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WorksheetsROHS Bio 1 Final Review
Total questions: 101
Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of these organisms is the secondary consumer?
a)
Owl
b)
Mouse
c)
Grass
d)
Grasshopper
2.
What is the correct order for this food chain?
a)
Owl, Mouse, Grasshopper, Grass
b)
Grass, Mouse, Owl, Grasshopper
c)
Grass, Owl, Grasshopper, Mouse
d)
Grass, Grasshopper, Mouse, Owl
3.
Which of these organisms is the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Mouse
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Grass
4.
Place the levels of environment in the correct order.
a)
biome, biosphere, population, organism, ecosystem,community
b)
organism, ecosystem, biosphere, population, community, biome
c)
organism, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere
d)
population, community, organism, biome, ecosystem, biosphere
5.
What is the hawk in the food web?
a)
Producer
b)
Primary consumer
c)
Secondary consumer
d)
Tertiary consumer
6.
How much energy is transferred between trophic levels?
a)
25%
b)
20%
c)
10%
d)
90%
7.
Which of these is an autotroph?
a)
Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Decomposer
8.
All of the biotic and abiotic factors.
a)
community
b)
ecosystem
c)
population
9.
The living part of an ecosystem
a)
Biotic
b)
Abiotic
c)
Mother Earth
d)
Flowers
10.
The non-living part of an ecosystem
a)
Ocean
b)
Lava Flow
c)
Birds
d)
Abiotic
11.
The study of how living things interact with one another and with their environment.
a)
Biology
b)
Lithology
c)
Ecology
d)
Farmacology
12.
Organisms that look similar and can produce fertile offspring
a)
Species
b)
Fish
c)
Community
d)
Trees
13.
What does every food chain start with? (Even if it's not drawn or written there!)
a)
producers
b)
sun
c)
consumer
d)
decomposers
14.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms.
d)
How carnivores get their food.
15.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
16.
A graphic illustration that shows each trophic level and the amount of useable energy contained within.
a)
Food chain
b)
Food web
c)
Energy Pyramid
d)
All of these
17.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
18.
Which structures are found in every living cell?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
19.
All cells need energy to function. Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
20.
In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
21.
Cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called ____________________.
a)
prokaryotes
b)
eukaryotes
c)
bacteria
d)
protists
22.
Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a)
cells must contain DNA
b)
all living things are made from cells
c)
cells can only come from other cells
d)
cells are the basic unit of life
23.
A cell is...
a)
the basic unit of structure and function in living organism
b)
an organism
c)
a basic part of everything that we see
d)
found only in animals, not plants
24.
What is true of all living things?
a)
they have tissue
b)
they can move
c)
they use energy
d)
they change shape
25.
This is a
a)
animal cell
b)
plant cell
c)
tissue
d)
flower
26.
Which cell have nucleus
a)
animal cell
b)
plant cell
c)
both
27.
An individual's "fingerprint" is carried by the
a)
cell membrane
b)
DNA
c)
mitochondria
d)
RNA
28.
What type of cell lacks a nucleus?
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic
c)
human
d)
animal
29.
Which body system controls the body to maintain homeostasis?
a)
excretory
b)
nervous
c)
circulatory
d)
skeletal
30.
Which organs make up the circulatory system?
a)
the heart, veins, blood vessels
b)
the brain, spinal cord, and nerves
c)
the kidneys, bladder, and ureters
d)
bones
31.
How are viruses different than bacteria, fungi, and parasites?
a)
Viruses are not living
b)
Viruses reproduce quickly
c)
Viruses can infect the cells of a variety of organisms
32.
Which organ is part of the immune system?
a)
the eyes
b)
skin
c)
the stomach
d)
the intestines
33.
Which of the following is not regulated by homeostasis?
a)
body temperature
b)
blood sugar
c)
blood pH
d)
body movements
34.
____________________ helps warm the human body when we are cold.
a)
sweating
b)
shivering
c)
inhaling oxygen
d)
exhaling carbon dioxide
35.
What does homeostasis mean?
a)
Temperature
b)
Water
c)
Cells
d)
Steady state
36.
