures help fish make it through the winter?

a)

Water from the bottom of the lake raises and provides oxygen to the cooler waters on the surface.

b)

The water in contact with the air sinks and mixes with the less oxygenated water in the deeper levels.

c)

The cooling water slows fish metabolisms down and allows them to go into hibernation in winter.

d)

Cool water at the surface traps nutrients deep in the lake to provide food during the winter.

81.

Which of the following best describes the flow of energy in the Everglades food web shown below?

a)

American alligator → carp → insects → mangrove; about 10 percent of the energy in one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

b)

Egret → carp → insects → sawgrass; about 90 percent of the energy in one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

c)

Mangrove → insects → carp → egret → American alligator; about 10 percent of the energy in one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

d)

Sawgrass → insects → Southern leopard frog → raccoon → American alligator; about 90 percent of the energy in one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

82.

The chart below describes two different organisms living in the same ecosystem. Based on the information in the chart, which of the following is most likely the correct explanation of the relationship of the two organisms?

a)

competitors for the same food

b)

predator and prey

c)

an invasive species and a native species

d)

two types of prey hunted by the same predator

83.

Which of the following best describes a benefit of one type of nonrenewable energy?

a)

Petroleum is not carbon based and will not produce carbon dioxide as a byproduct.

b)

Natural gas does not produce greenhouse gases when it is burned.

c)

Nuclear power does not produce air pollution as other energy sources do.

d)

Coal deposits are found on nearly every continent and mining coal poses few risks.

84.

A cell goes through cellular respiration and produces ATP which it then uses to move a molecule across the cell membrane. How does the energy in the original glucose molecule change during this process?

a)

The kinetic energy in the glucose is stored as potential energy in the ATP and released as kinetic energy when the molecule moves across the cell membrane.

b)

The energy in the glucose is stored as kinetic energy in the ATP and released as potential energy when the molecule moves across the cell membrane.

c)

The energy in the glucose is stored as mechanical energy in the ATP and released as potential energy when the molecule moves across the cell membrane.

d)

The stored energy in the glucose is used to produce ATP that can be converted to mechanical energy when the molecule moves across the cell membrane.

85.

Salvatore had grown tired of his fish tank and would like to get rid of the fish and contents of the tank in a nearby freshwater canal. Which argument presents the most devastating consequences of Salvatore's dumping of the tank?

a)

He may be killing the creatures living in the tank.

b)

He may be polluting the lake with the contents of the tank.

c)

He may be introducing an invasive species that will damage the ecosystem

d)

He may be destroying the opportunity for owning pets in the future.

86.

The majority of marine organisms are found in coastal regions, rather than the open ocean. Which of the following best explains why?

a)

Temperatures are cooler in coastal regions.

b)

Ocean currents bring nutrient-rich water into coastal regions.

c)

The shallow waters of coastal regions provide less oxygen.

d)

Salinity is usually much higher in coastal regions.

87.

Scientific research shows that our global climate is changing. Ocean temperatures and acidity are increasing, and the global sea level is rising. Which of the following best predicts an outcome of this global climate change in a marine ecosystem?

a)

Many marine species will not be able to adjust quickly enough to survive.

b)

Tectonic plate activity will increase and produce warmer ocean temperatures.

c)

The increased acidity will make it more difficult for harmful bacteria to survive.

d)

More species will be able to survive due to the less extreme temperatures in the ocean.

88.

Which of the following describes how the winter season affects organisms in the tundra biome?

a)

Animals not adapted to cold migrate to warmer regions.

b)

The predator to prey ratio increases.

c)

The cold temperatures kill most of the plants.

d)

Plants increase the size of their leaves to absorb sunlight.

89.

If farmers wanted to increase the amount of naturally occurring nitrate in their farm fields so that they would have to apply less of it as fertilizer, what would be the best thing for them to do?

a)

Flood the fields periodically to encourage anaerobic bacteria.

b)

Sterilize the soil to remove all the bacteria from it.

c)

Water more frequently to pull nitrogen from the air.

d)

Alternate their normal crops with crops of legumes.

90.

Which of the following explains the role of fungi and slime molds as pictured in the rainforest food web shown below?

a)

They are autotrophs that use chemicals as an energy source to produce food when sunlight is not available.

b)

They are heterotrophs that get their energy by consuming plants, herbivores, and other primary consumers.

c)

They are producers that make food by converting water and carbon dioxide into glucose and oxygen, using energy from the Sun.

d)

They are decomposers that break down organic wastes and dead organisms into compounds used by plants for photosynthesis.

91.

Which of the following correctly compares the changes that take place in an ecosystem during primary succession and secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession takes place over a long period of time in an area that has been disrupted by a natural disaster, while secondary succession occurs quickly on newly formed land.

b)

Primary succession takes place over a long period of time on newly formed land, while secondary succession occurs quickly in areas that have disrupted by a natural disaster.

c)

Primary succession takes place quickly in an area that has been disrupted by a natural disaster, while secondary succession occurs over a long period of time on newly formed land.

d)

Primary succession takes place quickly on newly formed land, while secondary succession occurs over a long period of time in an area that has been disrupted by a natural disaster.

92.

Which of the following best explains how a biotic factor can control the population of a species in an ecosystem?

a)

Lack of water during a drought may cause many of the individuals in a population to die.

b)

Competition between two species may force one of them to migrate to survive.

c)

A sudden drop in temperature may cause many individuals in a population to die.

d)

Disease may lead to a decline in the reproductive rate of the species' main predator.

93.

Which of the following best describes a consequence of using a renewable energy source?

a)

Solar power is expensive and requires a large amount of space.

b)

Natural gas causes air pollution when burned for energy.

c)

Nuclear power produces harmful radiation.

d)

Wind energy pollutes air supplies.

94.

Which of the following best describes environmental parameters that should be investigated prior to building a new highway?

a)

Construction costs that will be paid using tax dollars

b)

How close the highway will be to residential areas

c)

Animals that may become endangered due to loss of habitat

d)

Traffic patterns among currently existing highways