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11.2 Science LT Reviewer

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 3hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chemical (a)   is a branch of chemistry that deals with reaction rates and the factors that influence these rates.

2.

What are the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

temperature

b)

shape

c)

surface area

d)

concentration

e)

color

3.

According to the collision theory, the rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to the number of collisions between the reactant particles.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Which of the following refers to the amount of substance per unit volume?

a)

Temperature

b)

Concentration

c)

Density

d)

Mass

5.

A catalyst works by ________.

a)

forming the activated complex

b)

increasing the temperature

c)

lowering the activation energy

d)

changing the order of the reaction

6.

If the temperature is reduced, the reaction rate will ______.

a)

stay the same

b)

increase

c)

decrease

7.

Which of the following will lower the rate of a reaction?

a)

decreasing the temperature from 40°C to 10°C

b)

breaking a chunk of calcium up into smaller pieces

c)

increasing the amount of solute dissolved in a solution

d)

adding an enzyme to the reaction

8.

Which of the following will hasten the rate of a reaction?

a)

adding a catalyst

b)

diluting the reactants

c)

decreasing the surface area of a reactant

d)

lowering the temperature of the reaction

9.

What happens during a chemical reaction?

a)

New substances whose properties differ from those of the original materials are formed.

b)

Some atoms disappear while others multiply to form the products.

c)

The atoms of the reactants always stay together to form the products.

d)

New atoms are formed and destroyed to make the products.

10.

Consider the energy diagram of a chemical reaction shown below. At which point of the diagram represents the transition state?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

11.

What is a branch of chemistry that deals with reaction rates and the factors that influence these rates?

a)

Chemical kinetics

b)

Analytical chemistry

c)

Chemical stoichiometry

d)

Nuclear chemistry

12.

Which of the following would NOT increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

increasing the volume of the container

b)

increasing the temperature

c)

adding a catalyst

d)

raising the surface area of a solid reactant

13.

Between methane gas (CH4) and solid naphthalene (C10H8), which one is easier to burn?

a)

methane gas

b)

solid naphthalene

c)

both have the same rate

14.

How can a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

by lowering the activation energy of the overall reaction

b)

by lowering the temperature of the reactants

c)

by decreasing the concentration of the products

d)

by reducing the surface tension of a solid reactant

15.

The reaction of magnesium (Mg) strip with hydrochloric acid (HCl) will proceed faster if _______.

a)

the concentration of HCl is increased

b)

the temperature is decreased

c)

a longer ribbon of Mg is used

d)

a weaker acid such as acetic acid is added

16.

During a chemical reaction, a substance is neither consumed nor changed; it is only used and then regenerated. What do you call this substance?

a)

catalyst

b)

reactant

c)

product

d)

reagent

17.

Refer to the energy diagram below to answer the following questions. Assume that the graph shows the range of energies of the collision of the reactants at two different temperatures.


How do you describe the two temperatures?

a)

T2 > T1

b)

T2 = T1

c)

T1 < T1

18.

Refer to the energy diagram below to answer the following questions. Assume that the graph shows the range of energies of the collision of the reactants at two different temperatures.


Which of the curves has the greatest number of collisions to pass over the activation energy?

a)

T2

b)

T1

19.

Which of the following describes the concept of the collision theory?

a)

All of the choices

b)

Reactant particles must collide with proper orientation.

c)

Reactant particles must collide in order to react.

d)

Reactant particles must possess sufficient energy to initiate the reaction.

20.

Surface area refers to the sum of the exposed regions of a solid substance. How does this affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

The larger the surface area of a solid reactant, the faster the rate of a chemical reaction.

b)

An increase in the surface area enables less particles of a solid to react.

c)

The lower the surface area of a solid reactant, the faster the rate of a chemical reaction.

d)

Decreasing the surface area gives a faster reaction because more particles are ‘exposed’ to the other reactant.

21.

Which of the following dissolves more quickly in the water?

a)

1 gram of small particles of salt

b)

1 gram block of salt

22.

Which one will dissolve the slowest?

a)

sugar cubes in cold water

b)

powdered sugar in hot water

c)

powdered sugar in cold water

d)

sugar cubes in hot water

23.

