wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Bio 2 Semester review

Total questions: 156

Worksheet time: 39hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ionic bond form between two or more

a)

Molecules

b)

compounds

c)

cations

d)

ions

2.

Which of these regions of the periodic table will have the least reactive elements?

a)

Left column

b)

middle column

c)

right column

d)

bottom row

3.

What is an atom with an unfilled outer shell likely to do with other atoms?

a)

dissociate

b)

intermingle

c)

react

d)

repel

4.

What type of atom tends to be the most reactive

a)

one with a filled outer shell of electrons

b)

one that requires one electron to have filled the outer shell

c)

one that requires two electrons to have filled the outer shell

d)

one with no electrons in the outer shell

5.

the list below shows the number of valence electrons in various atoms. Based on this information, which is the best conclusion about the atoms? atom x: 1: 1 valence electron; atom y: 7 valence electrons; atom z: 8 valence electrons.

a)

Atom x is more stable than atom z

b)

Atom x is more stable than atom y.

c)

Atom y is more stable than atom z.

d)

Atom z is more stable than atom y.

6.

How many naturally occurring elements are there?

a)

71

b)

92

c)

103

d)

118

7.

Of the group of elements below, which are most likely to gain electrons to become anions

a)

Alkali Metal

b)

Boron Group

c)

Halogen

d)

Transition Metal

8.

Which of the following is correct regarding the chemical bond between the hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a water molecule?

a)

results in an unusually strong bond

b)

results in a nonpolar molecule of water

c)

forms by a shared pair of electrons between hydrogen and oxygen

d)

forms between the neutral poles of hydrogen and oxygen

9.

A student drew the following diagram of an atom. Which statement best explains the inaccuracy in her diagram?

a)

It does not include a bond

b)

it only illustrates one type of atom

c)

the neutron is too small

d)

The proton is in the wrong location

10.

Which group of elements is most likely to lose electrons to become cations?

a)

Alkali Metal

b)

Boron Group

c)

Halogen

d)

Transition Metal

11.

What type of bond occurs between atoms with similar electronegativities?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Ionic

c)

nonpolar covalent

d)

polar covalent

12.

In a covalent bond, electrons are

a)

gained

b)

lost

c)

shared

d)

transferred

13.

Suppose atom X and atom Y are electrically neutral. If atom X has two protons, and atom Y has four protons, what can you conclude about X and Y?

a)

Atom Y has twice as many electrons as atom X

b)

Atoms X and Y come form different elements

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

14.

Why do polar covalent bonds result in partial charges on either end of the bond?

a)

Electrons are pulled toward the more electronegative atom.

b)

Electrons are pushed away from the more electronegative atom.

c)

Electrons are shared only with the electronegative atom

d)

Electrons are transferred to the more electronegative atom

15.

Which of the following exerts the greatest influence on holding electrons of a helium atom in their shells?

a)

electromagnetic force

b)

gravitational force

c)

hydrophobic attraction

d)

magnetic pull

16.

Why are hydrogen bonds considered to be weak bonds?

a)

It takes relatively little energy to break these bonds.

b)

The compounds that are held by hydrogen bonds are not strong

c)

They only occur between hydrogen and another small element

d)

They only form between nonstructural compounds.

17.

Which of the following particles is not found in the nucleus of the atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

None of the above

18.

In a polar covalent bond between a sulfur atom and two chlorine atoms, around which element(s) do the valence electrons spend most of their time

a)

chlorine atoms

b)

evenly between sulfur and chlorine atoms

c)

sulfur atoms

d)

cannot be determined

19.

Which pairing will most likely form an ionic bond?

a)

Carbon and Fluorine

b)

Fluorine and Chlorine

c)

Sodium and Chlorine

d)

Sodium and Carbon

20.

Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are two isotopes of carbon that have different numbers of neutrons. Which of the following properties would you expect to be different between carbon-12 and carbon-14?

a)

electrical charge

b)

atomic mass

c)

chemical properties

d)

all of the above

21.

Which type of atom is LEAST stable?

a)

one with an empty outer shell of electrons

b)

one with filled outer shell of electrons

c)

one that needs one electron to fill its outer shell of electrons

d)

one that needs two or more electrons to fill its outer shell of electrons

22.

Some naturally occurring elements have been known since antiquity. Others were only discovered in the last century. Which is NOT a reason why some elements took longer to discover?

a)

Some elements are very rare

b)

Some elements exist only in compounds with other elements

c)

Some elements differ only in number of neutrons they have

d)

Some elements have very similar properties

23.

How many have chemical bonds are formed when hydrogen and oxygen atoms join to make one molecule of water?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

not enough information given

24.

