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Worksheets

Unit 1&2 Revision

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the difference between active and passive transport.

a)

Active does not need energy and passive uses ATP (energy)

b)

Active uses ATP (energy) and passive does not need energy

c)

Active stores transport proteins and passive releases

d)

Active uses hormones and passive does not

2.

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

When you are hot, your body sweats to cool you down. This means your temperature went above normal and your body sweats to counteract that change to bring you back to normal. What kind of feedback loop would this be?

a)

Linear Feedback Loop

b)

Positive Feedback Loop

c)

Neutral Feedback Loop

d)

Negative Feedback Loop

4.

Identify the responder to messages from the CNS.

a)

Receptor

b)

Effector

c)

CNS

d)

Nerves

5.

A hormone is

a)

A chemical

b)

A chemical messenger that relays messages

c)

A nervous signal

d)

A chemically balanced substrate that stimulates growth

6.

An organism that has a stable body temperature should be classed as:

a)

Poikilotherm

b)

Endotherm

c)

Ectotherm

d)

Exotherm

7.

What is the reason why smaller mammals have higher metabolic rates?

a)

Higher SA:V ratios

b)

Lower Lifespans

c)

Lower SA:V ratios

d)

More Frequent Exposure to Predators

8.

Identify which response is considered a structural adaptation in maintaining body heat.

a)

Insulin production

b)

Hibernation

c)

Insulation

d)

Thermogenesis

9.

Identify which organism is an osmoconformer.

a)

Lobster

b)

Humans

c)

Giraffes

d)

Whale

10.

Endocytosis is a form of active transport that moves what type of molecule across the cell membrane?

a)

Water soluble

b)

Large and polar

c)

Fat soluble

d)

Large and non-polar

11.

Phagocytosis is the transport of...

a)

Large molecules

b)

Liquid particles

c)

Small insoluble molecules

d)

Solid particles

12.

The process depicted in the image is:

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Osmosis

13.

Draw a conclusion about the movement that would occur across the semipermeable membrane.

a)

The water will move right and the solutes will move left.

b)

The water will move left and the solutes will move right.

c)

The water will move right and the solutes will move right.

d)

The water will move right and the solutes will remain.

14.

The endosymbiotic theory is related to:

a)

Plants and animals

b)

Cell differentiation

c)

Prokaryotes and eukaryotes

d)

Symbiotic relationships

15.

Recall the 4 similarities between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

a)

Ribosomes, genetic material cytoplasm and cellular respiration.

b)

Ribosomes, cellular respiration, genetic material and cytoplasm.

c)

Genetic material, cytoplasm, cellular respiration and cell membrane.

d)

Cytoplasm, cell membrane, genetic material and ribosomes.

16.

The things that prokaryotes lack that eukaryotes have are:

a)

Membrane bound organelles, a nucleus, large size and DNA.

b)

Membrane bound organelles, plastids, a nucleus and large size.

c)

Membrane bound organelles and a nucleus.

d)

Membrane bound organelles, large size and a nucleus.

17.

The organelle responsible for removal of waste from cells is:

a)

The nephron

b)

The mitochondria

c)

The rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

The lysosome

18.

Name the inner folds of the mitochondria membrane.

(a)  

19.

Identify how the enzyme-substrate complex was formed.

a)

Lock and key model

b)

Induced fit model

c)

By lowering the activation energy required

d)

By lowering the energy given off from the reaction

20.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?

a)

The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.

b)

The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0

c)

The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8

d)

The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .

21.

Identify the reactants of cellular respiration.

a)

C6H12O6 + O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6O2

c)

6C6H12O6 + 6O2

d)

6C6H12O6 + O2

22.

In the presence of oxygen, cellular respiration takes place in two stages. They are:

a)

glycolysis, then fermentation

b)

electron transport chain, then fermentation

c)

glycolysis, then aerobic respiration

d)

glycolysis, then the Calvin cycle

23.

Plants need carbon dioxide from their environment to produce glucose during which stage of photosynthesis?

a)

The light-dependent stage

b)

The light-independent stage

c)

The electron transport chain

d)

ATP formation

24.

What molecule absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Grana

c)

Thylakoid

d)

Chlorophyll

25.