Consider the reaction of 2 g of zinc metal (Zn) and 25 mL of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) at 25⁰C.


Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)


Predict the effect of the following conditions on the reaction rate.


Smaller pieces of zinc were used.

a)

faster

b)

slower

24.

Consider the reaction of 2 g of zinc metal (Zn) and 25 mL of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) at 25⁰C.


Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)


Predict the effect of the following conditions on the reaction rate.


0.5 M HCl was used instead of 1.0 M.

a)

faster

b)

slower

25.

Consider the reaction of 2 g of zinc metal (Zn) and 25 mL of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) at 25⁰C.


Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)


Predict the effect of the following conditions on the reaction rate.


10 mL was added to 25 mL of 1.0 M HCl.

a)

faster

b)

slower

26.

Consider the reaction of 2 g of zinc metal (Zn) and 25 mL of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) at 25⁰C.


Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)


Predict the effect of the following conditions on the reaction rate.


2 grams of zinc metal powder was used instead of 2 grams of zinc metal blocks.

a)

faster

b)

slower

27.

Consider the reaction of 2 g of zinc metal (Zn) and 25 mL of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) at 25⁰C.


Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)


Predict the effect of the following conditions on the reaction rate.


The reaction was carried out at 30⁰C instead of 25⁰C.

a)

faster

b)

slower

28.

Determine the molar mass of ammonium oxalate, (NH4)2C2O4.

(a)   g/mol

29.

Determine the molar mass of Acetic acid, C2H4O2

(a)   g/mol

30.

Determine the molar mass of Sodium carbonate, Na2CO3

(a)   g/mol

31.

Determine the molar mass of Potassium permanganate, KMnO4

(a)   g/mol

32.

Determine the molar mass of Barium nitrate, Ba(NO3)2

(a)   g/mol

33.

A careless student did not wait until his NaCl was dry before he weighed it. As a result, his product weighed 2.25 g when it should have been 1.75 g. What was his percent yield?

Answer: (a)   %

34.

When I was a freshman in college, we had a lab where we were supposed to isolate caffeine from tea leaves. Most of my caffeine was washed down the drain in a freak accident. Although I should have had 5.0 g of caffeine, I only ended up with 0.040 g of caffeine and a bad grade in the lab. What was my percent yield?

Answer: (a)   %

35.

A chemist was supposed to produce 75.0 g of aspirin. However, he squandered some of the reactants for his own personal use (he was later fired), and so only actually made 50.0 g. What was his percent yield?

Answer: (a)   %

36.

Stoichiometry came from the Greek words _______ (meaning "element") and ________ (meaning "measure")

(a)  

37.

Answer the following questions about the reaction of 78.0 g of CH4 with 102 g of O2.


CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ⟶ 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g)


Which is the limiting reactant?

(a)  

38.

Answer the following questions about the reaction of 78.0 g of CH4 with 102 g of O2.


CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ⟶ 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g)


How much CO2 in grams is formed (theoretical yield)?

Answer: (a)   g CO2

39.

Answer the following questions about the reaction of 78.0 g of CH4 with 102 g of O2.


CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ⟶ 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g)


How much of the excess reactant is left unconsumed?

(a)  

40.

Answer the following questions about the reaction of 78.0 g of CH4 with 102 g of O2.


CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ⟶ 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g)


What is the percent yield of the reaction if 67.0 g of CO2 is experimentally obtained?

(a)  

41.

Nitric oxide, NO, is made from the oxidation of NH3, and the reaction is represented by the equation:

4NH3 + 5O2 ⟶ 6H2O + 4NO


How many moles of H2O can be made using 1.90 mol NH3?

Answer: (a)   mol H2O

42.

Nitric oxide, NO, is made from the oxidation of NH3, and the reaction is represented by the equation:

4NH3 + 5O2 ⟶ 6H2O + 4NO


What mass of NH3 is needed to make 0.760 mol NO?

Answer: (a)   g NH3

43.

