wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

QCE Biology Unit 4 Topics 1 and 2

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
2.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
3.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
4.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
5.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
6.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
7.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
8.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white.  What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
9.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
10.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
11.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
12.
Brown fur color is dominant over black fur color. Which of the following is the actual genotype of ALL of the offspring in the next generation of this cross for fur color?
AA x aa
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
brown fur
13.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
14.
A bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and get the nectar/pollen inside.  Other insects cannot do this. This adaption is an example of........
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
15.

The large-scale events of speciation are called...

a)

macroevolution

b)

simplification

c)

adaptation

d)

microevolution

16.

Which of the following lines of evidence shows that whales are descended from a land-dwelling, four-legged ancestor?

a)

Whales have bone structures in their forelimbs and pelvis that are similar to those of terrestrial mammals

b)

Whale embyros have similar structure to embryos of land-dwelling mammals, birds, and reptiles.

c)

An analysis of DNA shows that whales' closest living relatives are hippopotamuses.

d)

A, B, and C

17.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of mutations in evolution

a)

Mutations are the raw material for evolution, but most mutations do not result in evolution.

b)

Most mutations result in a species becoming more dangerous or aggressive.

c)

An organisms can decide to mutate if the environment makes a mutation necessary for survival.

d)

Mutations are almost always beneficial for an individual.

18.

During microevolution, a(n) __________________ will become more or less common within a population.

a)

species

b)

allele

c)

ribosome

d)

fossil

19.

Which of the following is required for a population to diverge into two separate species?

a)

The two populations must have evolved different physical appearances.

b)

The two populations must have mutated at least 10 times.

c)

The two populations must have become reproductively isolated.

d)

The two populations must have evolved analogous structures.

20.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

21.

A speciation in which new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the SAME geographic region.

a)

Sympatric speciation

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Complex speciation

d)

Divergent speciation

22.

The emergence of new rivers or streams is a type of ____________ isolation.

a)

Temporal

b)

Mechanical

c)

Behavioral

d)

Geographic

23.
The death of every member of a species
a)
The flu
b)
epidemic
c)
extinct
d)
population
24.

Which are causes of speciation? Choose all that apply

a)

Isolation caused by mountains, rivers and man-made structures

b)

preference for different foods

c)

change in environment

d)

different mating behaviors

25.

Speciation that caused by breeding occurring at different time of the day is called

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

temporal isolation

c)

ecological isolation

d)

habitat isolation

26.
Which is necessary for speciation to occur?
a)
adaptation
b)
mass extinction
c)
isolation
d)
acquired traits
27.
The evolution of a new species from an existing species is ____.
a)
natural selection
b)
isolation
c)
speciation
d)
genetic variation
28.
What is a mass extinction?
a)
When all the species in a particular area on earth suddenly go extinct
b)
When multiple species from all over the earth suddenly go extinct 
c)
When one species goes extinct due to habitat changes
d)
When all life on earth is wiped out 
29.

Microevolution is the change in allele frequency in the gene pool of a population from generation to generation.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

Changes in allele frequencies occur by which of the following? (Read carefully!)

a)

non-random mating

b)

genetic drift

c)

natural selection

d)

mutation

e)

all of the above

31.

In small populations, individuals that carry a particular allele may leave more descendents than other individuals, just by random chance. This is known as

a)

mutation

b)

gene flow

c)

genetic drift

d)

natural selection

32.

When Canada geese migrate to a new area and join another population of Canada geese, this is an example of

a)

natural selection

b)

gene flow

c)

genetic drift

d)

mutation

33.

Natural selection works with variation that exists in a population. How does variation happen? (choose 2 answers)

a)

mutations

b)

new gene combinations from sexual reproduction

c)

mitosis

d)

cytokinesis

34.

In a population of lizards, only the lizards with the longest tails survive and reproduce. What type of selection is described?

a)

directional

b)

stabilizing

c)

disruptive

35.

In elephants, babies that are too big or too small do not survive. Only the average (middle) size baby elephants survive. What type of selection is this?

a)

directional

b)

stabilizing

c)

disruptive

36.

A population of finches have beak sizes from 5-10 cm. After a change in the environment, the population of finches splits so that only the smallest and largest beak birds survive. This is an example of what type of selection?

a)

directional

b)

stabilizing

c)

disruptive

37.

In the 1800s, hunters killed all but twenty of a large population of northern elephant seals

a)

genetic drift

b)

gene flow

38.

Mutations are random while natural selection is NOT

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive better in its environment?

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

homologous structure

d)

vestigial structure

40.

When organisms are better adapted to their environment they will survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less adapted. This process is called what?

a)

Selective breeding

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Cloning

d)

Evolution of all species

41.
T5. What does the image represent?
a)
Founder effect
b)
Bottleneck effect
c)
Mutation
d)
Natural Selection
42.
T4. Gentoo penguins will present a mate with a pebble that they find to attract a mate. Emperor penguins have a specific call and movement that they make to attract a mate. Which type of isolation do these penguins demonstrate?
a)
temporal isolation 
b)
behavioral isolation
c)
geographical isolation
d)
anatomical isolation
43.
T4. The lava released by a volcanic eruption separates two populations of a species of monkey. What does this represent?
a)
biological isolation
b)
geographical isolation
c)
temporal isolation
d)
anatomical isolation
44.
T5. What does the picture represent?
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Mutations
c)
Bottleneck effect
d)
Gene Flow
45.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
46.
Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
47.

