Font size
WorksheetsUnits 1, 2, 3
Total questions: 92
Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins
A student is preparing a model of a cell. The purpose of this model cell is to exchange materials with the external environment so that the exchange can be studied. What is the best model to facilitate exchange of materials between the cell and its environment?
a small cell has a large surface area to volume ratio
a large cell has a large surface area to volume ratio
a small cell has a small surface area to volume ratio
a large cell has a small surface area to volume ratio
A Chlorella cell viewed through a microscope is 0.00005 m wide when the magnification is ×2000. What is the actual size of the cell?
0.0025 μm
0.025 μm
0.25 μm
25 μm
Stem cells are injected into the retina to replace dead cells in the treatment of which disease?
Leukemia
Parkinson's disease
Stargardt's disease
Diabetes
A specimen is measured to be approximately 1μm in width when observed under a microscope. Deduce the type of cell/structure that it is most likely to be.
Plant cell
Animal Cell
Virus
Bacterium
Identify the unicellular organism shown in the diagram.
Paramecium
Chlamydomonas
Human Liver
Green Algae
Striated muscle cells (i.e. cells found in skeletal muscle) are considered to be atypical to cell theory. Which of the following statements is challenged by striated muscle cells?
That cells must come from pre-existing cells.
That cells can have only one nucleus
That cells are the simplest units of life
That cells divide by binary fission
Which of the following is a major concern when it comes to stem cells taken from specially created embryos?
They have higher chances of accumulated mutations.
They give rise to a limited number of cell types.
They require the destruction of embryos in their production.
They have higher chances of genetic damage.
Which of the following is true about pluripotent stem cells?
They can develop into any type of tissue in a body.
They are collected from any part of the blastocyst.
Their differentiation pattern is similar to that of the unipotent stem cells.
They can give rise to an entire organism.
Which of the following is false about a living cell’s surface area to volume ratio?
Both the volume and surface area impact cell metabolism.
The surface area to volume ratio is greater in larger cells than in smaller ones.
The surface area of a growing cell should not be too small when compared to its volume.
The surface area to volume ratio always limits the overall size of a cell.
In a cell, what is the effect of a large surface area to volume ratio?
Slower rate of exchange of waste materials across the cell membrane.
Faster uptake of oxygen into the cell.
Faster cell division.
Slower intake of food into the cell.
Which of the following criteria is a characteristic of life?
I: Locomotion
II: Reproduction
III: Growth
I and II
I and III
II and III
I,II and III
This is a reason why stem cell research using embryos is considered unethical.
Because stem cells are living organisms.
Because new organisms could be grown from stem cells.
Because the use of stem cells could involve the culture of cancerous cells.
Because the use of embryonic cells involves the termination of early-stage embryos.
What is proportional to the cell's surface area?
The rate of exchange of materials.
The rate of glucose production.
The rate of carbon dioxide production.
The rate of glucose consumption.
How does the differentiation of cells in multicellular organisms take place?
Some cell types lose genes when they divide.
They express some of their genes part of the time but not other genes.
Some of their carbohydrates denature but not others.
Their RNA content changes with time.
What is an example of the therapeutic use of a stem cell?
Sequencing human proteins.
Forensic investigations of murders.
Production of genetically modified animals.
Restoration of myocardial tissue.
Which property allows stem cells to be used for therapeutic purposes?
They can divide by mitosis to form gametes.
They contain chemicals that can kill viruses.
Their chromosomes are suitable for gene replication.
They retain the ability to differentiate into specialized cells.
What describes tissues?
Groups of similar cells from the same origin with the same function.
Groups of cells that have combined to form one organ.
Groups of cells that have combined to form a structure.
Groups of cells that develop the same way with different functions.
Which is the correct definition of the term ‘resolution’?
The longest distance between two points in a microscope’s field of vision
The ability to distinguish between two points in a microscope’s field of view
The ability to distinguish between two points at either end of a microscope’s field of vision
The degree to which an object is magnified
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the synthesis and storage of:
(a)
A student is comparing the light and electron microscopes. Which of the statements correctly describes one difference and one similarity between the two microscopes?
The electron microscope has a lower resolution than the light microscope, and both can be used to observe living specimens.
The light microscope has a higher magnification than the electron microscope; however, they have similar resolution.
