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BIOnline exam

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identity the correct sequence

a)

a) species-phylum- order -Kingdom- Domain

b)

b) genus-species -order -Domain- Kingdom

c)

c)species -genus- order- phylum- Kingdom- Domain

d)

d) class- order -phylum- Kingdom- Domain

2.

Bentham and Hook published the book is

a)

genera plantarum

b)

species plantarum

c)

systema naturae

d)

both a and b

3.

ICBN'S twelfth meeting held at

a)

USA

b)

USSR

c)

UK

d)

Britain

4.

According to ICBN ,which is correct?

a)

binomials are printed in italic and underlined

b)

lf generic and specific names are same it is called ambiguous name

c)

if naming of plant is from error source it is called tautonym

d)

original description of plant should be

latin translation

5.

The suffix that denotes the taxonomic category 'Family' in plants would be

a)

-ae

b)

-aceae

c)

-ales

d)

-nae

6.

In__of higher animals and plants__and ___are mutually__events.

a)

All, cell division, replacement, dependent

b)

Majority, growth, reproduction, exclusive

c)

All, growth, cell division, dependent

d)

Majority ,cell division, replacement,exclusive

7.

The scientific term for biological classification categories is the:

a)

Species

b)

Taxon

c)

Phylum

d)

Domain

8.

Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus

a)

species

b)

family

c)

class

d)

division

9.

Who modified the cell theory ?

a)

Robert Hooke

b)

Schawnn and Schielden

c)

Rudolf Virchow

d)

Singer and Nicolson

10.

The cell organelle related to metamorphosis is ?

a)

ER

b)

Golgi Complex

c)

Lysosome

d)

Ribosome

11.

Cell Membrane in eukaryotes comprises of

a)

Carbohydrates only

b)

Proteins and lipids only

c)

Lipids only

d)

Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids

12.

Cell Membrane in eukaryotes comprises of

a)

Carbohydrates only

b)

Proteins and lipids only

c)

Lipids only

d)

Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids

13.

Pick out prokaryote one ?

a)

Marchantia

b)

Amoeba

c)

Ustilago

d)

Puccinia

14.

The cytoskeleton is important because

a)

It gives the cell its shape

b)

It strengthens the cells

c)

It helps the cells move and divide

d)

All of the above

15.

Which of the following is the best description of an element.

a)

a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances

b)

a naturally occurring mineral made of more than one substance

c)

a small particle made with a specific chemical composition

d)

a collection of atoms that have different abilities when joined together

16.

Centrosome and centrioles play a major role in

a)

Cell movement

b)

Cell division

c)

Cell contraction

d)

Cell membrane

17.
Movement of anything from an area of high concentration to low concentration.
a)
Diffusion
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
d)
Passive Transport
18.
A solution that contains more dissolved substances than the cell it surrounds.  Water leaves the cell. Cell shrinks.
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Osmosis
c)
Hypertonic
d)
Passive transport
19.
Movement of particles into a cell that does not require energy.  From high to low.
a)
Passive transport
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
d)
Endocytosis
20.
Capillary action is the result of adhesion. Which aspect of water is responsible for this?
a)
Nonpolar covalent bonds that enable water to dissolve other substances
b)
Polar covalent bonds that join molecules of water to other substances
c)
Hydrogen bonds between water and another substance
d)
Ionic bonds that enable electrons to flow through water and into another substance
21.
Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water moderates temperature.
22.
What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent that it is often called the "universal solvent?"
a)
Purity
b)
Polarity and cohesion
c)
High heat capacity
d)
Expansion upon freezing
23.
What property of water helps to moderate earth's temperature?
a)
adhesion
b)
chohesion
c)
Specific heat capacity
d)
Latent heat of vaporization
24.
Examples of water soluble vitamins are ___________.
a)
Vitamin A & C
b)
Vitamin B & D
c)
Vitamin B & C
d)
VItamin E and K
25.
___________ is needed to heal cuts and wounds and to absorb iron from dark green vegetables. 
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin B-group
c)
Vitamin C
d)
Vitamin D
26.
_____________ cannot be stored in the body  and gets excreted through urine when not used immediately. 
a)
Water-soluble vitamins
b)
Trace minerals
c)
Fat-soluble vitamins
d)
Major Minerals
27.