In reproductive cloning, the egg cell of one organism is used by removing the __________ nucleus and then combining the __________ nucleus from a cell from a second individual. Once the cell starts to divide, it is placed in a surrogate mother.

a)

DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA

c)

haploid, diploid

d)

diploid, haploid

48.

Organisms that have foreign DNA inserted from a different species are called

a)

transgenic

b)

transmutated

c)

adenoviruses

d)

haploid

49.

In order to manipulate genetic material, DNA must be extracted from cells. What is the correct order of the process used to manipulate DNA?

a)

enzymes inactivate proteins, buffering compounds break-down cell, alcohol to bring out DNA

b)

gelatinous mass of DNA broken down using buffering compounds, alcohol to remove DNA, enzymes to inactivate proteins

c)

buffering compounds to break-down cell, enzymes to inactivate proteins, alcohol to bring out DNA

d)

none of the choices are correct

50.

The process where an electric current is used to separate nucleic acids based on size and is used in forensics is called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

cloning

c)

transgenic manipulation

d)

PCR

51.

The process used to make copies of DNA when not much is available and is often used in forensics is called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

cloning

c)

PCR

d)

transgenics

52.

Polymerase Chain Reaction

a)

Is used to make copies of specific regions of DNA

b)

Uses a special form of DNA polymerase and primers to copy DNA

c)

is used in crime scenes and paternity cases to compare DNA samples

d)

All of the choices are correct

e)

some of the choices are correct

53.

The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to

a)

Make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA

b)

Insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids

c)

Incorporate genes into viruses

d)

Make DNA from RNA

54.

A desired DNA segment is inserted into small circular DNA from prokaryotes called a __________ and then is inserted into a bacterial host and the resulting combination is called ____________.

a)

Virus, a eukaryote

b)

Plasmid, a eukaryote

c)

Plasmid, recombinant DNA

d)

Virion, recombinant DNA

55.

This seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gene cloning

c)

DNA ligase

d)

reverse transcriptase

56.

This cuts DNA molecules at specific locations

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

DNA ligase

c)

polymerase

d)

ATP

57.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
58.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
59.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
60.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
61.
Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
62.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
63.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
64.
Crossing over helps promote 
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
65.
Chromosomes exchange genetic material during 
a)
crossing over
b)
replication
c)
synthesis
d)
translation
66.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
67.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
68.
A human being has a somatic cell that has 46 chromosomes.  What is the haploid number found in a gamete?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
69
d)
92
69.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
70.

The monomers units of DNA and RNA are

a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

nucleotides

d)

fatty acids

71.

The signal that marks the end of a gene and causes transcription to stop is

a)

polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

a terminator

d)

methionine

72.

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linkage together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?

a)

polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

ribozyme

d)

reverse transcriptase

73.

The transfer of genetic info from DNA to RNA is called

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

initiation

d)

elongation

74.

Which of the following sequences best describes the flow of information that takes place when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?

a)

RNA-DNA-RNA-PROTEIN

b)

DNA-RNA-PROTEIN

c)

PROTEIN-RNA-DNA

d)

DNA-AMINO ACID-RNA-PROTEIN

75.

Translation consists of which of the following?

a)

conversion of genetic info from the language of nucleic acids to the language of proteins

b)

conversion of genetic info from DNA to RNA

c)

addition of nucleotides to a DNA template

d)

DNA replication

76.

Which of the following is required for translation to occur?

a)

energy

b)

ribosomes

c)

tRNA

d)

all of these

77.

During the process of translation, ____ matches a nucleic acid codon with the proper amino acid.

a)

a ribosome

b)

ATP

c)

polymerase

d)

mRNA

78.

When RNA is being made, the RNA base ____ always pairs with the base ___ in DNA.

a)

U-T

b)

T-G

c)

U-A

d)

A-U

79.

A mutagen is

a)

a gene that has an altered mutation

b)

something that causes a mutation

c)

any change in a nucleotide sequence of DNA

d)

the portion of the chromosome altered by the mutation

80.

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene is called

a)

a mutation

b)

a codon

c)

a translation

d)

an anticodon

81.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
82.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
83.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
84.
What is the correct mRNA strand from this DNA?
CAC-GTG-ACA-GCG
a)
GTG-CAC-TGT-CGC
b)
CAC-GUG-ACA-GCG
c)
GUG-CAC-UGU-CGC
85.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion

Similar Resources on Wayground

Plant & Animal Systems Review

86 questions

Plant & Animal Systems Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Bones of the Human Body

90 questions

Bones of the Human Body

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

Steele HS Anatomy & Physiology Midterm Review 2019

83 questions

Steele HS Anatomy & Physiology Midterm Review 2019

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

Orientation Quiz Review

82 questions

Orientation Quiz Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Batts Anatomy and Physiology Semester 1 Review

80 questions

Batts Anatomy and Physiology Semester 1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

2.1 through 2.4 IB Biology (No Water)

84 questions

2.1 through 2.4 IB Biology (No Water)

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Semester 2 Final

89 questions

Semester 2 Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 11th Grade

Body Systems

80 questions

Body Systems

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade