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Unit 1 and Unit 2 EOC

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During strenuous exercise, body temperature increases. The body responds to the

increase in temperature by sweating, which helps to reduce the body temperature. Which is demonstrated in this situation?

a)

excretion

b)

metabolism

c)

homeostasis

d)

synthesis

2.

This diagram shows an enzyme-substrate complex. Which is represented by Structure X?

a)

substrate

b)

product

c)

enzyme

d)

complex

3.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starches. What substance would humans have difficulty digesting without this enzyme?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

4.

Which best explains why the rate of a biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

The bonds between substrates are broken

b)

The enzyme-substrate complex forms.

c)

The shape of the enzyme changes.

d)

The activation energy increases.

5.

Which most directly controls the rate at which food is broken down to release energy?

a)

hormones

b)

enzymes

c)

nucleic acids

d)

vitamins

6.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells.

b)

It maintains water balance.

c)

It maintains sugar balance in cells.

d)

It regulates body temperature.

7.

This diagram represents a cell. Which organelle is the site where amino acids are synthesized into proteins?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

8.

A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped?

a)

osmosis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

respiration

9.

What are the subunits of DNA and their function?

a)

proteins that provide the building blocks for the structural components of the body

b)

lipids that store energy and provide insulation

c)

nucleotides that store information

d)

monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell

10.

Which type of molecule do whales use for energy storage and insulation?

a)

DNA

b)

Glucose

c)

Fat

d)

Starch

11.

Which molecules are joined together to make proteins?

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

amino acids

d)

acetic acids

12.

Waxes create a waterproof layer on the outside of some living organisms. To which group of organic molecules do waxes belong?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

13.

How are prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells similar?

a)

both contain a nucleus

b)

both contain ribosomes

c)

both contain membrane-bound organelles

d)

both contain cell walls

14.

What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

membrane-bound organelles

b)

cytoplasm

c)

linear chromosomes

d)

a nucleus

15.

These diagrams represent a Euglena and a Paramecium. Which function do structures X and Y have in common?

a)

digestion

b)

gathering food

c)

movement

d)

reproduction

16.

The starch and water molecules of a potato cell are stored in what organelle?

a)

vacuole

b)

nucleus

c)

chloroplast

d)

ribosomes

17.

Plant cells are able to produce their own food. This process happens in which structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

18.

This diagram shows a plant cell. Which structure is found in a plant cell but is absent in an animal cell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

19.

In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?

a)

Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.

b)

Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.

c)

Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.

d)

Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.

20.

A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in direct light. What could the student most likely conclude?

a)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

c)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

d)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

21.

Which would be the best evidence that a cell is using active transport to move a substance across its cell membrane?

a)

Substances are moving rapidly across the cell membrane.

b)

ATP is being rapidly consumed near the cellular membrane.

c)

Substances are moving from high to low concentrations.

d)

Substances are moving through channels in the cell membrane.

22.

A contractile vacuole helps protists eliminate excess liquid. This is a “pumping" process which reduces pressure inside the cell and prevents the cell from bursting. What is most likely the source of energy for this process?

a)

DNA

b)

lipids

c)

ATP

d)

ribosomes

23.

A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?

a)

They will swell because water will move into them.

b)

They will swell because salt will move into them.

c)

They will shrink because water will move out of them.

d)

They will shrink because salt will move out of them

24.

A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has occurred?

a)

The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.

b)

The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.

c)

The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.

d)

The water in the gums has moved out into the saltwater solution.

25.

This diagram shows a red blood cell in a beaker that contains a solution with a higher salt concentration than that inside the red blood cell. What will happen to the red blood cell in this environment?

a)

The size of the red blood cell will remain constant.

b)

The red blood cell will swell at first and then shrink.

c)

he red blood cell will swell from absorbing salt molecules.

d)

The red blood cell will shrink from losing water molecules.

26.

Which organism is most likely to use anaerobic respiration?

a)

bird

b)

moss

c)

tree

d)

yeast

27.

Two different species of bacteria are examined. Scientists find that Species X always produces CO2, H2O, and more ATP during cellular respiration. Species Y always produces ethyl alcohol, CO2, and less ATP . Which conclusion can be made from these observations?

a)

Only Species Y is aerobic.

b)

Only Species Y is anaerobic.

c)

Both Species X and Y are aerobic.

d)

Both Species X and Y are anaerobic.

28.

Which statement best distinguishes aerobic from anaerobic respiration?

a)

Only aerobic respiration involves fermentation.

b)

Only anaerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria.

c)

Only aerobic respiration requires oxygen.

d)

Only anaerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide.