Nitric oxide, NO, is made from the oxidation of NH3, and the reaction is represented by the equation:

4NH3 + 5O2 ⟶ 6H2O + 4NO


How many moles of H2O will be produced by the reaction of 355 g of O2?

Answer: (a)   mol H2O

44.

Nitric oxide, NO, is made from the oxidation of NH3, and the reaction is represented by the equation:

4NH3 + 5O2 ⟶ 6H2O + 4NO


How many grams of NO can be made from 48.0 g of NH3?

Answer: (a)   g NO

45.

When copper is heated with an excess of sulfur, copper(I) sulfide is formed. In a given experiment, 1.50 g copper was heated with excess sulfur to yield 1.76 g copper(I) sulfide.

2Cu + S ⟶ Cu2S


What is the Percent Yield?

(a)  

46.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


A candle flame

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

47.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


Baking cookies

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

48.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


Burning sugar

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

49.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


Melting ice

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

50.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


Freezing water

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

51.

Which of the following deals with the transformation of energy involved in a chemical reaction?

a)

Chemical Thermodynamics

b)

Chemical Kinetics

52.

If a reaction is exothermic, ______________.

a)

more energy is required to break the bonds in the reactants than is released when the products are formed

b)

the temperature goes down

c)

more energy is released when the bonds in the products are formed than is used to break the bonds in the reactants

d)

the change in enthalpy is a positive value

53.

A. System is a quantity of matter or a region in space chosen for study.

B. Surrounding is the mass or region outside the system.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

54.

A. The universe refers to the imaginary or real surface that separates the system from its surroundings.

B. The system plus its surrounding is called the boundary.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

55.

A. The second law of thermodynamics states that energy is conserved.

B. Energy may change its form, but the total amount remains the same.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

56.

A. Combustion is a reaction in which a substance reacts with oxygen to produce energy.

B. It is always an endothermic reaction.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

57.

A. In an endothermic reaction, the energy of the reactants is greater than the energy of the products.

B. As a result, the net enthalpy change is positive, heat is released.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

58.

A. Energy is the capacity to do work or to produce heat.

B. It can be kinetic energy (stored energy) or potential energy (energy in motion).

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

59.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


Fireworks

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

60.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


Toothpaste neutralizing mouth acid from bacteria

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

61.

Identify whether the example is an endothermic or exothermic reaction.


A solid burns brightly and releases heat, light, and sound.

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

62.

What percentage of our energy use comes from fossil fuels? Refer to the diagram below.

a)

86%

b)

14%

c)

61%

d)

95%

63.

Some power plants pump water down deep holes into hot rock. The hot rock heats the water, which turns the water into steam. The steam rushes back to Earth’s surface and is used to make electricity. This plant is generating which alternative energy resource?

a)

Geothermal energy

b)

Solar energy

c)

Wind energy

d)

Hydroelectric energy

64.

Most forms of renewable energy produce a small amount of pollution from the generators that help to produce electricity. Which form of energy below does not use a turbine and generator for electricity?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Solar energy

c)

Geothermal energy

d)

Hydroelectric energy

65.

All of the following statements are true about nuclear power except _____.

a)

large amounts of energy can be produced from small amounts of uranium

b)

nuclear power is produced from the fission of uranium atoms

c)

nuclear power emits significant amounts of greenhouse gases

d)

nuclear waste poses significant threats to human health and the environment

66.

Nuclear power plants use the element ____________ as fuel, a clean and efficient way to drive turbine generators.

a)

Mercury

b)

Uranium

c)

Einsteinium

d)

Polonium

67.

_____________ power is the energy generated through the use of running water in order to spin a turbine generator.

a)

Wind

b)

Hydroelectric

c)

Geothermal

d)

Petroleum

68.

Why is developing renewable energy important to life on Earth?

a)

Renewable energy sources can be easily replenished because there are infinite sources.

b)

Renewable energy produces less pollution.

c)

All of the choices.

d)

Other energy sources will be used up and gone forever.

69.

________________ are plants grown and then used to create energy. The plants are typically burned to make electricity, but certain plants can also make fuels such as ethanol or biodiesel.

a)

Biomass

b)

Natural gas

c)

Petroleum

d)

Coal

70.

