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FINAL EXAM-ON PATHOLOGIC OB

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is defined as difficulty in delivering fetuses through the birth canal.

a)

Dystocia

b)

Ruptured placenta

c)

Precipitate labor

d)

Cord coil

2.

It is a short labor that lasts for 2 to 3 hours or less.

a)

Prolapsed cord

b)

Precipitate labor

c)

Abnormal presentation

d)

Multiple pregnancy

3.

These are the following risk factors of Ruptured Placenta except:

a)

being older than 35

b)

being pregnant with multiple babies

c)

smoking cigarettes

d)

fault of the passengers

4.

This is the case were the placenta detaches too early.

a)

Dysfunctional uterine contraction

b)

Cephalopelvic disproportion

c)

Ruptured placenta

d)

Prolapsed cord

5.

The __________ is an organ that provides nutrients to your baby while you’re pregnant.

a)

amniotic fluid

b)

placenta

c)

amniotic sac

d)

uterus

6.

It is a surgical procedure to remove a woman’s uterus.

a)

Hysterectomy

b)

Hysteretomy

c)

Hystiotomy

d)

Elphingectomy

7.

The major risk after giving birth because the uterus cannot contract effectively to compress blood vessels.

a)

Haemorrhage

b)

Hematoma

c)

Trauma

d)

Prolonged labor

8.

This refers to prolongation in the duration of labor typically in the first stage of labor.

a)

Hypertonic uterine dysfunction

b)

Dysfunctional uterine contraction

c)

Prolasped cord

d)

Hypotonic uterine dysfunction

9.

The force of contraction typically in the midsection of uterus at the junction of the active upper and passive lower segments of the uterus rather than in the fundus.

a)

Hypotonic uterine dysfunction

b)

Hypertonic uterine dysfunction

c)

Dysfunctional uterine contraction

d)

Hysterectomy

10.

What is Amniotomy?

a)

a surgical procedure to remove appendicitis

b)

a procedure performed to remove the kidney

c)

a procedure performed to release fluid from the amniotic sac to induce labor during childbirth.

d)

a procedure performed to remove fallopian tube

11.

This is often termed secondary uterine inertia because the labor begins normally and then the frequency and intensity of contractions decrease.

a)

Abnormal presentation

b)

Multiple pregnancy

c)

Dysfunctional uterine contraction

d)

Hypotonic uterine dysfunction

12.

A pregnancy complications in which there is a size mismatch between the mother’s pelvis and the fetus head.

a)

Cephalopelvic disproportion

b)

Macrosomia

c)

Contracted pelvis

d)

Pelvic alignment

13.

This is a condition in which a bone in the spine slips out of its proper position unto the bone below it.

a)

contracted pelvis

b)

pelvic exostoses

c)

spondylolisthesis

d)

clinical pelvimetry

14.

These are bony growths on the pelvis.

a)

Pelvic exostoses

b)

Pelvimetry

c)

Clinical pelvimetry

d)

Contracted pelvis

15.

This is a radiographic examination used to determine the dimension of the mother’s pelvis and the diameter of the baby’s head.

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Blood Test

c)

Pelvimetry by MRI

d)

X-ray or CT Pelvimetry

16.

These are the following factors of Cephalopelvic Disproportion except:

a)

abnormal fetal positions

b)

abnormally shaped of the pelvis

c)

abnormally shaped of the infant’s head

d)

assess fetal heart rate carefully

17.

This is a process used to assess the size of the birth canal using the hands and /or with a pelvimeter.

a)

clinical pelvimetry

b)

larged size of baby

c)

ultrasound

d)

pelvimetry by MRI

18.

It is the excessive amniotic fluid around the fetus.

a)

prematurity

b)

unstable lie

c)

Polyhydramnios

d)

artificial rupture of membranes

19.

It is an obstetric emergency.

a)

precipitate labor

b)

multiple pregnancy

c)

umbilical cord prolapse

d)

breech presentation

20.

If the cord is pulsating the baby is ______.

a)

dead

b)

alive

c)

state of shock

d)

at risk

21.

If the cord is not pulsating the baby is _______.

a)

at risk

b)

dead

c)

in good condition

d)

far from danger

22.

The term used by medical professionals when your baby has their umbilical cord wrapped around their neck.

a)

Nuchal cord

b)

Tie knot

c)

Cord prolapse

d)

Acrobatics cord

23.