29.

How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration results in less energy.

b)

Aerobic respiration results in more energy.

c)

Each process results in equal amounts of energy.

d)

Each process results in variable amounts of energy.

30.

Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

b)

More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic

c)

More oxygen is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic

d)

Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

31.

How does the body of a runner keep up with the demand for energy when cellular oxygen levels are low?

a)

through energy production in the mitochondria

b)

through aerobic respiration in the plasma membrane

c)

through ATP produced directly from sunlight

d)

through anaerobic respiration in the cytoplasm

32.

A strand of DNA has these bases:

AGC CAT GTA TAC

What is the complementary DNA strand?

a)

ACG GAT CTA TAG

b)

TCG GTA CAT ATG

c)

TGC CTA GAT ATC

d)

UCG CUA CAU AUG

33.

How does DNA code for proteins in a cell?

a)

by creating a new double helix structure

b)

by using its phosphate and sugar molecules

c)

by adding more hydrogen bonds to its structure

d)

by arranging certain nitrogen bases of the cell in a particular order

34.

Which factor most affects the order of amino acids in a protein?

a)

the DNA located in the nucleus of the cell

b)

the cell in which the protein is located

c)

the amount of ATP available for the cell’s use

d)

the area in a cell where proteins are produced

35.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids.

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins.

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins.

d)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins.

36.

This chart shows which amino acids are coded for by different combinations of mRNA nucleotides. Which amino acids are coded for by an mRNA segment that reads CAG GUG?

a)

arginine and valine

b)

isoleucine and arginine

c)

glutamine and valine

d)

valine and isoleucine

37.

A section of DNA has these bases:

TAG CAG TAC

Which mRNA sequence is produced from this DNA section?

a)

ATC GTC ATG

b)

AUC GUC AUG

c)

AUG CUG AUC

d)

UTC GTC UTG

38.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

he nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

39.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity.

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape.

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen.

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water.

40.

Which will most likely cause variations to occur within a species?

a)

competition

b)

mutation

c)

mutualism

d)

predation

41.

Which would most likely be caused by environmental conditions?

a)

lung cancer

b)

hemophilia

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

sickle cell anemia

42.

How would overexposure to X-rays affect most animal cells?

a)

It would increase cell specialization in organs.

b)

It would change the sequence of DNA nucleotides in affected cells.

c)

It would produce new nucleotides for DNA molecules.

d)

It would cause an increase in red blood cell production.

43.

How do some chemicals increase the risk of a person getting cancer?

a)

by causing cell mutations

b)

by causing a deficiency of vitamin D

c)

by causing an increase of toxins in the skin

d)

y causing a decrease in the immune response

44.

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different?

a)

Sexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but asexualreproduction produces offspring with traits from both parents.

b)

Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but sexual reproduction produces offspring with traits from both parents.

c)

Sexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but asexual reproduction only occurs in unicellular organisms.

d)

Asexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but sexual reproduction only occurs in unicellular organisms.

45.

Which process produces the most variation within a species?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

mitosis

d)

cloning

46.

Which process is an example of asexual reproduction?

a)

An amoeba divides in half to form two amoebas.

b)

A bee transfers pollen from one flower to another.

c)

A female fish deposits eggs on a rock, then a male fish releases sperm on them.

d)

Earthworms exchange sperm.

47.

What is the primary cause of variation in the offspring of sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

cytoplasmic division

b)

environmental changes

c)

mutation

d)

recombination of alleles during meiosis

48.

What process produces many variations in phenotypes?

a)

independent assortment

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

regeneration

d)

cloning

49.

Before mitosis begins, which happens before the nucleus starts dividing?

a)

The cytoplasm separates

b)

The DNA replicates

c)

The sister chromatids separate

d)

The homologous chromosomes cross over

50.

During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

interphase

51.

Why must DNA replication have to occur before a cell can divide by mitosis?

a)

to maintain the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells as in the parent cell

b)

to cause one of the cells produced to have double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell

c)

to allow crossing over to occur in each of the cells produced

d)

to cause all of the cells produced to have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell

52.

How are mitosis and meiosis similar?

a)

both have two cell divisions

b)

both require DNA replication

c)

both produce gametes

d)

both involve crossing over

53.

Which process can occur in both mitosis and meiosis?

a)

fertilization

b)

independent assortment

c)

gene mutation

d)

crossing over

54.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

55.