Which of the following cells has the ability to form any tissue in the body?

a)

blastoycst

b)

multipotent

c)

pluripotent

d)

totipotent

26.

The diagram shows the process of cell specialization from a single stem cell. Which of the following statements is true about the process of specialization.

a)

Specilized cells (blood, skin, nervous etc) cannot be produced from a single stem cell

b)

Even though all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they can specialize into different cell types

c)

Specilized cells are produced immediately following fertilization

d)

Sincce all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they must all have the same structure and function

27.

Which of the following are features of the alveoli that have adapted to help them with gas exchange?

a)

large surface area

b)

thick

c)

dry

d)

low blood flow

28.

Identify the features of villi that increase absorption in the digestive system.

a)

Small, thin, moist, large SA:V

b)

Thin, moist, large SA:V, a concentration gradient

c)

Thin, small, a concentration gradient, large SA:V

d)

Small, moist, large SA:V, a concentration gradient

29.

The end product of the digestive enzyme amylase is:

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

Glycerol

d)

Fatty Acids

30.

The different types of toxic nitrogenous waste are:

a)

ammonia and nitric acid

b)

ammonia, nitric acid and urea

c)

ammonia and urea

d)

urea and nitric acid

31.

Which hormone regulates water levels for osmoregulation?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

ADH

c)

HGH

d)

Serotonin

32.

Structures B and C are responsible for what process?

a)

Selective reabsorption

b)

Secretion

c)

Filtration

d)

Reabsorption

33.

When is O2 released into the atomsphere from a plant?

a)

During transpiration

b)

When the guard cells are flacid

c)

During the day

d)

When the temperature is high

34.

The purpose of the spongy mesophyll layer in a leaf is

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Water retention

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Light absorption

35.

Identify the 2 types cells in the xylem.

a)

tracheids and sieve plates

b)

tube cells and vessel elements

c)

sieve plates, tube cells and companion cells

d)

tracheids and vessel elements

36.

In the phloem, space is required for the transport of sugars and nutrients. The sieve tube cells have what special structure to aid this process?

a)

Become woody and strong to prevent bending

b)

Share cytoplasm

c)

Have a nucleus pushed to the side to allow for more space

d)

Have large vacuoles to store the sugars

37.

Water and dissolved minerals enter the root hairs of a plant via what process?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Osmosis

d)

Facilitated diffusion

38.

Adhesion is____________________________ while cohesion is ______________________

a)

the force of attraction between water molecules


the force of attraction between water and the sides of the tube

b)

the force of attraction between water and the sides of the tube


the force of attraction between water molecules

39.

You can increase the transpiration rate of a plant by:

a)

Increasing the humidity of the environment

b)

Increase the light availability

c)

Remove the wind

d)

Decrease the temperature

40.

Translocation is the movement of what through the phloem?

a)

Water

b)

Gulcose

c)

Starch

d)

Sucrose

41.

According to the feedback loop, what does high blood sugar promote?

a)

Insulin Uptake

b)

Insulin Release

c)

Glucagon Release

d)

Glycogen Uptake

42.

The "cause" for something to happen is the

a)

Effect

b)

Response

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Stimulus

43.

When someone is shivering, this is an example of what type of thermoregulatory response?

a)

Structural

b)

Behavioural

c)

Physiological

d)

Homeostatic Mechanism

44.

Which side of the diagram shows an anabolic reaction?

a)

Left side

b)

Right side

c)

Both sides

d)

Neither side

45.

An example of an effector would be:

a)

The brain

b)

The skin

c)

The skeleton

d)

The hypothalamus

46.

Upregulation can be defined as:

a)

inhibiting cells from producing any hormones until a downregulation trigger is received.

b)

when a cell is prompted to produce less of a particular cellular component, such as enzymes or receptors.

c)

prompting cells to produce all possible hormones in a hormone flush.

d)

when a cell is prompted to produce more of a particular cellular component, such as enzymes or receptors.

47.

When a hormonal signal molecule binds to its receptor protein, the receptor becomes activated. The next step in signal transduction is..

a)

the signal is passed onto the molecule beside it, which then stimulates the next molecule etc.

b)

a response is elicited.

c)

sets of an intracellular signalling cascade.

d)

an effector protein receives the message.