Which of the following best explains why helium, shown in the diagram, does not typically form chemical bonds with other atoms or compounds?

a)

It only has two protons and two neutrons.

b)

It has a low atomic mass.

c)

It has filled outer shell with two electrons

d)

it is missing six electrons

25.

A cation has _________ charge.

a)

a negative

b)

a negative or positive

c)

no

d)

a positive

26.

Which of the following about compounds is true?

a)

Compounds are chemical substances.

b)

Compounds form between two or more elements

c)

both A and B

d)

neither A nor B

27.

A sodium atom has 11 electrons. If the sodium atom loses one electron, how many total energy levels will it have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

28.

Hydrogen gas is NOT a compound. Based on this information alone, what can you infer about hydrogen gas?

a)

It is always composed of one atom.

b)

It can only form through ionic bonds.

c)

It is only composed of a single element

d)

It can easily be broken down into simpler substances.

29.

Magnesium (a metal) and oxygen (a nonmetal) combine to form magnesium oxide (MgO). The atoms are held together by strong electrostatic attractions between the positive and negative charges of the atoms. Which type of bond holds these atoms together?

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

ionic

d)

polar covalent

30.

Which of the following statements supports the idea that an atom of carbon and an atom of oxygen CANNOT form a nonpolar covalent bond?

a)

The two atoms are hydrophobic

b)

The two atoms have no charge seperation

c)

This type of bond only occurs between atoms of the same element.

d)

This type of bond can never be formed with a carbon atom.

31.

If an uncharged atom with three electrons loses one electron, what is the net charge on the resulting ion?

a)

+4

b)

+1

c)

-1

d)

-4

32.

The electrons in a nonpolar covalent bond are

a)

gained.

b)

lost.

c)

shared equally.

d)

shared unequally.

33.

Two atoms are the same element if they have the same ______.

a)

atomic number

b)

number of neutrons

c)

charge

d)

number of electron shells.

34.

Hydrogen bond form between hydrogen and what type of atom?

a)

electronegative

b)

electropositive

c)

uncharged

d)

none of the above

35.

Which of the following statements is a reason to classify a compound as inorganic?

a)

the compound is a flammable gas

b)

the product is not produced or consumed by living things

c)

the product is able to dissolve from a liquid to a solid

d)

the compound only contains hydrogen and oxygen

36.

Which of the following molecules is is analogous to an amino acid?

a)

a phospholipid

b)

a monosaccharide

c)

a fatty acid

d)

a carbohydrate

37.

ATP transports energy

a)

from nucleic acids to enzymes

b)

from exergonic reactions to endergonic reactions

c)

from the nucleus to the cell

d)

from endergonic reactions to exergonic reactions

38.

Which of the following is an accurate statement about proteins as compared with lipids and carbohydrates?

a)

Lipids have more structural roles than lipids and carbohydrates?

b)

Proteins are a more important energy source than lipids or carbohydrates

c)

Proteins are not organic whereas lipids and carbohydrates are organic.

d)

Proteins have a wider variety of functions compared to lipids or carbohydrates

39.

The graph shows the progress of a chemical reaction and without presence of an enzyme.

a)

The presence of the enzyme decreases the activation energy.

b)

The presence of the enzyme decreases the change in free energy.

c)

The presence of the enzyme decreases the energy of the products

d)

The presence of the enzyme prevents the reaction from progressing.

40.

Which of the following statements about organic and inorganic compounds is false

a)

Living tissues are made up almost entirely of organic compounds

b)

Scientists can synthesize organic compounds in the laboratory

c)

Inorganic compounds are not found in living things

d)

Inorganic compounds may sometimes contain carbon

41.

Which of the following elements is not a component of carbohydrates?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

Hydrogen

42.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is false?

a)

Enzymes are made up of amino acids

b)

Enzymes make otherwise slow reactions proceed more quickly.

c)

Enzymes provide energy for endergonic reactions

d)

Enzymes are usually specific for chemical reactions they catalyze

43.

Which of the following comparisons between the major macromolecules is false?

a)

Carbohydrates are lipids both store energy

b)

Proteins and nucleic acids both store information

c)

Proteins and carbohydrates both have roles in structural support

d)

Nucleic acids and amino acids both contain monosaccharides

44.

Which of the following statements about inorganic compounds is false?

a)

they are composed of mainly atoms other than carbon

b)

they are typically produced by living organisms

c)

they are not produced by living organisms

d)

metals and rocks contain inorganic compounds

45.

Which of the following is an example of an inorganic compound?

a)

CH4

b)

C6 H6

c)

C6 H12 06

d)

H20

46.

