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Worksheets

Cardiovascular Exam Review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When blood pressure decreases, the kidneys help raise it by secreting which of the following?

a)

Renin

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Erythropoietin

2.

What instruction should the nurse give to the client taking propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension?

a)

Have potassium level checked.

b)

Report any changes in appetite

c)

Do not stop taking medication abruptly.

d)

Resume usual daily activities

3.

The nurse understands that which of the following best describes the action of propranolol (Inderal)?

a)

It increases heart rate.

b)

It decreases cardiac output

c)

It decreases fluid volume

d)

It increases cardiac contractility

4.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been administered heparin after the administration of a thrombolytic drug to prevent another thrombus forming. What should the nurse monitor for in the client after the administration of heparin?

a)

Internal bleeding

b)

Difficulty in breathing

c)

Excessive perspiration

d)

Skin rash

5.

Which of the following is a desired outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain for a client with acute thrombophlebitis

a)

States anxiety is decreased

b)

States pain is satisfactorily relieved

c)

Is able to participate in desired activities.

d)

Reports ability to ambulate without pain.

6.

A client has been diagnosed with Raynaud's disease and asks the nurse what occurs with this disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse

a)

"Arterial vessel occlusion is caused by many clots that develop in the heart and are carried to the bloodstream."

b)

"Arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs, most often on the fingertips with symptoms of coldness, pain, and pale skin."

c)

"Peripheral vasospasm occurs in the lower limbs as a result of valve damage from long-standing venous stasis."

d)

"Thrombosis related to prolonged vasoconstriction caused by overexposure to the cold occurs."

7.

The nurse understands that which of the following are the most characteristic symptoms of Buerger's disease? Select all that apply.

a)

Numbness and Intermittent claudication

b)

Pain

c)

Cramping

d)

Swelling

e)

Bounding pulses

8.

Which of the following medications is used to treat intermittent claudication?

a)

Cholestyramine (Questran)

b)

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

c)

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

d)

Ranolazine (Ranexa)

9.

The nurse understands that which of the following best describes the action of enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?

a)

It decreases levels of angiotensin II.

b)

It adjusts the extracellular volume.

c)

It dilates the arterioles and veins.

d)

It decreases cardiac output.

10.

The nurse understands that which is a side effect most likely to be reported by clients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?

a)

Acne

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Cough

d)

Heartburn

11.

Which of the following prevents the backflow of blood in veins?

a)

Precapillary sphincters

b)

Middle layer

c)

Smooth muscle layer

d)

Valves

12.

The nurse obtains a lower blood pressure on a client's left arm than the right arm. As a result, which of the following extremities should the nurse use for ongoing blood pressure measurement?

a)

Left arm

b)

Right arm

c)

Right leg

d)

Left leg

13.

The nurse is checking a client's blood pressure for orthostatic hypotension. The client's BP lying down was 142/88 mm Hg and 136/80 mm Hg when standing. The client asks the nurse why there is such a difference. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?

a)

"Your blood pressure should go up about 15 mm Hg, so we'll need to have you move very slowly to avoid a fall."

b)

"Blood pressure usually compensates for a change in position by going down by about 15 mm Hg, so this is normal."

c)

"It is safe for the blood pressure to drop by as much as 25 mm Hg, so you don't need to worry."

d)

"Your blood pressure is still in a normal range so there is no real concern."

14.

As the nurse examines a client for decreased circulation in the lower extremities, which of the following findings would indicate adequate circulation?

a)

Loss of hair on extremity

b)

Capillary refill less than 3 seconds

c)

Diminished pulses in the extremity

d)

Thickened nail in the extremity

15.

The nurse understand that a client with blood pressure readings of 164/102 mm Hg and 176/100 mm Hg on two separate occasions would be classified in which hypertension category?

a)

Prehypertension

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 2

d)

Normal

16.

The client asks the nurse, "How is hypertension defined?" Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?

a)

"It is measured as the heart pumps blood into the arteries."

b)

"It is blood pressure above 140/90 mm Hg on two separate occasions."

c)

"It is regulated by stress, activity, and emotions."

d)

"It is determined by peripheral vascular resistance."

17.

Which of the following statements, if made by a client with hypertension, indicates to the nurse a need for more teaching?

a)

High blood pressure may affect the kidneys and eyes."

b)

"Most people with hypertension watch their diet."

c)

"Medication will no longer be needed when I feel better."

d)

"Many people do not know when their blood pressure is high."

18.

Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the focus of care for a client with hypertension?

a)

Activity Intolerance

b)

Ineffective Airway Clearance

c)

Impaired Physical Mobility

d)

Deficient Knowledge

19.