What is a disease where sufferers cannot control their blood glucose levels?
a)
Diabetes
b)
Influenza
c)
Cholera
d)
Cystic fibrosis
37.
When you are cold, you shiver and your blood vessels contract, which warms you up. When you are hot, you sweat and your blood vessels expand, which cools you down.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
38.
Negative feedback loops ...
a)
are one way an organism can maintain homeostasis.
b)
are rarely found in healthy individuals
c)
respond by making deviations from normal even larger
d)
cannot be counteracted with medicine
39.
What transports substances around the body?
a)
Blood
b)
Sweat
c)
Tears
d)
Urine
40.
Homeostasis in the human body is often maintained by a:
a)
neutral feedback loop
b)
solar feedback loop
c)
positive feedback loop
d)
negative feedback loop
41.
Positive feedback is when the change caused by the stimulus is
a)
decreased
b)
non existant
c)
increased
d)
changes constantly
42.
When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
43.
Which diagram represents an organ?
a)
#1
b)
#2
c)
#3
d)
#4
44.
What is the point of a feedback loop?
a)
To provide the body with more energy
b)
To provide the body with more food
c)
To make sure the conditions in the body are always changing
d)
To make sure the conditions in the body remain stable
45.
According to the feedback loop, what does high blood sugar promote?
a)
Insulin Release
b)
Glucagon Release
c)
Insulin Uptake
d)
Glycogen Uptake
46.
Failure to maintain homeostasis could result in:
a)
lack of internal balance
b)
eventual death
c)
difficulty carrying on metabolism
d)
all three
47.
The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
a)
positive and negative
b)
receptor and effector
c)
static and dynamic
d)
minor and major
48.
Humans have ___ for body temperature, blood glucose concentrations, electrolyte concentrations, pH levels, tendon tension and variables.
a)
positive feedback mechanisms
b)
set points
c)
a wide internal range
d)
no regulation
49.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
50.
The "effect" of a given stimulus is the...
a)
response
b)
stimulus
c)
cause
d)
result
51.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
52.
Rapid growth during puberty causes your body to release more and more growth hormones. As you grow, more and more growth hormones are released until puberty is reached, and then the hormones stop.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
53.
If the calcium in your blood decreases below homeostasis levels, a gland in the brain will sense the decrease and send a chemical message to your bones. Your bones will release calcium into the blood, bringing blood calcium levels back up.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
54.
As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump. Your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to normal level.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop
55.
Negative Feedback Loops:
a)
amplify processes
b)
prevent small changes from getting larger
c)
are initiated during childbirth
d)
are found only in plants
56.
the genetic code for the gene
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
homozygous
57.
trait shows only if both parents pass it on
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
codominan
58.
when you have two different alleles
a)
heterozygous
b)
dominant
c)
homozygous
59.
The physical appearance or the way a gene looks is known as it's....
a)
genotype
b)
allele
c)
gene
d)
phenotype
60.
The mathematical chance that something will happen is known as...
a)
chance
b)
luck
c)
probability
61.
The different forms of genes are known as
a)
environment
b)
probability
c)
traits
d)
alleles
62.
An allele or gene that always shows is
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
hidden
d)
present
63.
Two of the same genes for a trait (sometimes called purebred). BB or bb
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
64.
What would the ratio for genotypes be for this Punnett Square?
a)
2Bb:2bb
b)
2BB:2Bb
c)
1BB:2Bb:1bb
d)
4Bb
65.
A ________________________ is used to predict the possible genotype from certain parents
a)
Mendel Grid
b)
Genetic Tic Tac Toe
c)
Punnett Square
d)
Pedigree Plot
66.
Heredity is the passing of traits from _____________________ to _____________________
a)
predators to prey
b)
water to rain
c)
parents to offspring
d)
fungi to protists
67.
___________________________ is the field of science that studies of how traits are passed on, or inherited.
a)
dominant traits
b)
ratio
c)
phenotype
d)
genetics
68.
He is known as the father of modern day genetics.
a)
Gregory Mendel
b)
Greg Mendel
c)
Gregor Mendel
d)
Grace Mendel
69.
Which is a true statements about this picture?
a)
Brown is recessive
b)
Brown is dominant
c)
Blue is dominant
d)
Blue is codominant
70.