Enzymes catalyze chemical reactions by ______

a)

acting as substrates

b)

lowering the activation energy of the reaction

c)

removing waste products

d)

generating heat

47.

Proteins and nucleic acids are polymers made up of smaller molecules called monomers. Which of these best represents the monomers of a protein.

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Lipids and carbohydrates differ in which of the following fundamental respects?

a)

lipids are hydrophobic and carbohydrates are hydrophilic

b)

lipids are inorganic and carbohydrates are organic

c)

lipids store energy and carbohydrates store information

d)

lipids are structurally important and carbohydrates are not

49.

Which labeled drawing shows the structure of part of a protein?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

A useful model for enzyme action is the:

a)

amino acid chain model

b)

double helix model

c)

ball and socket model

d)

the lock and key model

51.

What is the significance of the bond that forms to convert ADP to ATP?

a)

This bond is particularly strong and difficult to break

b)

This bond is very easy to form and releases energy when formed

c)

This bond is a high-energy bond.

d)

This bond binds an inorganic molecule to an organic molecule

52.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct? Enzymes :

a)

are only found in the digestive system

b)

only split chemical substances into smaller compounds

c)

are catalysts

d)

are nucleic acids

53.

What would likely happen if a cell ran out of ATP?

a)

The chemical reactions inside that cell would slow down and take much longer to proceed.

b)

Enzymes would no longer be able to catalyze any chemical reactions inside the cell

c)

Exergonic reactions could not take place inside the cell.

d)

Endergonic reactions could not take place inside the cell

54.

When two monosaccharides are joined to produce a disaccharide, water molecule (H20) is also produced

a)

C12 H24 012

b)

C12 H22 011

c)

C12 H26 013

d)

none of the above

55.

Based on the difference between saturated and unsaturated fats, the difference between monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats is _______

a)

monounsaturated fats have fewer C=C bonds than polyunsaturated fats

b)

monounsaturated fats have more hydrogen atoms than polyunsaturated fats

c)

monounsaturated fats have fewer carbon atoms (shorter chain lengths) than polyunsaturated fats

d)

monounsaturated fats are liquids at room temperature and polyunsaturated fats are solids at room temperature

56.

A student listed the following characteristics of a compound: dissolves in water, contains several carbon atoms, is electrically charged, is found as a solid. Which statement best explains why this compound cannot be inorganic?

a)

Most inorganic compounds do not dissolve in water.

b)

Most inorganic compounds do not contain several carbon atoms.

c)

Most inorganic compounds are never electrically charged.

d)

Most inorganic compounds are never found as solids .

57.

A student classified the compound C5 H9 O5 as carbohydrate. Which statement best explains why this classification is NOT correct?

a)

the hydrogen: carbon ratio is not 2:1

b)

the hydrogen: oxygen ratio is not 2:1

c)

the carbon: oxygen ratio is not 2:1

d)

the carbon: hydrogen ratio is not 2:1

58.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of organic compound?

a)

a compound that is used by living organisms

b)

a compound that is used by living organisms

c)

a compound that contains carbon atoms bound to other elements

d)

a solid, liquid, or gaseous compound that is found in living organisms

59.

Biomolecules are carbon-based molecules that make up living things. The diagram below shows the subunit of a biomolecule.

a)

it makes up the cell membrane

b)

it can be used to store genetic information.

c)

it provides usable chemical energy to the cells.

d)

it enables cells to communicate with each other.

60.

Which is not a way that an enzyme facilitates a chemical reaction?

a)

Enzymes change the spatial configuration of the substrates.

b)

Enzymes reduce the energy needed for a reaction to occur.

c)

Enzymes provide a replacement for rare substrates

d)

Enzymes reduce the time that it takes to initiate a reaction

61.

Enzymes that catalyze endergonic reactions are likely to bind

a)

to ADP.

b)

to ATP.

c)

to each other.

d)

to phosphate.

62.

What unique characteristic does the bonding of carbon to other atoms have and why is it important for organic molecules?

a)

These bonds are uniquely versatile and can bind in many different ways to different atoms, which is important for the diversity of organic compounds.

b)

These bonds are uniquely weak which is important for the easy formation and rearrangement of atoms within organic molecules.

c)

These bonds possess a great ideal of stored energy which is important for the nutritional aspect of organic compounds.

d)

These bonds are uniquely strong which is important for the structural integrity of of organic compounds.

63.

Anna stated that carbon monoxide could not be organic because it is gas. What is wrong with her statement?

a)

Her statement is correct.

b)

Organic molecules can be gases.

c)

Carbon monoxide is not a gas.

d)

Carbon monoxide is not organic because it is not produced by living things.