A client is prescribed bumetanide (Bumex) every morning for control of hypertension. Which of the following statements indicates correct knowledge of treatment regimen?

a)

"I can travel to the beach and sunbathe all day."

b)

"Now I can eat whatever I want, when I want."

c)

"I'll take my medication in the morning, every morning."

d)

"I won't need medication once my pressure goes down."

20.

A client calls the hypertension clinic to report frequent headaches with a newly prescribed medication. The nurse anticipates that this is a normal side effect if the client is taking which of the following medications

a)

Furosemide (Lasix)

b)

Atenolol (Tenormin)

c)

Clonidine (Catapres)

d)

Adalat (Procardia)

21.

The nurse is caring for a client who has peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of how to manage the pain of peripheral arterial disease?

a)

"I will like down frequently."

b)

"I will use a reclining chair."

c)

"I will sit with my legs down."

d)

"I will do knee flexion exercises."

22.

Which of the following is a desired outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain for a client with acute thrombophlebitis?

a)

States anxiety is decreased

b)

States pain is satisfactorily relieved.

c)

Is able to participate in desired activities.

d)

Reports ability to ambulate without pain.

23.

A client is undergoing warfarin drug therapy. After taking the drug, the client develops signs of GI bleeding. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform for this client?

a)

Inspect urine for red-orange color

b)

Monitor vital signs every 4 hours

c)

Inspect for bright red to black stools

d)

Monitor client's fluid intake and output

24.

Use of which of the following herbal remedies can increase the risk of bleeding, during warfarin therapy? Select all that apply

a)

St. John's Wort

b)

Garlic

c)

Tea Tree Oil

d)

Ginseng

e)

Gingko Biloba

25.

Which of the following data would be most important for the nurse to collect now for a client who is reporting fatigue and dizziness? Select all that apply.

a)

Presence of pain

b)

Weight

c)

Vital signs

d)

ECG tracing

e)

WBC count

26.

Which of the following does the nurse understand occurs in aortic stenosis?

a)

Emptying blood from the left ventricle is impaired.

b)

Aortic valve does not close tightly.

c)

Blood backflows in the left atrium.

d)

Emptying of the left atrium is impaired.

27.

Which of the following does the nurse understand causes fatigue in clients with chronic aortic stenosis?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Increased coronary artery blood flow

c)

Decreased pulmonary blood flow

d)

Left ventricular failure

28.

The client is caring for a client on warfarin (Coumadin) with an elevated international normalized ration (INR) level. Which of the following would be ordered as the antidote for warfarin?

a)

Calcium chloride

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

protamine sulfate

29.

The nurse is reviewing the daily international normalized ratio (INR) and prothrombin time (PT) levels for a client who had a mechanical valve replacement. The INR is 3.7 and the PT level is 29. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a)

Give warfarin (Coumadin) dose stat.

b)

Give the next dose of warfarin (Coumadin) as ordered.

c)

Inform the physician now

d)

Discontinue the warfarin (Coumadin)

30.

Which of the following findings should be reported to the physician for a client receiving warfarin therapy?

a)

Bleeding time 3 (normal = 2 to 5 seconds)

b)

Prothrombin time (PT) 20 (normal = 9 to 12 seconds)

c)

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 28 (normal = 30 to 45 seconds)

d)

International normalized ratio (INR) 4 (normal = 2 to 3 seconds)

31.

The nurse understands which of the following occurs in mitral regurgitation?

a)

Impaired emptying of the left ventricle

b)

Backflow of blood into the left atrium

c)

Impaired emptying of the right ventricle

d)

Backflow of blood into the right atrium

32.

The nurse is planning care for a client with chronic mitral regurgitation. Which of the following assessments would be the highest priority?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Lung sounds

c)

Cardiac rhythm

d)

Heart tones

33.

Which of the following is the most common symptom of pericarditis?

a)

Intermittent claudication

b)

Calf pain

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Chest pain

34.

A client is being given digoxin (Lanoxin) to treat heart failure. Which of the following is a usual adult daily dosage of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

a)

0.025 mg

b)

0.25 mg

c)

0.005 mg

d)

2.5 mg

35.

If a client has elevated pulmonary vascular pressures, the nurse understands that the client is likely to develop which of the following physiological cardiac changes?

a)

Right ventricular hypertrophy

b)

Left ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Left atrial atrophy

d)

Right atrial atrophy

36.

A client asks the nurse what a diagnosis of heart failure means. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?

a)

Your heart is pumping to much blood."

b)

"Your heart is not an efficient pump."

c)

"Your heart briefly stops."

d)

"Your heart has an area of muscle that is dead"

37.

A client, hospitalized with an MI, suddenly begins to have severe respiratory distress with frothy sputum. The signs indicate that the client probably has developed which of the following?

a)

Cardiac tamponade

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pneumoni

d)

Pulmonary edema

38.