The world faces an energy crisis because _________.

a)

world oil production will peak and begin to decline

b)

shortages and the resulting escalation of prices can shock the economic and political order

c)

world demand for energy will increase

d)

All of the choices

71.

Coal is classified into four main types, or ranks: anthracite, bituminous, sub-bituminous, and lignite. Which of the following describes anthracite coal?

a)

It has the highest moisture content.

b)

It is the softest type of coal.

c)

It has the highest carbon/energy content.

d)

It is a low rank coal.

72.

What is the advantage of using hydropower as an energy source?

a)

may divert water and alter normal water flow

b)

sometimes causes flooding in surrounding areas

c)

might disrupt the movements of animals

d)

uses existing bodies of water

73.

Daily choices that humans make affect the environment. Sometimes, our lifestyles can harm the environment. For example, fossil fuel power plants generate waste in the form of air emissions, thermal releases, and climatic impacts. Which of the following statements would be most helpful in protecting the environment from fossil fuel power plants?

a)

Buying fewer mass produced products

b)

Buying paper products made from harvested trees

c)

Using natural gas as a fuel source instead of petroleum

d)

Using solar power to generate electricity

74.

Scientists are currently researching new ways to obtain energy from our natural, renewable resources. Which statement gives the best explanation of the benefits of renewable resources?

a)

Renewable resources are nonrenewable and expensive to produce.

b)

Renewable resources are versatile and emit various amounts of pollution.

c)

Renewable resources are natural, but cause destruction of land surrounding production.

d)

Renewable resources produce clean energy, meaning less pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.

75.

What chemical is added to natural gas so that people can tell if there is a gas leak?

a)

Ethyl mercaptan

b)

Aluminum zirconium

c)

Methylene chloride

d)

Cinnamaldehyde

76.

Why is it helpful to use natural gas even though it's nonrenewable?

a)

It releases less pollution than any other fossil fuels.

b)

We have an endless supply.

c)

There is a limited supply.

d)

It takes a while to make.

77.

What is the disadvantage of using coal as an energy source?

a)

There is lots of it everywhere.

b)

Mining can destroy landscapes, forests, and wildlife habitats that are near the sites.

c)

It releases radiation as a byproduct.

d)

It is inexpensive.

78.

The word 'petroleum' comes from the Latin roots of petra, meaning “rock” and oleum meaning “gas”.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Wind energy is caused by the uneven heating of the atmosphere by the sun, the irregularities of the earth's surface, and the rotation of the earth.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which of the following statements is an advantage of wind power?

a)

It is a nonrenewable energy resource.

b)

It emits greenhouse gases.

c)

It is free and abundant.

d)

It reduces noise pollution.

81.

Which of the following is not a biomass energy source?

a)

agricultural residues

b)

wood

c)

animal waste

d)

glass and plastic

82.

Which of the following does not describe geothermal energy?

a)

Geothermal energy is a renewable resource as long as the Earth exists.

b)

Geothermal energy has high initial capital costs.

c)

Geothermal energy is the heat from the Earth's atmosphere.

d)

Geothermal energy runs the risk of triggering earthquakes.

83.

In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year?

a)

High amount of air

b)

Dams filled with water

c)

High intense sunlight

d)

Nuclear power

84.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of solar energy?

a)

It reduces electricity bills.

b)

It causes noise pollution.

c)

It is weather-dependent causing its efficiency to drop.

d)

It requires a lot of maintenance.

85.

It is defined as the mass of one mole of atoms, molecules, or formula units of a substance.

a)

molar mass

b)

Avogadro's number

c)

mole

d)

stoichiometry

86.

The subscripts in chemical formulas cannot be changed in balancing an equation.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The final equation should have the largest whole number ratio of coefficients.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Hydroelectric Energy

a)

electricity generated using the energy of moving water

b)

biological material derived from living or recently living organisms

c)

heat energy from deep within the earth

d)

energy that is directly collected from sunlight

e)

form of solar energy that is produced by the movement of air relative to the earth's surface

89.