64.

Which of the following is the most accurate distinction between organic molecules and inorganic molecules?

a)

Organic molecules are composed primarily of carbon atoms bound to other atoms and most inorganic molecules are not.

b)

Organic molecules contain carbon and inorganic molecules are not.

c)

Organic molecules are synthesized by living things and inorganic molecules are not.

d)

Organic molecules are consumed by living things and inorganic molecules are not.

65.

A substance with ph 7.5 is a(n)

a)

strong acid

b)

weak base

c)

neutral solution

d)

none of the above

66.

Soaps can be produced by using bases to dissolve fats or oils. Ammonia feels slippery or soapy to touch because ______.

a)

ammonia always contains soap

b)

ammonia is a base and can be dissolve some of the fats and oils in your skin

c)

ammonia always contains oil

d)

ammonia dissolves soap residue on your hands

67.

How to antacids work to relieve stomach pain caused by heartburn or indigestion?

a)

The bases in antacids neutralize stomach acid.

b)

The bases in antacids lower the pH of stomach acids

c)

The acids in antacids raise the pH in the stomach.

d)

The acids in antacids corrode carbonates that cause stomach pain.

68.

Where would you find a strong acid on the pH scale?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

7

d)

13

69.

Which of the following statements is not true for pure water?

a)

It is neither basic nor acidic.

b)

it is neutral solution

c)

it has a PH of 7

d)

The concentration of hydroxide ions is zero.

70.

A substance that does not corrode metals or carbonates, does not feel slippery, and turns green in the presence of the indicator bromothymol blue is most likely a(n)

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

buffer

d)

ion

71.

Which of the following cannot be measured using a pH scale.

a)

the strength of an acid or base.

b)

the concentration of hydronium ions in substance.

c)

the basicity of a solution

d)

the concentration of solute in the solution

72.

Esteban mixes an acid and a base together until the hydronium ion and hydroxide ion concentrations are the same. What is the pH of the mixture?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

7

d)

cannot determine the pH from the information given.

73.

Pure water has a pH of 7, but if left exposed to air, it will absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This will result in an extremely diluted solution of H2CO3. What is likely pH for water that has been left exposed to air ?

a)

pH 3

b)

pH 6

c)

pH 7.4

d)

pH 9

74.

Which is one way a strong acid differs from a weak acid?

a)

The strong acid has fewer hydroxide ions.

b)

the strong acid will feel more slippery.

c)

The strong acid will have a greater pH.

d)

The strong acid has a higher concentration of hydronium ions.

75.

In chemistry class, Lincoln uses indicator paper and a pH scale to determine the pH of a solution. He states that its pH is 15. What can you infer about Lincoln's measurement?

a)

He used a solution with a pH that is not reliable

b)

He measured the wrong solution.

c)

He measured the pH incorrectly.

d)

He used an extended pH scale.

76.

Substance A is pH 2 while Substance B is pH 6.5. Which of the following is true about the substances?

a)

There is a higher concentration of hydrogen ions in Substance A than Substance B.

b)

Substance A is a weaker acid than Substance B.

c)

Substance A is an acid while Substance B is a base.

d)

Substance A is more concentrated than substance B.

77.

The pH of a solution will be more resistant to change if ______.

a)

the temperature is raised

b)

the temperature is lowered

c)

a salt is added

d)

a buffer is added

78.

Which of the following statements is not true for pure water.

a)

It is neither basic nor acidic.

b)

It is a neutral solution.

c)

it has a pH of 7.

d)

The concentration of hydroxide ions is zero.

79.

A chemist places a few drops of dilute hydrochloric acid (HCI) into a solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH). What is the most likely outcome?

a)

The pH of the solution will increase.

b)

The solution will lose hydrogen ions.

c)

The concentration of hydrogen ions in the solution will increase.

d)

The acidity of the solution will be buffered.

80.

Kathleen measures the pH of a solution as 3.5. She then dilutes the solution 10-fold by adding pure water. What should she expect to happen to the pH when she measures it now?

a)

The pH will be within one-tenth of a pH unity of pH 7.

b)

The pH will be basic (>7).

c)

The pH will increase slightly, by about one pH unit.

d)

The pH will change by less than one-tenth of a pH unit.

81.

A change of unit on the pH scale represents a 10-fold change in hydronium ion concentration. How much greater is the hydronium ion concentration in a substance with pH 2 than a substance with pH 5?

a)

3 times

b)

10 times

c)

100 times

d)

1000 times

82.