The nurse understands that pain associated with coronary artery disease occurs from which of the following?

a)

Overexertion of the heart muscle due to the workload

b)

Interrupted electrical activity to the areas of the heart

c)

Lack of nutrients to the heart

d)

Lack of sufficient oxygen to the myocardium

39.

Which of the following does the nurse correctly include in a teaching plan as modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease? Select all that apply.

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Gender

d)

Race

e)

Smoking

40.

Temporary pacemakers are used for symptomatic bradycardia.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

You are caring for a client with a new pacemaker. Nursing care for this client would include which of the following?

a)

Performing range of motion every 4 hours to the arm on the pacemaker side for the first 2 days

b)

Bedrest for 24 hours

c)

Scheduling of an MRI to verify pacemaker placement

d)

Monitoring the heart rate and rhythm by apical pulse and ECG patterns

42.

You are preparing to administer digoxin. Which of the assessments will need to be completed prior to administration?

a)

Assess apical pulse

b)

Monitor for sleep disturbances

c)

Monitor blood pressure

d)

Monitor for visual disturbances

43.

The nurse understands that rhythms arising from the primary pacing node of the heart are referred to as which of the following?

a)

Sinus rhythms

b)

Ectopic rhythms

c)

Escape beats

d)

Bundle branch blocks

44.

Which of the following is the inherent rate for the atrioventricular node?

a)

40 to 60 bpm

b)

More than 100 bpm

c)

60 to 100 bpm

d)

20 to 40 bpm

45.

Which of the following waveforms represents the resting state of the ventricle on a ECG

a)

T wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

U wave

d)

P wave

46.

Of the following, which is the most serious type of dysrhythmia?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Sinus bradycardia

d)

Supraventricular tachycardia

47.

You are caring for an older woman with cardiac disease. Based on your knowledge, you realize that the older cardiac client is different from the younger cardiac client because:

a)

Even with lower doses of medications, the older adult should be observed for signs and symptoms of toxicity.

b)

The cardiac output tends to be increased in the older adult.

c)

The younger adult tends to have a more extensive network of collateral circulation than the older adult.

d)

Dyspnea is a typical symptom of a myocardial infarction in the younger adult, whereas angina is the more common symptom in the older adult

48.

A client who has been scheduled for a stress ECG asks why this ECG is needed. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?

a)

"It verifies how much more physically fit the client needs to become."

b)

" It determine the client's potential heart rate."

c)

"It shows how the heart performs during exercise."

d)

"it can predict whether the client may soon have a heart attack."

49.

Before a cardiac catheterization and coronary arteriogram, it is essential that the nurse ask the client if they are allergic to which of the following?

a)

Eggs

b)

Penicillin

c)

Codeine

d)

Iodine

50.

Which of the following diagnostic tests does the nurse understand measures the pressures in the cardiac chambers?

a)

Cardiac catheterization

b)

Echocardiogram

c)

ECG

d)

Exercise stress test

51.

____ is the accumulation of fluid in the legs of a person Hepatic congestion

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Ascites

52.

Swelling of the abdomen as a result of fluid accumulation is known as:

a)

Hepatic congestion

b)

Peripheral edema

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Tachycardia

e)

Ascites

53.

Which of the following treatments is NOT a treatment for Heart failure?

a)

Antidiuretics

b)

Inotropes

c)

Diertics

d)

Beta Blockers

e)

ACE Inhibitors

54.

How does tachycardia affect blood flow from the heart?

a)

It gives a faster rate which causes less blood to be pumped out per circulation

b)

It gives a slower rate which causes more blood to be pumped out per circulation

c)

It gives a faster rate which causes more blood to be pumped out per circulation

d)

It gives a slower rate which causes less blood to be pumped out per circulation

55.

How does valvular stenosis affect valves?

a)

The valves become expand and soften

b)

The valves become narrow and soft

c)

The valves become narrow and hard

d)

The valves expand and harden

56.

What is a heart attack?

a)

A minor heart defect

b)

A blockage in the arteries going to the heart

c)

A blockage in the lungs

d)

None of these answers

57.

Symptoms of a heart attack can include:

a)

Chest pain, sharp or dull

b)

Nausea and heartburn

c)

Fatigue

d)

All of these answers

58.

The substance that builds up in the arteries is called:

a)

Plasma

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Plaque

d)

Gingivitis

59.

The most common cause of a heart attack is:

a)

Coronary artery disease

b)

Stroke

c)

Diabetes

d)

None of these

60.

The mitral valve separates the

a)

Right ventricle from the pulmonary artery

b)

Left atrium from the left ventricle

c)

Left ventricle from the aorta

d)

Right atrium from the right ventricle

61.