48.

A xerophyte is typically found is what ecosystem?

a)

A reef ecosystem.

b)

A desert ecosystem.

c)

A rainforest ecosystem.

d)

A dry sclerophyll forest ecosystem.

49.

A halophyte is typically found in what type of ecosystem?

a)

A river ecosystem.

b)

A desert ecosystem.

c)

A rainforest ecosystem.

d)

A mangrove ecosystem.

50.

Antibodies are only effective against a specific pathogen because:

a)

The shape of the antibody is the same as the shape of the antigen on the pathogen

b)

Antibodies cause a primary immune response

c)

Antibodies cause the innate immune response

d)

The shape of the antibody is complementary to the shape of the antigen on the pathogen

51.

A person produces antibodies to influenza after vaccination. This is an example of:

a)

Natural (passive) immunity

b)

Artificial (passive) immunity

c)

Natural (active) immunity

d)

Artificial (active) immunity

52.

A pathogen that secretes enzymes into their host is:

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Protist

d)

Virus

53.

An example of a non-infectious disease would be

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Malaria

c)

A cold

d)

Tuberculosis

54.

The measure of the pathogenicity of an organism is:

a)

Infectivity

b)

Virulence

c)

Pathogenesis

d)

Toxicity

55.

The body recognises a disease by its

a)

pathogen

b)

antibodies

c)

antigens

d)

DNA

56.

Chemical secretions from the skin give protection against pathogens by

a)

preventing pathogens from attaching to the skin.

b)

creating an acidic environment preventing the pathogen from colonising.

c)

causing a pathogen to ingest them leading to lysis.

d)

creating an environment that doesn't allow pathogens to produce offspring.

57.

A role of macrophages is to

a)

create antibodies.

b)

stimulate B lymphocytes.

c)

produce natural t killer cells.

d)

identify the pathogen.

58.

The molecule that signals for the inflammatory response to begin is:

a)

cytokines

b)

chemotaxis

c)

macrophages

d)

chemokines

59.

Vasodilation is caused by

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Inflammation

d)

Prostaglandins

60.

The complement system is apart of which section of the immune response?

a)

Innate immune response

b)

Adapative immune response

61.

The key characteristic of a lymphocyte is

a)

that they are a stronger response.

b)

that they are a faster response.

c)

that they have a capacity to remember.

d)

all of the above.

62.

Antigens are produced by

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

T lymphocytes

c)

Pathogens

d)

Memory cells

63.

Identify which is not one of the four ways antibodies can lead to the destruction of pathogens

a)

stimulates inflammation

b)

activate the complement system

c)

opsonisation

d)

agglutination

64.

Identify the cell responsible for killing infected cells in cell-mediated immunity.

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Macrophages

d)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

65.

A key characteristic of a primary response to an invading pathogen would be

a)

rapid start

b)

slow start

c)

memory cells activated

d)

high production of antibodies

66.

Active immunity is

a)

immunity formed from antibodies being passed on from mother to foetus via the placenta

b)

immunity formed from the immune system being stimulated by a pathogen

c)

immunity formed from antibodies being passed from mothers to baby via breast milk

d)

immunity formed from antibody serum injection

67.

Vaccines are considered

a)

active immunity

b)

passive immunity

68.

Transmission of disease is not facilitated by

a)

global travel

b)

mass gatherings

c)

good personal hygiene

d)

slums

69.

An endemic is considered

a)

a disease that is uncommon and irregular

b)

a disease that spreads to multiple continents or throughout the world

c)

a increase in number of cases that is above what is considered normal

d)

a disease at a relatively constant rate

70.

Mechanisms of transmission

a)

affect the pathogens ability to attach to it's host

b)

affect the pathogens ability to persist in a host

c)

affect the pathogens ability to spread

d)

affect the hosts ability to move around

71.

Herd immunity is when

a)

a small population isolate and never get the disease

b)

half of the community is immune and the other half are susceptible to the disease

c)

some of the population are immunised and some are not against the disease

d)

a large portion of the population is immune to the disease and too few are susceptible.

72.

Which of the following is not a strategy to prevent the transmission of disease?

a)

Festivals for personal hygiene

b)

Contact tracing

c)

Quarantine

d)

Temperature screening