Lenny and George both add 100 ml of vinegar to their 100 ml unknown solutions in chemistry class. The pH of Lenny's

solution changes from 7.6 to 5.3. The pH of George's solution changes from 7.6 to 7.1. George's original solution was likely to have been

a)

A strong base

b)

a weark base

c)

a buffer

d)

water

83.

A pH of 2 is characteristic of a(n) ____

a)

a strong acid

b)

strong base

c)

weak acid

d)

weak base

84.

When acids are dissolved in water, they ____

a)

dissociate into a positive ion and a hydrogen ion

b)

dissociate into a negative ion and a hydrogen ion

c)

undergo a chemical reaction producing new substances

d)

undergo neutralization producing a salt

85.

What does pH measure?

a)

the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution

b)

the concentration of acids and bases in an ionic solution

c)

the concentration of all positive ions in a solution

d)

the concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution

86.

A substance that dissociates into positive ions and hydroxide ions when dissolved in water is

a)

an acid

b)

a base

c)

a buffer

d)

neutral

87.

When a plant is not watered, it dies because it cannot ________.

a)

power the chemical reactions for photosynthesis

b)

provide high-energy electrons to generate NADPH

c)

remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to form glucose

d)

absorb solar energy in the from of light

88.

Which process distinguishes producers from consumers?

a)

production of ATP

b)

cell division

c)

photosynthesis

d)

protein synthesis

89.

A massive toxic spill kills off half the population of photosynthetic plankton in the ocean. What do you predict may happen to the atmosphere as a result of this event?

a)

The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere would decrease

b)

The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere would increase.

c)

The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere would decrease

d)

There would be no change.

90.

Which of the following is a reactant of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen

b)

carbohydrates

c)

glucose

d)

water

91.

Why is water so important to a plant?

a)

Water is the source of carbon for cellular respiration

b)

Water is an important source of ATP molecules

c)

Water accepts light energy in photosynthesis

d)

Water supplies the plant with electrons for the electron transport chain

92.

Suppose a plant is placed in a pure oxygen atmosphere. Which stage of photosynthesis will this affect?

a)

the production of NADPH

b)

the production of ATP

c)

the Calvin Cycle

d)

the electron transport chain

93.

Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis?

a)

organic carbon

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

energy

94.

Where does the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis take place?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

in the thylakoid membrane space

c)

in the cell wall

d)

in the stroma

95.

Plants use CO2 and water to produce ________.

a)

sugars

b)

carbohydrates

c)

glucose

d)

all of the above

96.

A plant cell undergoing photosynthesis can no longer release oxygen from its leaves. Which of the following best

explains what is wrong with the plant?

a)

It no longer contains chlorophyll

b)

Photosystem II is damaged

c)

The stroma is not taking in CO2

d)

Electron carrier molecules are not passing electrons

97.

Which process balances photosynthesis to maintain the law of conservation of mass and energy in living systems?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

digestion

c)

energy transformation

d)

reproduction

98.

The light-independent reaction uses the energy from ________ to produce _________.

a)

oxygen; carbon

b)

carbon; oxygen

c)

NADPH and ATP; sugar

d)

sugar; NADPH and ATP

99.

Which of these substances is produced in photosynthesis and oxidized in respiration?

a)

surcose

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

oxygen

100.

Astronomers find forms of photosynthetic life on Mars, but they know for a fact plants cannot live there. What is the

most likely explanation for the astronomers' discovery?

a)

The astronomers made a mistake

b)

The photosynthesizers are bacteria that can survive in extreme conditions

c)

The photosynthesizers do not require solar energy like those on Earth

d)

The photosynthesizers do not produce the same substance as they do on Earth

101.

A plant undergoes a cellular process in which oxygen is released. A student concludes that the process was cellular respiration. Which statement best explains why the student's conclusion was invalid?

a)

Cellular respiration does not release oxygen

b)

Plants do not undergo cellular respiration

c)

neither A nor A

d)

both A and B

102.

A plant has turned brown and is no longer able to photosynthesize. What has caused this to happen to the plant?

a)

The sun no longer provides the plant with solar energy.

b)

The plant no longer has chlorophyll to capture energy for photosynthesis

c)

The plant is no longer able to absorb oxygen from the atmosphere

d)

The plant's light-dependent reaction can no longer produce ATP

103.

Plants are considered autotrophs because ________.

a)

They rely on solar energy

b)

they provide food for themselves and consumers

c)

they do not eat anything to survive

d)

they only need one type of nutrient

104.

What product of photosynthesis is converted into energy during cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

water

105.

During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is

a)

only used in the light-independent reaction

b)

absorbed from the soil

c)

broken down into small carbon compounds

d)

all of the above

106.