It is considered a complication of pregnancy because a woman’s body must adjust to the effects of more than one fetus.

a)

Abnormal presentation

b)

Multiple pregnancy

c)

Malpresentation

d)

Breech presentation

24.

This is one of the causes of Multiple Pregnancy that deals with women older than 30 and have a greater chance of multiple conception.

a)

ovulation

b)

race

c)

older age

d)

heredity

25.

It is referred to as “Dizygotic Twins”- 2 zygotes fertilized egg.

a)

conjoined twins

b)

triplets

c)

identical twins

d)

fraternal twins

26.

It is referred to as “Monozygotic”- 1 zygote fertilized egg.

a)

fraternal twins

b)

identical twins

c)

triplets

d)

conjoined twins

27.

Refers to the part of the fetus body that leads the way out through the birth canal.

a)

Lie

b)

Axis

c)

Malposition

d)

Presentation

28.

It is the commonest type of breech presentation and is characterized by flexion at the hip joints and extension at the knee joints. Both baby’s legs point straight upwards.

a)

breech delivery

b)

footling

c)

frank

d)

complete

29.

These are the following complications of shoulder presentation except:

a)

Lax uterus due to repeated full term pregnancy

b)

cord prolapse

c)

fetal hypoxia and death

d)

obstructed labor and ruptured uterus

30.

This delivery presentation is the safest and most common.

a)

vertex presentation

b)

brow presentation

c)

breech presentation

d)

cephalic presentation

31.

All of the following indicate abnormal labor, except:

a)

strong contractions lasting 90 seconds or longer

b)

cervical dilatation from 3 to 7 cm in 8 hours during the active phase

c)

fetal descent from-1 station to +2 station in 8 hours during the second stage

d)

latent phase lasting 6 hours

32.

Precipitate labor and explosive delivery are associated with:

a)

meconium aspiration

b)

intracranial hemorrhage

c)

placenta previa

d)

twins

33.

Following delivery, a woman begins to bleed heavily from her vagina. The placenta has not been delivered and you cannot feel it in either the vagina or the cervix. What should you do?

a)

Prepare for emergency hysterectomy

b)

Give oxytocin intramuscularly to hasten delivery of the placenta

c)

Push the placenta out by force

d)

Obtain anesthesia for the woman and remove the placenta manually

34.

Delayed descent in the second stage of labor is least likely to be associated with:

a)

Hypertonic uterine dysfunction

b)

Fetal malposition

c)

Fetal macrosomia

d)

Maternal epidural or spinal anesthesia

35.

Natural Family Planning is also referred to as the Rhythm Method.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Both

d)

Maybe

36.

Males are fertile all the time from puberty to death.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Maybe

d)

Both

37.

Females are fertile for 12-24 hours during a cycle.

a)

Maybe

b)

Both

c)

True

d)

False

38.

Natural Family Planning can be used to avoid or achieve pregnancy.

a)

Both

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Maybe

39.

The pill prevents ovulation approximately 98% of the time.

a)

True

b)

Both

c)

Maybe

d)

False

40.

Natural Family Planning is 98% effectiveness.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Both

d)

Maybe

41.

A decree requiring applicant for marriage license to receive instructions on Family Planning and Responsible Parenthood.

a)

P.D 79

b)

P.D 233

c)

P.D 69

d)

P.D 965

42.

The law that created the Population Commission or POPCOM. This law was amended by Presidential No. 16.

a)

P.D 6365

b)

P.D 79

c)

P.D 69

d)

P.D 965

43.

It is a useful memory aid to help us to remember the basic steps in the counselling process and to add structure to a complex activity.

a)

Service provider

b)

Access to service

c)

Information

d)

Gather approach

44.

A state of well-being of the family as a whole and the individual.

a)

Family welfare

b)

Responsible parenthood

c)

Benefits of counselling

d)

Importance of family planning

45.

A person who is professionally capable to extend help.

a)

Good counselling

b)

Counselee

c)

Counsellor

d)

Counselling environment

46.

The person who seeks help (himself/herself) to be the subjective for counselling.

a)

Counselee

b)

Counsellor

c)

Counselling

d)

Counselled person

47.

A visual tool to help women to tract their cycles to know when they are fertile.

a)

Implant

b)

Sympto-Thermal method

c)

Cycle beads method

d)

Basal body temperature

48.

This kind of method that prevent pregnancy by blocking the tube using clips, rings or burning with an electric current.

a)

IUD

b)

Bilateral tubal ligation

c)

Implant

d)

Condom

49.