What is a gene?
a)
An entire chromosome that codes for a trait
b)
a piece of clothing
c)
a piece of a DNA on chromosome that codes for a trait
d)
Chemical messengers in your brain that code for a trait
71.
What is a genotype?
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
72.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
73.
A GMO is
a)
A mutant animal
b)
An organism that is made up of lots of different organisms
c)
a genetically mutated option of the human genome
d)
an organism whose DNA has been purposely altered by human intervention
74.
A GMO is
a)
A mutant animal
b)
An organism that is made up of lots of different organisms
c)
a genetically mutated option of the human genome
d)
an organism whose DNA has been purposely altered by human intervention
75.
What is the relationship between DNA and chromosomes?
a)
Chromosomes are made of DNA
b)
DNA is made of chromosomes
c)
DNA and chromosomes are the same thing.
d)
All of the above are correct
76.
How many pairs of chromosomes exist in each of your cells?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
23
d)
46
77.
Why are your chromosomes arranged in pairs?
a)
Scientists have no idea
b)
Because you get one from your mom and one from your dad
c)
Because pairs can divide easier
d)
Because DNA is awesome
78.
Which statement is true?
a)
Your DNA is the same as your siblings.
b)
Your set of DNA is identical to your mothers.
c)
Your set of DNA is identical to your fathers.
d)
Your DNA is unique to you.
79.
DNA can best be described as
a)
The bricks of a building
b)
A cookbook of recipes
c)
People living in a community
d)
The energy plant that fuels a city
80.
Put in order smallest to largest:
a)
Chromosome - DNA - Gene
b)
Gene - DNA - Chromosome
c)
DNA - Gene Chromosome
d)
Chromosome - Gene - DNA
81.
Which is true about DNA?
a)
Only animals have DNA in their cells
b)
DNA research is simple and quick
c)
DNA contains many genes
d)
None of the above are true.
82.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
83.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
84.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
85.
True or false: RNA is double-stranded.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
it depends on the type
86.
Which of these bases does not exist in RNA?
a)
C
b)
T
c)
U
d)
A
87.
What is the correct order to make a protein?
a)
Protein, DNA, RNA
b)
RNA, DNA, Protein
c)
DNA, RNA, Protein
d)
Protein, RNA, DNA
88.
DNA contains the template to make RNA
a)
True
b)
False
89.
What do we call the process of turning DNA into mRNA?
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Cloning
90.
When DNA is transcribed to RNA....
a)
A pairs with U
b)
G pairs with U
c)
C pairs with T
d)
A pairs with C
91.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATGGGAACTCCA
ATGGGAACTCCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
92.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Cloning
93.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA makes RNA which produces protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
94.
Ostrich wings are examples of
a)
homologous structures
b)
vestigial structures
c)
adaptations
d)
traits
95.
According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?
a)
commensalism
b)
inbreeding
c)
migration
d)
evolution by natural selection
96.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram?
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
97.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown below.Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?
a)
Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.
b)
Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.
c)
Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7.
d)
Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.
98.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown below.What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?
a)
DNA sequences
b)
Anatomical features
c)
Habitat types
d)
Reproductive Strategies
99.
The diagram represents the relationship between beak structure and food in several species of finches found on the Galapagos Islands. The different beak structures observed in the diagram are evidence of
a)
different species of finches adapting to different environments over many generations
b)
finches changing their beak characteristics so that they could feed efficiently
c)
finch species with different beak structures coming to the Galapagos Islands from the mainland
d)
finches mating with birds of other species and acquiring some of their traits
100.
Natural selection is best described as
a)
a change in an organism in response to a need of that organism
b)
a process of nearly constant improvement that leads to an organism that is nearly perfect
c)
differences in survival rates as a result of different inherited characteristics
d)
inheritance of characteristics acquired during the life of an organism
101.
Which occurrence represents an example of evolution?
a)
Exposure to radiation reduces the rate of mutation in leaf cells.
b)
A mutation in a liver cell causes a person to produce an enzyme that is less efficient.
c)
Cells in a zygote eventually change into bone cells or skin cells
d)
Some antibiotics are almost useless, because pathogens have developed a resistance to these antibiotics.
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