The electron microscope has a higher resolution than the light microscope, and both can be used to observe non-living specimens.
The light microscope has a lower magnification than the electron microscope; however, they have similar resolution.
These organelles are one of the largest in plant cells. Their content varies and can affect the osmotic pressure. Some unicellular organisms such as Euglena use these organelles to remove the excess water or waste from the cell.
What is the name of this organelle?
lysosome
chloroplast
vacuole
cytoplasm
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an electron microscope to observe organisms and cells?
Specimens cannot be viewed in full, natural colour.
They have a much higher resolution.
They have a greater range of magnification.
They can see the smallest of cell structures.
Which of the following eukaryotic organelles would not be visible underneath a standard light microscope?
Cell Wall
80S ribosomes
Nucleus
Central Vacuole
What type of DNA replication takes place during binary fission?
Conservative
Dispersive
Semi-conservative
Asexual
Which of the following are correct about prokaryotic cell walls?
I: Prokaryotic cell walls help prokaryotes stick to surface of other molecules.
II: Prokaryotic cell walls prevent cell bursting in hypotonic solutions.
III: Prokaryotic cell walls maintain cell shape under various conditions.
I and II
I and III
II and III
I, II and III
Which of the following is true about some eukaryotic cells?
Vacuoles protect the cell, maintain its shape and prevent it from bursting.
Centrioles transport proteins produced by the ribosomes to the cell surface.
The hydrolytic enzymes in Golgi play an important role in protein packaging.
Lysosomes and vacuoles may share similar functions.
What is the destination of a protein synthesised by free ribosomes?
Golgi apparatus
Cytoplasm
Cell Wall
Endoplasmic Reticulum
What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?
Prokaryotic DNA is associated with proteins, whereas eukaryotic DNA is not.
Eukaryotic DNA is associated with histones, whereas prokaryotic DNA is not.
Prokaryotic DNA is found in the nucleus whereas eukaryotic DNA is in the cytoplasm.
Prokaryotic DNA is made up of fatty acids whereas eukaryotic DNA is made up of amino acids.
What structures are found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?
Naked DNA and mitochondria.
Endoplasmic reticulum and 70S ribosomes.
70S ribosomes and nuclear membrane.
Golgi apparatus and nuclear membrane.
What is the DNA of eukaryotic cells bound to?
Histone proteins
Fatty Acids
Triglycerides
Bacteria
Chloroplasts and mitochondria share common features that suggest they both evolved from prokaryotes. What are these features?
They have their own DNA and can synthesise some of their own proteins independently of the rest of the cell.
They both generate ATP for cellular respiration and transcribe their own DNA to synthesise some of their own proteins.
Their 50S ribosomes are typical of a prokaryotic cell and have the ability to self-divide.
They both generate ATP for cellular respiration and have bacterial plasmids.
Which of the following would form an enzyme–substrate complex?
Lactase and lactose
Lactase and galactose
Galactase and lactose
Galactase and glucose
Which of the following are examples of quaternary proteins?
Hemoglobin and valine
Hemoglobin and rubisco
Rubisco and amylase
Valine and amylase
Which row contains true statements about the functions of the proteins listed?
A
B
C
D
(a) have more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are excellent heat insulators.
Which disaccharide is made up of glucose and fructose joined by a glycosidic bond?
Which of the following is not a property of water?
Water is transparent which allows for light to pass through to marine plants and allows photosynthesis to occur.
Blood is water-based and can dissolve polar molecules within it for transport around the body.
It takes very little energy to increase the temperature of water which makes it a good coolant.
Cohesion allows for a continuous column of water to form in the xylem.
Water molecules stick to each other, which allows a continuous column of water to form in the xylem of plants. This property is called (a)
What is the function of the acetone used in paper chromatography to separate photosynthetic pigments?
It absorbs pigments and shows them on the paper strip.
It reflects pigments so that they appear on the paper strip.
It creates covalent bonds with pigments, allowing them to travel up the paper strip.
It dissolves pigments, allowing them to travel up the paper strip.
What is the difference between absorption spectrum and action spectrum for photosynthesis?
The action spectrum represents the rate of photosynthesis at each wavelength of light while the absorption spectrum shows the percentage of light absorbed at each wavelength.