Which methods of birth control needs a prescription?

a)

Cervical cap

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Birth control pill

d)

All of the above

50.

What do male condoms offer that other forms of birth control do not?

a)

Best protection against STIs

b)

Least chance of failure

c)

Cheapest to use

d)

All of the above

51.

Which type of intrauterine device (IUD) is available?

a)

Copper

b)

Titanium

c)

A and D

d)

Hormonal

52.

Which of these is a possible side effect of birth control pill?

a)

Nausea

b)

Irregular bleeding

c)

Headaches

d)

All of the above

53.

Which of these methods is called natural family planning?

a)

All of the above

b)

Tracking basal temperature

c)

Tracking changes in cervical mucus

d)

Tracking the menstrual cycle on a calendar

54.

Which of these methods of sterilization is permanent?

a)

Tubal sterilization

b)

Vasectomy

c)

A and B

d)

None of the above

55.

The cervical cap has approximately the same effectiveness as the:

a)

Mini-pill

b)

Combination pill

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Condom

56.

The female sterilization inhibits _________ production.

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Egg

d)

None of the above

57.

Intrauterine Devices (IUD) use has been linked with:

a)

Tubal infections

b)

All of the above

c)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

d)

Uterine infections

58.

Which of the following side effects has been associated with the use of diaphragm?

a)

None of the above

b)

Abdominal pain

c)

Increased menstrual flow

d)

High blood pressure

59.

Which of the following is typically associated with having a vasectomy?

a)

Decreased testosterone production

b)

Reduced rigidly of erections

c)

Normal orgasm

d)

Decreased protection against STD

60.

The woman starts taking the birth control pills on about day ______ of the cycle.

a)

28

b)

25

c)

90

d)

5

61.

Which of the following represents a natural family?

a)

Parents and children

b)

Mother, father and their biological children

c)

Single-parent family

d)

Parents, children, grandparents, aunts and uncles

62.

What is the term that refers to the family in which you were raised?

a)

Family of origin

b)

Extended family

c)

Blended family

d)

Bio family

63.

_________ are keyboard combinations used to represent some emotion.

a)

Emotional keys

b)

Emotitles

c)

Emoticons

d)

Emotes buttons

64.

How many legal parents may a child have?

a)

9

b)

2

c)

Unlimited

d)

None of the above

65.

Jane wants a baby. She enters into a surrogacy arrangement with Wendy to carry the child to term. Sue donates an egg which is artificially inseminated and placed in Wendy’s womb. Which of the three women is the child’s legal parent at birth?

a)

Wendy

b)

Jane

c)

Sue

d)

Both of them

66.

Which of the following automatically have parental responsibility for a child?

a)

A foster caretaker

b)

None of the above

c)

A special guardian

d)

Neither of the above

67.

On March 24, 2003, President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo issued Executive Order No. 188 attaching POPCOM to the Department of Health. On what year?

a)

1090

b)

1910

c)

1976

d)

2003

68.

These are all possible treatments for severe Pneumonia except:

a)

Give first dose of an appropriate antibiotic

b)

Soothe the throat and relieve the cough with a safe remedy

c)

Give vitamin A

d)

Treat the child to prevent low blood sugar

69.

What color is “NO PNUEMONIA: COUGH OR COLD” classified as?

a)

Green

b)

Pink

c)

Yellow

d)

White

70.

You can classify that a child aged 2 years has fast breathing if he has a respiratory rate of.

a)

60 bpm or more

b)

50 bpm or more

c)

40 bpm or more

d)

Any of the above

71.

It is an integrated approach to child health that focuses on the well-being of the whole child. It aims to reduce death, illness and disability and to promote improved growth and development among children under five years of age.

a)

Integrated management of childhood illnesses

b)

Responsible parenthood

c)

Family planning

d)

Neither one of them

72.

All are signs of severe dehydration except:

a)

Sunken eye balls

b)

Abnormally sleepy

c)

Skin pinch goes back very slowly

d)

Restlessness

73.

Patient Rina, 5 months old has diarrhea for already 16 days. You also notice that dehydration is present. This could be classified as?

a)

No dehydration

b)

Dehydration

c)

Severe persistent dehydration

d)

None of the above

74.

If mouth ulcers are present, the midwife should give what?

a)

Treat with gentian violet

b)

Give vitamin A

c)

Apply tetracycline

d)

Give the child aspirin

75.