What is the function of SA node?

a)

Spread impulse to both atrium

b)

Generate electrical impulse

c)

Spread impulse to AV node

28.

How long does impulse delayed at AV node

a)

0.01s

b)

0.1s

c)

1.0s

d)

0.001s

29.

In a DNA if A is 20% then what is the quantity of C in the same DNA????

a)

20

b)

60

c)

40

d)

30

30.
In which two layers of the leaf are most active  chloroplasts found?
a)
Palisade and spongy mesophyll
b)
Epidermis and stomata
c)
xylem and phloem
d)
Roots and spongy mesophyll
31.

Energy is released from ATP when

a)

a phosphate group is added

b)

adenine bonds to ribose

c)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

d)

a phosphate group is removed

32.

Which of the following results in the storage of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP cycle?

a)

The breaking of the bond between the 5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate group

b)

The addition of a phosphate group

c)

The removal of a phosphate group

d)

The addition of glucose

33.

"Post office" of the cell that packages proteins and fats:

a)

ER

b)

Golgi Body

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cytoplasm

34.
Sends messages from the nucleus to different parts of the cell
a)
Ribosome
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
Endoplasmic reticulum
d)
Vacuole
35.

The 3 parts of the Cell Theory are...?

a)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from other cells

b)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of dance and vibes in living things

All cells are destroyed from other aliens

c)

All living things are composed of Jell-O

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from factories in Canada

d)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells do karate and practice eating whole pies in their free time

All cells are produced from other cells

36.
Robert Hooke, Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Theodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow, and Matthias Schliden were all responsible for what theory?
a)
The Theory of Gravity
b)
The Theory of Relativity
c)
The Cell Theory
d)
The Theory of Continental Drift
37.

N- linked Glycosylation, O- linked glycosylation and porting sorting occurs in ?

a)

All in Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum, Nucleus and Ribosomes, respectively

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi Bodies and Lysosomes, respectively

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi Bodies and Golgi Bodies, respectively

e)

All in Golgi Bodies

38.

Who Proposed the term endoplasmic Reticulum ?

a)

Porter and Kallman

b)

De Duve

c)

Singer Nicolson

d)

Robert Hook

39.

Which element of ER contains Ribosomes ?

a)

Cisternae

b)

Vesicles

c)

Both A and B

d)

None Of Above

40.

GERL System involved organelles ....

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Golgi Bodies

d)

All of Above

41.

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum is found in ..

a)

Liver cells

b)

Muscle cells

c)

Kidney cells

d)

Neurons

42.

Which of the following statements are true regarding ER.?

a)

SER is involved in lipid synthesis

b)

ER provides structural framework to the cell

c)

ER act as intracellular transporting system.

d)

All of the above

43.

Which is important in the creation and storage of lipids and steroids ?

a)

Smooth ER

b)

Rough ER

c)

Lysosome

d)

Mitochondria

44.

What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? What option is more correct??

a)

formed by the extensions (in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae) of plasma membrane into the cell, involved in DNA replication.

b)

formed by the extensions (in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae) of plasma membrane into the cell, help in respiration, and secretion processes

c)

In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, there are other membranous extensions into the cytoplasm called chromatophores which contain pigments and distribution to daughter cells.

d)

formed by the extensions (in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae) of plasma membrane into the cell, involved in cell wall formation, DNA replication, respiration, secretion processes to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.

45.
What group has a long tube-like body with many sections and breathes through its skin?
a)
Segmented Worms
b)
Arthropods
c)
Echinoderms
d)
Sponges 
46.
What group has a body that goes out from the middle and breathes with tube feet?
a)
Segmented Worms
b)
Arthropods
c)
Echinoderms 
d)
Mollusk
47.
This group is made of filter feeders and has lots of pores in its body:
a)
Segmented Worms
b)
Arthropods
c)
Mollusks
d)
Sponges
48.
This group has jointed legs and segmented bodies and exoskeletons:
a)
Segmented Worms
b)
Mollusks
c)
Sponges
d)
Arthropods
49.

Common characteristics of Echinoderms are

a)

Tubed feet, no shell

b)

spiky skin, have an exoskeloton

c)

symmetrical body usually 5 sided, are plants

d)

tubed feet, symmetrical body usually 5 sided

50.

What percent of animals in the sea do invertebrates make up?

a)

5%

b)

90%

c)

97%

d)

75%

51.