The action spectrum represents the rate of reflection of each wavelength of light while the absorption spectrum shows the percentage of light absorbed at each wavelength.
The action spectrum represents the percentage of light absorbed at each wavelength while the absorption spectrum shows the percentage of light reflected by chlorophyll at each wavelength.
The action spectrum represents the rate of photosynthesis at each wavelength of light while the absorption spectrum shows the volume of water absorbed by hair roots.
A fragment of the DNA has been transcribed into RNA. What would be the sequence of RNA for the following DNA sense strand?
CCAGATATAC
(a)
Which of these features correctly describes a similarity between DNA and RNA?
Both nucleic acids consist of the same pentose sugar.
Both nucleic acids have covalent bonds between molecules within a nucleotide.
Both nucleic acids have covalent and hydrogen bonds holding a single strand together.
Both nucleic acids exist in a cell as double and single strands.
How does denaturation affect the active site of an enzyme?
It alters the quaternary structure of the protein by adding a new polypeptide chain to the active site so that substrate molecules cannot bind to it.
It alters the primary structure of the protein, shortening the sequence of amino acids so that substrate molecules cannot bind to it.
It alters the three-dimensional structure of the protein so that substrate molecules cannot bind to it.
It alters the secondary structure of the protein, converting alpha helices into beta pleated sheets so that substrate molecules cannot bind to it.
Cellulose, starch and glycogen are polysaccharides. Which of the descriptions correctly describes their structures?
Cellulose and starch are composed of unbranched chains of beta-glucose, while glycogen is branched and composed of alpha-glucose.
Cellulose is composed of unbranched chains of alpha and beta-glucose, while starch and glycogen are branched and composed of only beta-glucose.
Cellulose and starch are composed of branched chains of beta-glucose, while glycogen is unbranched and composed of alpha-glucose.
Cellulose is composed of unbranched chains of beta-glucose, while starch and glycogen are branched and composed of alpha-glucose.
The spotted fishing spider (Dolomedes triton) lives in aquatic habitats and can run across the surface of water. Which property of water allows spiders to run across the surface of water?
cohesive properties
adhesive properties
high specific heat capacity
high latent heat of vaporisation
Which features distinguish between glucose and ribose molecules?
Carbon atoms form a ring structure in glucose, while in ribose carbon atoms form a chain.
Ribose has five carbon atoms while glucose has six.
There are more hydrogen than oxygen atoms in glucose, while in ribose the number of hydrogen atoms is similar to oxygen.
One carbon atom forms a single side-chain in ribose, while in glucose there are two side-chains.
Which process occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration?
Fermentation
Krebs Cyle
Glycolysis
Electron transport chain
Which of the following is true about the limiting factors of photosynthesis?
The rate of photosynthesis is inversely proportional to light intensity.
The rate of photosynthesis is directly proportional to light intensity.
The rate of photosynthesis is inversely proportional to light intensity up to a certain point.
The rate of photosynthesis is directly proportional to light intensity up to a certain point.
Which of the following is wrong about chromatography?
Although both have the same type of stationary phase, thin layer chromatography uses a different principle than paper chromatography.
In paper chromatography, the paper is the stationary phase while the solvent used to develop the chromatogram is the mobile phase.
Commonly used chromatography solvent for the separation of the pigments is a mixture of propanone and petroleum ether.
The ratio of the distance moved by a pigment to the distance moved by the solvent is a constant, and is known as the retention factor.
Which of the following best describes photolysis?
2O2 + photons → 4e- + 4H+ + H2O
2H2O + photons → 4e- + 4H+ + O2
2H2O + O2 → 4e- + 4H+ + photons
4e- + 4H+ + photons → 2H2O + O2
Which of the following equations sums up photosynthesis?
6O2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6CO2
6C6H12O6 + 6H2O → 6CO2 + 6O2
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
6C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
Which of the following is true about aerobic cell respiration?
Glucose and CO2 are the ultimate inputs of the aerobic respiration reaction.
Glucose and energy are the ultimate inputs of the aerobic respiration reaction.
Glucose and water are the ultimate inputs of the aerobic respiration reaction.
Glucose and oxygen are the ultimate inputs of the aerobic respiration reaction.
Which of the following is false about aerobic respiration?