Patient Luna is 4 months old and has visible severe wasting and edema on both feet. This can be classified as:

a)

Low weight

b)

Not very low weight

c)

None of the above

d)

Severe malnutrition

76.

In routine worm treatment, every child should be given

ALBENDAZOLE/MEBENDAZOLE every, what month?

a)

9 weeks from the age of one year

b)

2 months from the age of one year

c)

6 months from the age of one year

d)

10 months from the age of one year

77.

The appropriate amount of Vitamin A capsules (200,000 IU) to be given to a child aged 12 months to 5 years would be:

a)

½

b)

1

c)

3

d)

2

78.

In soothing the throat and relieving cough with a safe remedy, all are discouraged except one.

a)

Giving calamansi juice

b)

Cough syrup

c)

Oral decongestant

d)

Nasal decongestant

79.

All are signs of measles except:

a)

Red eyes

b)

Generalized rash

c)

Cough or runny nose

d)

Stiff neck

80.

The first line antibiotic for cough, pneumonia and mastoiditis would be.

a)

Sulfadoxine

b)

Co-amoxiclav

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Aspirin

81.

This color indicates initiation of specific outpatient treatment.

a)

Orange

b)

Yellow

c)

Green

d)

Pink

82.

This indicates urgent hospital referral or admission.

a)

Pink

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

White

83.

All are danger signs except:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Convulsions

c)

Lethargy

d)

Cough

84.

A child with fever and general danger sign of stiff neck will have been classified already as having___________________.

a)

Fever

b)

Severe

c)

Very severe febrile diseased

d)

Febrile

85.

This develops when the child is not getting enough energy or protein food to meet his nutritional needs.

a)

Protein energy

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Vitamins and minerals

86.

This condition were the child becomes severely wasted.

a)

Stunted

b)

Marasmus

c)

Kwashiorkor

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

87.

The child may not grow well and become _________.

a)

Strong

b)

Weak

c)

Marasmus

d)

Stunted

88.

This condition were the child may develop edema.

a)

Kwashiorkor

b)

Protein deficiency

c)

Marasmus

d)

Stunted

89.

This indicates supportive home care.

a)

Black

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Pink

90.

Which of the following age groups do the IMCI clinical guidelines address?

a)

2 months up to 6 years

b)

2 months up to 2 years

c)

Birth up to 5 years

d)

2 months up to 5 years

91.

Which of the following sign is a “general danger signs” that you should always check for in every sick child age 2 months up to 5 years, according to the IMCI guidelines?

a)

The child has cyanosis

b)

The child has cough

c)

The child has past

d)

The child is lethargic or unconscious

92.

What is the cut-off rate for “fast breathing” in a child who is exactly 12 months old?

a)

50 breaths per minute

b)

20 breaths per minute

c)

30 breaths per minute

d)

10 breaths per minute

93.

Which of the following actions does a green-coded classification require?

a)

Give pre-referral treatment

b)

Advise mother on home care

c)

Advise mother on antibiotic treatment

d)

Refer urgently to hospital

94.

If a child has any of the five general danger signs, you should urgently refer him to hospital for treatment, These signs are except one:

a)

not able to drink or breastfeed

b)

vomits everything

c)

lethargic or unconsciousness

d)

rashes

95.

The IMCI clinical guidelines are designed for use with certain age groups. One group is 2 months up to 5 years. What is the other age group?

a)

birth up to 5 years

b)

2 months up to 9 years

c)

birth up to 2 months

d)

6 months up to 10 years

96.

What are the four main symptoms for which every sick child should be checked?

a)

Malnutrition

b)

Cough, diarrhea, malnutrition, ear problem

c)

Anemia

d)

Cough ,diarrhea, fever, ear problem

97.

Not eating foods rich in Iron can lead to ________________.

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Protein deficiency

d)

Malnourish

98.

A child with a general danger sign has a serious problem. Most children with a general danger sign need ______________ to hospital. They may need lifesaving treatment.

a)

Support

b)

Strong

c)

URGENT REFERRAL

d)

Treatment at home

99.

These are the components of Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses (IMCI) except one:

a)

Improving case management skills of health workers

b)

Improving over-all health systems

c)

Improving family and community health practices

d)

Contribute to improved growth and development

100.

. In the Philippines, IMCI was started on a pilot basis in _____, thereafter more health workers and hospital staff were capacitated to implement the strategy at the frontline level.

a)

1990

b)

1996

c)

1989

d)

1979