Biomass Energy

a)

electricity generated using the energy of moving water

b)

biological material derived from living or recently living organisms

c)

heat energy from deep within the earth

d)

energy that is directly collected from sunlight

e)

form of solar energy that is produced by the movement of air relative to the earth's surface

90.

Geothermal Energy

a)

electricity generated using the energy of moving water

b)

biological material derived from living or recently living organisms

c)

heat energy from deep within the earth

d)

energy that is directly collected from sunlight

e)

form of solar energy that is produced by the movement of air relative to the earth's surface

91.

Solar Energy

a)

electricity generated using the energy of moving water

b)

biological material derived from living or recently living organisms

c)

heat energy from deep within the earth

d)

energy that is directly collected from sunlight

e)

form of solar energy that is produced by the movement of air relative to the earth's surface

92.

Wind Energy

a)

electricity generated using the energy of moving water

b)

biological material derived from living or recently living organisms

c)

heat energy from deep within the earth

d)

energy that is directly collected from sunlight

e)

form of solar energy that is produced by the movement of air relative to the earth's surface

93.

Coal

a)

a sedimentary rock composed predominantly of solid organic materials with a greater or lesser proportion of mineral matter

b)

dark liquid fossil fuel formed by hydrocarbons

c)

colorless, shapeless,and odorless in its pure form

d)

uses the element uranium as a fuel; a clean and efficient way to drive turbine generators

94.

Oil/Petroleum

a)

a sedimentary rock composed predominantly of solid organic materials with a greater or lesser proportion of mineral matter

b)

dark liquid fossil fuel formed by hydrocarbons

c)

colorless, shapeless,and odorless in its pure form

d)

uses the element uranium as a fuel; a clean and efficient way to drive turbine generators

95.

Natural Gas

a)

a sedimentary rock composed predominantly of solid organic materials with a greater or lesser proportion of mineral matter

b)

dark liquid fossil fuel formed by hydrocarbons

c)

colorless, shapeless,and odorless in its pure form

d)

uses the element uranium as a fuel; a clean and efficient way to drive turbine generators

96.

Nuclear Energy

a)

a sedimentary rock composed predominantly of solid organic materials with a greater or lesser proportion of mineral matter

b)

dark liquid fossil fuel formed by hydrocarbons

c)

colorless, shapeless,and odorless in its pure form

d)

uses the element uranium as a fuel; a clean and efficient way to drive turbine generators

97.

How do coal and charcoal differ from each other?

a)

Charcoal is a mineral, and coal is not.

b)

Coal is a renewable natural resources, while charcoal is a nonrenewable energy source.

c)

Coal is naturally resulting fossil fuel whereas charcoal is produced by slow burning of carbon woods.

d)

It takes over millions of years to produce charcoal, whereas coal can be produced easily.

98.

Which of the following is not an example of fossil fuels?

a)

coal

b)

oil

c)

natural gas

d)

biogas

99.

Why is nuclear energy classify as a nonrenewable resource?

a)

because it cannot be replenished easily

b)

all of the choices

c)

because uranium and similar fuel sources are infinite

d)

because it can be replaced or restored

100.

The following are some of the common uses of petroleum except ____________.

a)

transportation fuels

b)

fuel oils for heating and electricity generation

c)

alcohol fuels like ethanol or biodiesel

d)

personal care products as a moisturizing agent

101.

Nuclear power plants use the heat produced during nuclear fusion to heat water. In nuclear fusion, atoms are split apart to form smaller atoms, releasing energy.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

LPG (propane) and natural gas (methane) are odorless in their natural state. An odourant called Ethyl Mercaptan is added to these gases to make it easier to detect a leak.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

It is a synthetic, water-soluble cleaning agent with wetting and emulsifying properties.

a)

Soap

b)

Detergent

c)

Disinfectant

d)

Muriatic Acid

104.

It is an industrial-grade or concentrated hydrochloric acid, and is used to remove heavy dirt.

a)

Soap

b)

Detergent

c)

Disinfectant

d)

Muriatic Acid

105.

It can rapidly inactivate or destroy various types of microorganisms on surfaces of nonliving objects.

a)

Soap

b)

Detergent

c)

Disinfectant

d)

Muriatic Acid

106.