Aerobic respiration includes lactate production in animals.
Aerobic respiration produces more ATP molecules than anaerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration is not involved in the production of ethanol.
Aerobic respiration does not involve the activity of fermentation.
Which of the following is correct about cellular respiration?
Cellular respiration is the sudden release of energy by breaking down organic compounds to produce ATP.
Cellular respiration is the gradual and controlled release of energy by breaking down organic compounds to produce ATP.
Cellular respiration is the gradual and controlled release of energy by breaking down inorganic compounds to produce ATP.
Cellular respiration is the gradual and controlled release of energy by breaking down inorganic compounds to produce ADP.
Which of the following is an input for aerobic respiration?
Carbon dioxide
Water
Oxygen
Energy
Which of the following would be listed as the earliest occurrance during DNA replication?
Two new double helices each containing one of the original polynucleotides are formed.
An enzyme rewinds the double helix.
Free nucleotides base pair to original polynucleotide.
DNA polymerase joins the sugar-phosphate backbone.
Which of the following is not a component of the PCR reaction?
Nucleotides
Taq DNA polymerase
Primers
tRNA
If the mRNA sequence is GCU CCU GAG UUG, then the corresponding anti-sense strand DNA sequence must be:
CGA GGA CTC AAC
CGT GGT CTC TTC
GCU CCU GAG UUG
UUG GAG CCU GCU
Which of the following is true about DNA replication?
DNA is normally super coiled by being tightly wound around helicases.
DNA replication happens during the S phase of the cell cycle.
DNA polymerase unwinds the double helix and separates the two DNA strands by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the bases.
DNA replication is conservative as each daughter molecule formed contains both strands coming from the parent molecule.
Which of the following best defines the term “nucleic acid backbone”?
Nucleic acids are composed of a backbone of nitrogen bases and sugar molecules. The phosphate groups are attached to nitrogen bases.
Nucleic acids are composed of a backbone of nitrogen bases and phosphate groups. Sugars are attached to nitrogen bases but not to phosphate groups.
Nucleic acids are composed of a backbone of sugar molecules and phosphate groups. The nitrogen bases are attached to the sugars.
Nucleic acids are composed of a backbone of nitrogen bases and phosphate groups. Sugars are attached to phosphate groups but not to nitrogen bases.
If a male with hemophilia and an unaffected (non-carrier) female had a child, what is the probability that the child will be an affected male?
0%
25%
50%
75%
Scientists were investigating the similarities and differences between base sequences of Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis. A small sample of DNA was obtained from Neanderthal fossils and compared with sequences from humans. Which of the following biotechnological methods was likely used to carry out this comparison?
DNA profiling using gel electrophoresis
karyotyping of Homo neanderthalensis DNA
amplifying Homo neanderthalensis DNA sample using PCR
inserting small fragments of Homo neanderthalensis DNA into human DNA
Radiation, such as X-rays, or mutagenic chemicals can cause mutations and cancer. Which of the statements correctly describes their effect on mutations in genes?
Radiation and mutagenic chemicals induce particular mutations to occur.
Radiation and mutagenic chemicals increase the number of oncogenes.
Radiation and mutagenic chemicals induce uncontrollable divisions of cells.
Radiation and mutagenic chemicals increase chances of random mutations in genes.
What is the probability of a child being a daughter with blood group O if the parents are both heterozygotes with blood group A?
0.125
0.555
0.255
0.025
What is the difference between the genetic material of gametes and zygotes?
Gametes have more chromosomes than zygotes.
Gametes have a single copy of an allele for each gene while zygotes have two copies for each gene.
Gametes have more genes than zygotes.
Gametes have two copies of alleles for each gene while zygotes inherit only one copy of an allele for each gene.
In meiosis the nucleus undergoes two divisions. Which of the statements about meiosis I is correct?
In meiosis I, the number of chromatids is doubled and the number of chromosomes halved.
In meiosis I, the number of nuclei and chromosomes is quadrupled.
In meiosis I, the number of chromosomes is halved and the number of nuclei is doubled.
In meiosis I, the number of chromatids is quadrupled and the number of nuclei is
If a diploid cell has 12 chromosomes in prophase I, how many chromatids will the cell have at the completion of anaphase I and anaphase II?