The process of converting carbon dioxide into sugars is called ________.

a)

glycolysis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

cellular respiration

d)

oxidation

107.

Why is the Calvin cycle dependent on the light-dependent reaction?

a)

The light-dependent reaction supplies light energy

b)

the light-dependent reactions supplies chemical energy

c)

the light-dependent reactions supplies CO2

d)

The light dependent reaction supplies water

108.

In the first stage of photosynthesis,

a)

carbon compounds are produced

b)

the Calvin cycle takes place

c)

sunlight is required to generate ATP

d)

carbon dioxide is utilized

109.

The energy lost during the electron transport chain is used to

a)

pump hydrogen ions across the thylakoid membrane

b)

turn ATP synthase and generate an ATP molecule

c)

breaks bonds between CO2 molecules in the Calvin cycle

d)

split water molecules into hydrogen ions and oxygen ions.

110.

Which of the following is not a property of water?

a)

cohesive behavior

b)

high specific heat

c)

constant volume upon freezing

d)

ability to dissolve many substances

111.

Hydronium contains what kind of charge?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

can vary between positive and negative

112.

Why is a "shell of hydration" important to life?

a)

It allows minerals and ions to easily dissolve in bodies of fresh water and ocean water

b)

it facilitates the conversion of drinking water into cellular water

c)

it keeps substances, such as vegetation, from freezing in very cold temperatures

d)

it allows a variety of substances to dissolve in and around cells.

113.

Hydroxide contains what kind of charge?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

can vary between positive and negative

114.

Which of the following is not due to water's surface tension?

a)

water coming out of a leaky faucet forms drops

b)

an insect walking across the surface of a pond

c)

water forming beads on the surface of a newly waxed car

d)

ice floating on the surface of water

115.

Why is a water molecule polar?

a)

It has an unequal number of electrons and protons

b)

The oxygen atom attracts electrons more strongly than the hydrogen atoms do.

c)

They hydrogen atoms attract electrons more strongly than the oxygen atom does

d)

The molecule spins around an imaginary pole, similar to a planet

116.

Specific heat index refers to which of the following?

a)

the amount of heat required to change on meter of a substance's temperature by one degree Celsius

b)

the percent temperature change of a substance from the addition of one joule of energy

c)

the amount of energy required to heat one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius

d)

the percent temperature change of one gram of a substance from the addition of one calorie of

energy

117.

Which of the following would a hydroxide ion most likely be attracted to?

a)

C6H12O6

b)

H2O

c)

OH-

d)

K+

118.

Water is found in which of the following states at Earth's surface?

a)

liquid and solid

b)

liquid, solid, and gas

c)

gas and liquid

d)

only liquid

119.

Which of the following is not a property of water?

a)

ability to moderate temperatures

b)

ability to adhere to other substances

c)

ability to contract upon freezing

d)

ability to dissolve a wide variety of substances

120.

Alcohol (ethanol) has a higher specific heat index than water. Based on this information only, what can you conclude?

a)

The surface tension of alcohol is greater than the surface tension of water.

b)

The temperature of alcohol increases more slowly than water when they are equally heated.

c)

Alcohol has a higher boiling point than water.

d)

Alcohol will expand more than water when frozen.

121.

Which of the following best describes an experiment designed to study and observe adhesion in water molecules?

a)

heat 50 mL of water until it boils and record the temperature at which the water boils

b)

place equal amounts of water into glass containers of varying diameters and observe the water along

the sides of each glass

c)

place a mixture of saltwater in a freezer until it turns into a solid and record the amount of time it

took to freeze

d)

place several drops of food coloring into a container of water and observe the way in which the food

coloring moves through the water

122.

What are the two ions that water molecules can dissociate into?

a)

hydrogen ion and oxygen ion

b)

hydronium ion and oxide ion

c)

hydroxide ion and hydronium ion

d)

hydrogen ion and oxide ion

123.

A student listed the following characteristics of a hydronium ion: 1) is attracted to negatively charged ions, 2) contains two hydrogen atoms, 3) contains one oxygen atom, 4) is formed as a result of the dissociation of an H2O molecule.

Which statement is incorrect?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

124.

An oxygen atom has eight protons and a hydrogen atom has one proton. How many electrons are in a hydroxide ion?

a)

8

b)

9

c)

10

d)

none

125.

The fact that a glass can be filled above the rim with water is due to water's ________.

a)

surface tension

b)

ability to dissolve a great variety of substances

c)

greater density as a liquid than solid

d)

adhesive properties

126.