Which group are all the same classification?

a)

lobster, coral, hermit crab

b)

Shrimp, jellyfish , bluebottle

c)

mussel, octopus, scallop

d)

Sea cucumbers, starfish, pipi

52.
These types of plants are able to grow taller because of the added support and faster nutrient transport of xylem and phloem.
a)
Seedless plants
b)
Vascular plants
c)
Seeded plants
d)
Nonvascular plants
53.

Which statement best describes a gymnosperm?

a)

A nonvascular plant with roots, stems, and leaves.

b)

A low-growing nonvascular plant lacking true roots.

c)

A vascular plant that uses spores to reproduce.

d)

A vascular plant that uses pollen to produce seeds that are not enclosed in protective fruits.

54.

Seedless vascular plants reproduce by...

a)

Seeds

b)

Spores

c)

Pollen

d)

Rhyzoid

55.

Select all plant groups that are seedless vascular.

a)

mosses

b)

horsetails

c)

hornworts

d)

club mosses

e)

ferns

56.

Which of the following is NOT a characterstic of an organism in the plant kingdom?

a)

has a cell wall and chlorophyll

b)

are autotrophs

c)

are heterotrophs

d)

don’t physically move from one place to another

57.

A Green plant must be able to perform three different processes in order to survive. What are they?

a)

respiration, perspiration, photosynthesis

b)

transpiration,respiration,photosynthesis

c)

chlorophyll,photosynthesis, perspiration

d)

Transcription,photosynthesis, chloroplast

58.

What caused the Gulf of Mexico's Dead Zone?

a)

over-fishing

b)

a lot of trash flowed there

c)

excess nutrients from farm fertilizer

d)

a nuclear test was done there during WW2

59.

In group living species, the term “dilution effect” refers to

a)

(A) reduction in aggression among individuals with increasing group size

b)

(B) reduction in the mobility of individuals with increasing group size

c)

(C) reduction in the reproductive success of individuals with increasing group size

d)

(D) reduction in the risk of predation of individuals with increasing group size

60.

Which of the following diversity indices best captures species turnover across habitats?

a)

(A) alpha

b)

(B) beta

c)

(C) gamma

d)

(D) delta

61.

A duck egg is removed from its mother’s nest and incubated by a barnyard hen. The duckling hatches out in the presence of the barnyard hen and stays in her nest. After a couple of days, the duckling is presented with a choice between its biological mother and the hen that incubated it. The duckling approaches and follows the hen.

This set of observations demonstrates the phenomenon of

a)

(A) habituation

b)

(B) imprinting

c)

(C) instinct

d)

(D) sensitization

62.

Forager bees communicate the distance of a food source using a waggle dance upon return to the hive. It is observed that the number of waggles of a dance increases linearly with the distance to the food source. This tells us that the

a)

(A) number of waggles and distance to food source is negatively correlated

b)

(B) number of waggles and distance to food source is positively correlated

c)

(C) number of waggles affects the distance to the food source

d)

(D) number of waggles and the distance to the food source are uncorrelated

63.

A non-venomous, non-toxic species of snake is brightly coloured and closely resembles a venomous snake species in the same habitat. This is most likely a case of

a)

(A) Aggressive mimicry

b)

(B) Batesian mimicry

c)

(C) Masquerade

d)

(D) Müllerian mimicry

64.

The value of the resting membrane potential of a typical neuron is closest to the equilibrium potential of which of the following ions?

a)

(A) Ca++

b)

B) K+

c)

(C) Mg++

d)

D) Na+

65.

In which of the following mating systems is sperm competition likely to evolve?

a)

(A) Monoandry

b)

(B) Monogamy

c)

(C) Polyandry

d)

(D) Polygyny

66.

For a species, assuming a relatively short time scale and no evolution, increased interspecific competition will result in a

a)

(A) larger fundamental niche

b)

(B) larger realized niche

c)

(C) smaller fundamental niche

d)

(D) smaller realized niche

67.

In which of the following plants is the dominant stage of the life cycle haploid?

a)

(A) Cycads

b)

(B) Ferns

c)

(C) Gymnosperms

d)

(D) Mosses

68.

Natural populations often deviate from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. One possible reason for this is

a)

(A) no migration

b)

(B) no selection

c)

(C) random mating

d)

(D) small population sizes

69.