It is a salt composed of sodium or potassium ions paired with long hydrocarbon chain fatty acids, which are prepared from vegetable oils or animal fats.

a)

Soap

b)

Detergent

c)

Disinfectant

d)

Muriatic Acid

107.

Muriatic acid can remove dirt and grime from toilets and sinks because ___________.

a)

it can be rinsed off with water

b)

it is a strong acid and can dissolve mineral buildup

c)

it is a nonpolar compound soluble in grease and oil

d)

it is a weak acid and can react with water

Acid

108.

Using disinfectants, what are the main mechanisms to inactivate microorganisms?

I – Kill the microbes directly.

II – Reduce germs but do not kill them.

III– Make the environment unsuitable for them to thrive.

a)

I, II, & III

b)

II & III

c)

I & II

d)

I & III

109.

Why is the cleansing action of detergent better than soap?

a)

because it is prepared from fats and oils

b)

because it contains insoluble sodium or potassium salts of weak acids

c)

because it is not inactivated by hard water

d)

because it is a natural, water-insoluble cleaning agent

110.

Aside from lime buildup, what else causes the presence of stains and the inability to completely remove them through ordinary cleaning agents?

a)

hard water

b)

soft water

111.

Sorbitol is one of the inactive ingredients of soap. What does it add to the product?

a)

It makes the soap opaque and whiter.

b)

It makes the scents and dyes blend evenly with the soap.

c)

It makes the soap more transparent.

d)

It makes bar soaps stay hard and resist shaping in the water.

112.

Why do cosmetics manufacturing companies use tetrasodium EDTA?

a)

because of its whitening effect

b)

because of its chelating property

c)

because it makes soft water hard

d)

because it allows moisture in the skin from escaping

113.

Vitamin E or tocopherol is the most common antioxidant used in the cosmetic industry. Which of the following does not describe this ingredient?

a)

It has anti-inflammatory properties.

b)

It is polar and is fat-insoluble.

c)

It protects the skin from free radicals.

d)

It helps reduce dryness of the skin.

114.

Emulsion

a)

mixture of 2 immiscible liquids, with one present as droplets of microscopic size and distributed throughout the other liquid

b)

added in blushes and lipstick to increase their hardness

c)

added to dilute or homogeneously disperse other components in cosmetics

d)

a group of drugs that fight fungi, bacteria, viruses, and protozoans

e)

added to prevent the deterioration of cosmetic products

115.

Waxes and thickeners

a)

mixture of 2 immiscible liquids, with one present as droplets of microscopic size and distributed throughout the other liquid

b)

added in blushes and lipstick to increase their hardness

c)

added to dilute or homogeneously disperse other components in cosmetics

d)

a group of drugs that fight fungi, bacteria, viruses, and protozoans

e)

added to prevent the deterioration of cosmetic products

116.

Solvents

a)

mixture of 2 immiscible liquids, with one present as droplets of microscopic size and distributed throughout the other liquid

b)

added in blushes and lipstick to increase their hardness

c)

added to dilute or homogeneously disperse other components in cosmetics

d)

a group of drugs that fight fungi, bacteria, viruses, and protozoans

e)

added to prevent the deterioration of cosmetic products

117.

Antimicrobials

a)

mixture of 2 immiscible liquids, with one present as droplets of microscopic size and distributed throughout the other liquid

b)

added in blushes and lipstick to increase their hardness

c)

added to dilute or homogeneously disperse other components in cosmetics

d)

a group of drugs that fight fungi, bacteria, viruses, and protozoans

e)

added to prevent the deterioration of cosmetic products

118.

Antioxidants and preservatives

a)

mixture of 2 immiscible liquids, with one present as droplets of microscopic size and distributed throughout the other liquid

b)

added in blushes and lipstick to increase their hardness

c)

added to dilute or homogeneously disperse other components in cosmetics

d)

a group of drugs that fight fungi, bacteria, viruses, and protozoans

e)

added to prevent the deterioration of cosmetic products

119.

A. Surfactants, which are the most essential components of a detergent, have two ends — a nonpolar head and a polar tail.