What is the result when a single cell reproduces by mitosis?

a)

two cells with genetic material identical to the parent cell

b)

two cells with half the genetic material of the parent cell

c)

four cells with half the genetic material of the parent cell

d)

four cells with genetic material identical to the parent cell

56.

What would most likely be produced when a cell with eight chromosomes undergoes mitosis?

a)

two cells with four chromosomes each

b)

two cells with eight chromosomes each

c)

four cells with four chromosomes each

d)

four cells with eight chromosomes each

57.

Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

a)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have triple the chromosome number of the organism.

b)

It allows gametes to have twice the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

c)

It allows gametes to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

d)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

58.

Huntington’s disease is a dominant trait. What are the chances that a child will develop Huntington’s disease if one parent is heterozygous and the other is normal?

a)

0 out of 4

b)

1 out of 4

c)

2 out of 4

d)

3 out of 4

59.

Hitchhiker’s thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker’s thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker’s thumb marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker’s thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?

a)

0% Hh : 100% hh

b)

50% Hh : 50% hh

c)

75% Hh : 25% hh

d)

100% Hh : 0% hh

60.

Having freckles is dominant over not having freckles. If two individuals heterozygous for freckles have a child, what is the probability the child will have freckles?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

61.

This chart shows the results of several crosses with white-feathered chickens and

dark-feathered chickens. Which cross would be represented as Aa × aa, where (A) represents a dominant allele and (a) represents a recessive allele?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

62.

This diagram shows a pedigree for a recessive genetic disorder. What is the genotype of individual 6?

a)

XHXH

b)

XHY

c)

XhY

d)

XhXh

63.

Genetically identical plants will produce either pink flowers or blue flowers,

depending on the type of soil in which they are planted. What is most likely the explanation for the differences in flower color?

a)

The flower-color gene is codominant.

b)

Mutations alter the flower-color gene.

c)

Environmental factors affect flower color.

d)

The flower-color gene is sex-linked.

64.

In genetics research, what is the purpose of a test cross?

a)

to determine the phenotypes of the parents

b)

to determine the genotypes of the parents

c)

to determine whether or not two parents could produce viable offspring

d)

to determine how many offspring can be produced by two parents

65.

Which genetic abnormality can be identified through karyotyping?

a)

point mutation

b)

recessive allele

c)

extra chromosome

d)

sex-linked allele

66.

Which set of parents can most likely produce a child with type O blood?

a)

one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type A blood

b)

one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type O blood

c)

one parent with heterozygous type A blood, and the other parent with type O blood

d)

one parent with homozygous type A blood, and the other parent with homozygous type B blood

67.

Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms?

a)

to create new species of organisms

b)

to control microorganisms in the soil

c)

to prevent habitats from being destroyed

d)

to treat certain types of diseases

68.

Which is a step in the process of producing transgenic bacteria?

a)

A plasmid is used to replace a faulty gene in a human cell.

b)

A chain of bacterial amino acids is inserted into human DNA.

c)

A human gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid.

d)

A mutation is produced in a bacterial cell.

69.

Which would be a desirable trait scientists may want to create in a transgenic plant?

a)

the ability to resist insects

b)

the ability to grow less fruit

c)

the ability to change color in the winter

d)

the ability to use a lot of water

70.

Which transgenic organism has been used to clean up oil spills?

a)

bacteria

b)

fungus

c)

jellyfish

d)

paramecia

71.

Two people believe they are related. Which would be the best technique to determine if they are related?

a)

testing blood types

b)

comparing DNA

c)

examining karyotypes

d)

testing for genetic disorders

72.
a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

gene splicing

c)

cloning

d)

genetic engineering

73.

What is the function of a restriction enzyme?

a)

to control the movement of proteins into a cell

b)

to regulate blood sugar levels

c)

to produce hormones that regulate digestion

d)

to cut DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence

74.

A hospital wants to identify the parents of a baby. Based on the DNA fingerprints, which couple is most likely the parents of the baby?

a)

W

b)

Z

c)

Y

d)

X

75.

What determines the function of a specialized cell?

a)

the type of RNA in the cell

b)

the number of ribosomes in the cell

c)

the number of chromosomes in the cell

d)

the active genes in the cell

76.

How can cells from the same organism have such different shapes and functions?

a)

As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different DNA once it reaches maturity.

b)

Mutations in the cells’ nuclei lead to new combinations of DNA, resulting in different shapes and functions in the different types of cells.

c)

During differentiation, different parts of the DNA in each type of cell are activated, resulting in the different structure and function of the cells.

d)

During differentiation, different types of cells produce proteins which destroy the nonactive DNA, leading to cell specialization.

77.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D