The specific heat of water is 1 calorie/°C-gram, and the specific heat of a metal is about 0.1 calorie/°C-gram. If the

same amount of heat energy is applied to the same mass of water and the metal, which is the correct comparison of the changes in temperature?

a)

The increase in temperature will be about 10 times greater in the metal than the water.

b)

The increase in temperature will be about 0.1 times as great in the metal as the water.

c)

The temperature of the water will increase and the temperature of the metal will decrease.

d)

The temperature increase will be the same, but will be faster in the water.

127.

Which of the following correctly represents a hydronium ion?

a)

HO2-

b)

HO2+

c)

H3O+

d)

H3O-

128.

Frozen pieces of pure water (ice) are placed into a liquid. The ice sinks. What can you conclude?

a)

The ice did not have any air bubbles trapped inside.

b)

The liquid is less dense than water.

c)

The liquid was very hot.

d)

Pure water is denser than impure water.

129.

Which of the following statements comparing fermentation with aerobic respiration is false?

a)

Fermentation produces less ATP than aerobic respiration.

b)

Fermentation produces less ATP but also yields energy from useful by-products, such as alcohol.

c)

Fermentation and aerobic respiration both rely on glycolysis to produce pyruvate.

d)

Fermentation and aerobic respiration differ in the types of energy-rich molecules they produce.

130.

Which is the most accurate way of classifying the following molecules as either a reactant (R) or a product (P) in

cellular respiration? glucose, NAD, FADH2, oxygen, water, carbon dioxide, pyruvate, free energy

a)

glucose (R), NAD (R), FADH2 (P), oxygen (R), water (P), carbon dioxide (P), pyruvate (P), free energy

(P)

b)

glucose (R), NAD (P), FADH2 (R), oxygen (R), water (P), carbon dioxide (P), pyruvate (P), free energy

(R)

c)

glucose (R), NAD (R), FADH2 (P), oxygen (P), water (R), carbon dioxide (P), pyruvate (P), free energy

(P)

d)

glucose (R), NAD (P), FADH2 (P), oxygen (R), water (P), carbon dioxide (P), pyruvate (R), free energy

(R)

131.

During the electron transport chain, what form of energy is produced in the largest quantity?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

GTP

d)

ATP

132.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an alternative electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration?

a)

sulfur

b)

nitrate

c)

phosphate

d)

sulfate

133.

Which of the following reactants is directly required for the production of water?

a)

sugars

b)

amino acids or fatty acids

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

134.

Sulfate, nitrate, or sulfur may be ________ during anaerobic respiration.

a)

reduced

b)

oxidized

c)

neither oxidized nor reduced

d)

both oxidized and reduced

135.

Which of the following is NOT true about the protein complexes that make up the electron transport chain?

a)

They perform both oxidation and reduction.

b)

They pass electrons from lower to higher energy levels.

c)

They are ion pumps.

d)

They take electrons from both NADH and FADH2.

136.

A scientist observes a bacterial specimen obtained from mud in a swamp. The bacteria are producing hydrogen sulfide (H2S) which creates a foul smell. What process is likely to be generating the H2S?

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

fermentation

d)

decay

137.

Explain whether this statement is true or false: In cellular respiration, reduction of complex molecules leads to energy release.

a)

true because sugars are broken down into simpler molecules

b)

true because sugars are reduced down to release energy

c)

false because breaking down sugars into simpler molecules requires energy

d)

false because sugars are oxidized to release energy

138.

A classmate states that glycolysis requires energy. What is the most accurate response?

a)

This statement is true because glycolysis cannot proceed without ATP input.

b)

The statement is true, however glycolysis produces more energy than it requires.

c)

The statement is false because glycolysis does not require energy, it uses enzymes to catalyze reactions.

d)

The statement is false because glycolysis produces, not uses, ATP.

139.

If carbon dioxide was not released from the Krebs cycle, which of the following would be expected?

a)

The Krebs cycle would not produce energy.

b)

The electron transport chain would not be able to proceed.

c)

Our breath would contain a different gas composition.

d)

Oxygen would not be necessary for cellular respiration.

140.

Which of the following is NOT a product of the Krebs cycle?

a)

Water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP or GTP

d)

FADH2

141.

Cytochrome c oxidase is a mitochondrial protein that catalyzes the conversion of oxygen to water. However, the poison

cyanide binds cytochrome c oxidase more strongly than oxygen can. What process does cyanide bring to a halt?

a)

pyruvate regeneration

b)

glycolysis

c)

aerobic respiration

d)

fermentation

142.