Treatment for a heart attack includes:

a)

Aspirin and nitroglycerin

b)

Bypass surgery

c)

Calling 911

d)

All of the answers

62.

Which valve allows for blood to flow from the heart and into the body general circulation?

a)

Pulmonary valve

b)

Mitral valve

c)

Aortic valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

63.

Which valve facilitates blood flow into the lungs

a)

Mitral valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Aortic valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

64.

A patient has severe shortness of breath while they sleep. What is their likely diagnosis?

a)

Pulmonary hypertension

b)

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

c)

Orthopnea

d)

Cyanosis

e)

Dyspnea

65.

What is the primary cause of myocarditis?

a)

Coronary heart disease

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Stroke

d)

Bacterial or viral infection

66.

What are the 2 common treatment options for myocarditis

a)

Medication and rest

b)

Medication and surgery

c)

Complete rest and then physical therapy

d)

Physical therapy and medications

67.

Myocarditis is a condition involving inflammation of what?

a)

Outer layer of cardiac muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle tissue

c)

Middle layer of cardiac muscle

d)

Cardiac arterial tissue

68.

What is a VAD?

a)

Venous automated defibrillator

b)

Ventricular assist defibrillator

c)

Ventricular assist device

d)

Vestibular automated device

69.

Patients with heart failure can have fluid accumulate in the lungs. What is this called?

a)

pneumonia

b)

asthma

c)

ascites

d)

pulmonary edema

70.

What are the 2 main basic symptoms of myocarditis

a)

Tightness in the chest and pain

b)

Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath

c)

Pain and shortness of breath

d)

Increased respiration rate and profuse sweating

71.

What are signs of atropine overdose?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Hot, dry skin and thirst

c)

Dizziness and dilated pupils

d)

Delirium and coma

72.

Which is a normal side effect of atropine?

a)

Delirium

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Dry mouth

d)

Palpitations

73.

Which of the heart’s chambers is the thickest and most muscular

a)

Right ventricle

b)

Left atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right atrium

74.

Which of the following separates the right side of the heart from the left?

a)

Chamber

b)

Valve

c)

Pericardium

d)

Septum

75.

Select the correct impulse pattern of the cardiac conduction system

a)

Purkinje fibers→SA node→Right and left bundle branches→AV node

b)

Pacemaker→Bundle of His→SA node→Bundle branches

c)

SA node→AV node→Bundle of His→Right and left bundle branches→Purkinje fibers

d)

Pacemaker→SA node→Bundle of His→AV node→Purkinje fibers

76.

Each normal heartbeat is initiated by which of the following?

a)

Bundle of His in the interventricular septum

b)

Sympathetic nerves from the spinal cord

c)

Sinoatrial node in the wall of the right atrium

d)

Cardiac center in the medulla

77.

During one cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs?

a)

Atria and ventricles contract simultaneously

b)

Ventricles contract twice for every contraction of the atria

c)

Atria contract first , followed by the ventricles

d)

Ventricles contract first, followed by the atria

78.

The heart receives blood returning from the body through which of the following?

a)

Vena cava

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Right coronary artery

d)

Aorta

79.

A client reports being diagnosed with a murmur. Which of the following phenomena can be used to explain what might be the cause of this occurrence?

a)

Ineffective closure of the valves

b)

Inappropriate closure of the ventricular lock

c)

The entrance of the blood into partially contracted chambers

d)

Inadequate levels of blood as it leaves the atria

80.

The diagnostic test that allows observation of real time movement via radiography is:

a)

Echocardiography

b)

Angiography

c)

Fluoroscopy

d)

Cardiac monitoring

81.

During a stress ECG, a client reports chest pain and the test is stopped. When the client is asked to undergo a heart catheterization, the client appears very apprehensive and worried. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take to reduce the client's anxiety?

a)

Explain how well others have done after having this procedure.

b)

Explain how coronary artery disease is treated.

c)

Avoid discussing the heart catheterization until the client is relaxed.

d)

Listen to the client express feelings about the situation

82.

Which of the following risk factors is considered non modifiable?

a)

Sedentary lifestyle

b)

Age

c)

Dietary intake

d)

Hyperlipidemia

83.

In evaluating your patient's risk factors for cardiovascular disease, you identify that the following is a modifiable risk factor that he possesses:

a)

Age

b)

Hyperlipidemia

c)

Family history of cardiovascular disease

d)

Active lifestyle

84.

Wave that precedes a QRS complex

a)

T wave

b)

U wave

c)

P wave

d)

J wave

85.

Which of the following does digoxin affect in the body?

a)

sodium-calcium pump

b)

potassium-chloride pump

c)

sodium-potassium pump

d)

calcium-potassium pump