B. The head likes oil and hates water, while the tail likes water and hates oil.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

120.

A. Moisture is defined as the dryness one feels as vapor in the environment or as a condensed liquid on the surface of some objects.

B. Panthenol, which functions as a hair conditioner, is an example of a commonly used ingredient in moisturizers.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

121.

A. pH adjusters are ingredients that stabilize other substances in a product by adjusting the pH.

B. Any acid or base can alter the pH.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

122.

A. Manufacturers use color additives to make their products more attractive and even informative.

B. D&C red #7 calcium lake is an example of an inorganic pigment, and iron oxides and mica for synthetic organic colors.

a)

A & B are true

b)

A is true, but B is false

c)

A is false, but B is true

d)

A & B are false

123.

Chemicals, synthetic or not, have both desirable and undesirable properties that must be considered when choosing cosmetics and cleaning materials. Which of the following properties of chemical ingredients must be considered carefully before buying commercial products?

a)

acidity or basicity

b)

All of the choices

c)

dehydrating property

d)

toxicity

124.

The cleansing action of soap is stronger than detergents.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

The two main mechanisms to inactivate microorganisms using disinfectants are to kill the microbes directly and to make the environment unsuitable for them to thrive.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Surfactants, which are the most essential components of a detergent, have two ends – a polar head and a nonpolar tail.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

The word “muriatic acid” came from the Latin word muriaticus which means “brine” or “sugar”.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Which of the following describes an inert or inactive ingredient?

a)

It affects the action of the active ingredient.

b)

It is the component of a product which directly enables it to serve its purpose.

c)

It carries out or alters the function of the active ingredient.

d)

It is only added for stability, compatibility, and desirability.

129.

To determine the active ingredient, know first the intended purpose of the commercial product. Which of the following is a possible active ingredient of antibacterial soap?

a)

paraben

b)

beeswax

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

triclosan

130.

What is an active ingredient in detergent?

a)

sodium lauryl sulfate

b)

triclocarban

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

alcohol

131.

What is an active ingredient in Soap?

a)

sodium lauryl sulfate

b)

triclocarban

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

alcohol

132.

What is an active ingredient in Muriatic Acid?

a)

sodium lauryl sulfate

b)

triclocarban

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

alcohol

133.

What is an active ingredient in Disinfectant?

a)

sodium lauryl sulfate

b)

triclocarban

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

alcohol

134.

Which of the following is false about cosmetic products?

a)

They are applied to the face and body.

b)

They aim to enhance a person’s appearance and odor.

c)

They are not used to treat skin diseases.

d)

They have active ingredients.

135.

In general, moisturizers serve as barriers that prevent moisture in the skin from escaping. Which of the following ingredients does NOT function as a skin conditioner?

a)

Lanolin, lanolin alcohols, and oil

b)

Propylparaben and butylparaben

c)

Stearic acid and stearyl alcohol

d)

Dimethicone silicone

136.

Some cosmetic companies include antimicrobials in their products. Which one best describes antimicrobials?

a)

A range of powerful drugs that are used to treat diseases caused by fungi.

b)

A group of drugs that fight fungi, bacteria, viruses, and protozoans.

c)

A range of powerful drugs that can treat viral infections.

d)

A group of drugs that fight only spores.

137.

Which of the following ingredients is added to prevent the deterioration of cosmetic products?

a)

color additives

b)

moisturizers

c)

antioxidants and preservatives

d)

pH adjusters

138.

Moisture is defined as the (a)   one feels as vapor in the environment or as a condensed liquid on the surface of some objects.

139.

Waxes and thickeners are ingredients added in blushes and lipsticks to increase their (a)   and prevent them from melting at higher temperatures.

140.

Solvents are added to dilute or _____ disperse other components in cosmetics.

a)

heterogeneously

b)

homogeneously

141.

______ is a mixture of two immiscible liquids, with one present as droplets of microscopic size and distributed throughout the other liquid.

a)

emulsion

b)

emollience

142.

Vitamin _____ or tocopherol is the most common antioxidant used in the cosmetic industry.

a)

E

b)

A

c)

C

d)

K