What is the primary distinguishing factor between anaerobic and aerobic respiration?

a)

Anaerobic respiration uses fermentation whereas aerobic respiration uses glycolysis, the Krebs cycle,

and the electron transport chain.

b)

Aerobic respiration gives off carbon dioxide whereas anaerobic respiration gives off oxygen.

c)

Anaerobic respiration takes place without the use of oxygen whereas aerobic respiration uses oxygen

at the end of the electron transport chain.

d)

Anaerobic respiration only takes place in yeast and bacteria whereas aerobic respiration always takes

place in higher organisms such as plants and animals.

143.

A student is preparing to conduct an experiment to observe yeast undergoing fermentation. Which prediction will most likely be supported by the experiment?

a)

The yeast will use oxygen to produce ATP.

b)

The yeast will not produce any usable energy.

c)

The yeast will not be able to undergo fermentation because they are unicellular.

d)

The yeast will produce carbon dioxide and ethanol.

144.

During cellular respiration, oxygen serves as a(n) ________.

a)

oxidizing agent, oxidizing organic compounds

b)

oxidizing agent, reducing organic compounds

c)

reducing agent, reducing organic compounds

d)

reducing agent, oxidizing organic compounds

145.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison or contrast between ATP and NADH?

a)

They are both high energy molecules used to do work throughout the cell.

b)

ATP is based from a nucleotide and NADH is based from a fatty acid.

c)

ATP is used to do work throughout the cell and NADH stores energy for later use during cellular respiration.

d)

ATP is produced during glycolysis and NADH is produced during later stages of cellular respiration.

146.

In ancient China, methods of producing copper were advanced by using iron to replace copper from copper sulfate solution: CuSO4 + Fe → Cu + FeSO4 . What type of reaction is this?

a)

single displacement reaction

b)

double displacement reaction

c)

synthesis reaction

d)

acid base reaction

147.

Three students are debating whether or not the following chemical equation is balanced: H (g) + O (g) → H O(g) +

heat Student A says that is not balanced, because there are unequal amounts of hydrogen (H) in the reactants and products. Student B says it is not balanced, because there are unequal amounts of oxygen (O) in the reactants and

products. Student C says that it is balanced, because the heat given off by the reaction is the missing atom burning.

Which student is correct?

a)

Student A

b)

Student B

c)

Student C

d)

None of the students are correct.

148.

Students in a chemistry class added sodium chloride to silver nitrate; both of these substances were colorless.

However, the reaction produces a white cloudy product. The chemical equation for this is: AgNO (aq) + NaCl(aq) →

AgCl(s) + NaNO (aq). What type of reaction is this?

a)

single replacement reaction

b)

double replacement reaction

c)

synthesis reaction

d)

acid base reaction

149.

A product of a chemical reaction can be best described as ________.

a)

new compounds created from the reactants

b)

compounds that combine in a chemical reaction

c)

compounds that break down in a chemical reaction

d)

heat that is released from a chemical reaction

150.

Which of the following statements about matter are true?

a)

Matter can release and store energy through chemical reactions.

b)

Matter cannot be created nor destroyed through chemical reactions.

c)

both A and B

d)

neither A nor B

151.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical reaction?

a)

heating sand until it becomes glass

b)

heating liquid water until it becomes water vapor

c)

freezing liquid water until it becomes ice

d)

all of the above

152.

Which statement is INCORRECT about the following chemical reaction: AX + BY → AY + BX

a)

BY is a reactant.

b)

AY and BX are products.

c)

AX and BY are reactants.

d)

AX and BY are products.

153.

Which of the following correctly describes this chemical equation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy?

a)

Glucose and oxygen combine to form carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and energy.

b)

Glucose and oxygen decompose to form carbon dioxide and water.

c)

Glucose and oxygen combine to form carbon dioxide, water and energy.

d)

none of the above

154.

Which of the following chemical equations is not written according the law of conservation of matter?

a)

H2SO3(aq) → H2O(l) + SO2(g)

b)

2P(s) + Cl2(g) → PCl3(g)

c)

NH4OH(aq) → NH3(g) + H2O(l)

d)

2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)

155.

Match the correct chemical equation to the following chemical reaction: Carbonic acid (as found in soft drinks)

decomposes into water and carbon dioxide.

a)

H2O(l) + CO2(g) → H2CO3(aq)

b)

H2CO3(aq) → H2O(l) + CO2(g)

c)

H2CO3(aq) → CO2(g) + O2

d)

H2O(l) + C → H2CO3(aq)

156.

A student created a list of characteristics related to chemical reactions, products, and reactants. Identify the incorrect characteristic.

a)

In a chemical reaction, reactants can form entirely new compounds.

b)

In a chemical reaction, reactants can either combine or break down.

c)

In a chemical equation, the arrow points to the reactants.

d)

In a chemical equation, the reactants and products must always be balanced.