Which of the following is NOT typically a characteristic of early successional pioneer plants relative to late successional plants in a tropical rain forest?

a)

(A) Higher shade tolerance

b)

(B) Smaller seed size

c)

(C) Smaller size at maturity

d)

(D) Wind dispersed seeds

70.

Which of the following is NOT an example of phenotypic plasticity?

a)

(A) Density-dependent swarming behavior in locusts

b)

(B) Increase in DDT resistance in mosquitos

c)

(C) Seasonal variation in plumage colouration in birds

d)

(D) Temperature-dependent sex determination in turtles

71.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of r-selected species?

a)

(A) Early sexual maturity

b)

(B) High juvenile mortality

c)

(C) High parental care

d)

(D) Large number of offspring

72.

Which of the following is NOT essential for a behavioural trait to evolve by natural selection?

a)

(A) The behavioural trait differs among individuals

b)

(B) The behavioural trait is determined at least in part by genes

c)

(C) The behavioural trait influences reproductive success

d)

(D) The behavioural trait is determined entirely by genes

73.

Consider a diploid population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. For a locus with two alleles, the frequency of the A1A1 genotype is 0.01. The frequency of heterozygotes

A1A2 is (a)   (answer up to 2 decimal places).

74.

The latitudinal diversity gradient is defined as the decrease in the number of species from the equator to the poles. This can result from

a)

(A) greater energy input at the poles

b)

(B) greater land mass at the poles

c)

(C) greater seasonal variation at the poles

d)

(D) greater speciation rates at the poles

75.

The figure below shows mean annual temperatures (°C) and mean annual precipitation (cm per year) from multiple sites in four regions in India.

From this climatic information, we can infer that P, Q, R, and S are LIKELY to be located in:

a)

(A) P: Andaman, Q: Meghalaya, R: Ladakh, S: Rajasthan

b)

(B) P: Ladakh, Q: Rajasthan, R: Andaman, S: Meghalaya

c)

(C) P: Meghalaya, Q: Ladakh, R: Rajasthan, S: Andaman

d)

(D) P: Rajasthan, Q: Andaman, R: Meghalaya, S: Ladakh

76.

For a pair of interacting species, increased specialization and decreased niche breadth in both species would result in

a)

(A) decreased intraspecific competition and increased interspecific competition

b)

(B) decreased intraspecific competition and decreased interspecific competition

c)

(C) increased intraspecific competition and increased interspecific competition

d)

(D) increased intraspecific competition and decreased interspecific competition

77.

A study examined the effect of neighbours on plants when grown at low or high altitudes. The researcher measured Relative Neighbour Effect (RNE), defined as: RNE = Biomass with neighbours – Biomass without neighbours.

The results shown above demonstrate

a)

(A) competition at both altitudes

b)

(B) competition at high altitudes, and facilitation at low altitudes

c)

(C) competition at low altitudes, and facilitation at high altitudes

d)

(D) facilitation at both altitudes

78.

The plot below shows the fitness of two traits as a function of relative frequency of Trait-1 in the population. The solid line represents the fitness of Trait-1 and doted lines represents the fitness of Trait-2. Which of the following is most likely to be true?

a)

(A) Either Trait-1 or Trait-2 will take over the population.

b)

(B) Only Trait-1 will take over the population.

c)

(C) Trait-1 and Trait-2 will always reach a coexistence equilibrium.

d)

(D) Trait-1 and Trait-2 will oscillate over time.

79.

P to T are islands of different sizes at different distances from the mainland, where the distance X<Y<Z. The area of island P>Q>R=S=T. Assuming that there is migration only from the mainland to islands and not between islands, which of the following is NOT true about the species richness on these islands?

a)

(A) P>Q>R

b)

(B) R>S>T

c)

(C) Q>T>S

d)

(D) S<Q<P

80.

Most terrestrial ecosystems have a pyramidal structure of standing biomass across trophic levels where biomass of producers > primary consumers > secondary consumers > tertiary consumers.

However, some aquatic ecosystems have an inverted pyramidal structure where the standing biomass of producers < primary consumers. An explanation for this is:

a)

(A) greater efficiency of primary consumers in aquatic ecosystems

b)

(B) low turnover rates of aquatic producers relative to consumers

c)

(C) low nutrient concentrations in aquatic ecosystems

d)

(D) very high light limitation in aquatic ecosystems