36 and 24
always 12
24 and 12
12 and 6
A student compared diploid chromosome numbers of several species with their genome size. Which of the conclusions about the chromosome number and genome size is true?
The size of the genome cannot be deduced from the number of chromosomes.
The bigger the genome size, the more chromosomes.
The more chromosomes, the smaller the genome size.
The size of the genome is proportional to the number of chromosomes.
Which of the statements about the chromosome number of a species is true?
The chromosome number is positively correlated with the genome size of a species.
The chromosome number tends to stay mostly unchanged in evolution of a species.
The chromosome number increases with the increase of mass of a species.
The chromosome number decreases over time in evolution of a species.
Karyograms are used to deduce sex and diagnose genetic diseases in humans. What would not be determined from a karyogram?
translocation of chromosome 13
deletion of chromosome 13
base substitution in a gene on chromosome 13
absence of chromosome 13
Which of these techniques was used by Cairns to measure the length of a DNA molecule?
X-rays with isotopes of caesium
chromatography with fluorescent markers
fluorescent RNA attached to DNA
autoradiography technique with radioactive isotopes
What are the features of bacterial genetic material?
Bacterial genetic material is not associated with proteins, and consists of a DNA loop with a single copy of each gene.
Bacterial genetic material is associated with proteins and consists of a DNA loop with multiple copies of each gene.
Bacterial genetic material is not associated with proteins, and consists of several small DNA molecules with multiple copies of each gene.
Bacterial genetic material is associated with proteins and consists of several small DNA molecules with a single copy of each gene.
What is the difference between a gene and an allele
A gene is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA while alleles are the sequences on chromosomes.
A gene is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA while alleles are forms of a gene that slightly differ in their base sequence.
A gene is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA while alleles describe the location of these nucleotides in a genome.
A gene is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA while alleles are the transcribed sequences in RNA.
Which is not likely to be the result of a base-substitution mutation in a gene?
Production of a protein with the same amino acid sequence as the original
Formation of a new allele
Production of an altered protein with a completely new series of amino acids
Production of a protein with one amino acid altered
DNA profiling has a number of uses. Which of the following are uses of DNA profiling?
I. Diagnosing inherited disorders
II. Paternity testing
III. Proving the innocence of a suspect in a crime
I only
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
Fertilisation occurs when a haploid sperm meets a haploid egg. The resulting cell is a diploid cell. What name do we give this diploid cell? (Answer with one word.)
(a)
Which enzyme is used to cut out the desired gene and to cut the plasmid when preparing for gene transfer?
Restriction endonuclease
DNA polymerase
Primase
DNA ligase
What name is given to the short strands of DNA that anneal to the target DNA sequence in order to identify the sequence of DNA to be copied?
Primase
Primers
mRNA
tRNA
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to amplify DNA. Which enzyme is required for the extension stage of PCR?
Primase
Helicase
Polymerase
Ligase
How does DNA move through agarose gel during electrophoresis?
Enzymes facilitate the movement of the DNA through the gel.
The DNA is positively charged and moves towards the negative electrode.
The DNA moves towards UV light that illuminates one end of the gel.
The DNA is negatively charged and moves towards the positive electrode.
In which process are DNA fragments separated according to their size?
Electrophoresis
PCR
DNA replication
Cloning
Which of the following genotypes would represent a male affected by a recessive, sex-linked disease?
XHY
XhY
XHXh
XhXh
Why is it not possible to be a carrier of Huntington’s disease?
Huntington’s is a recessive disease.
Huntington’s is an infectious disease.
Huntington’s is a dominant disease.
Huntington’s is a result of lifestyle.
A mutation in the CFTR gene causes cystic fibrosis. Which protein does this gene code for?
A protein that protects the lungs from enzyme activity.
An antibody used in fighting bacterial lung diseases.
A respiratory enzyme.
A chloride channel in the mucous membrane.
Why does the proteome of a species contain a larger number of proteins than can be coded for by the genome of the same species?
Because the proteome is a subset of proteins synthesized by the genome during the development of an organism.
Because there is differential and development-specific expression of genes.
Because not all proteins are coded by the genome.
Because some proteins are coded by other proteins.
What is the type of inheritance shown in the following pedigree? Blue represents no disease symptoms, pink represents having disease symptoms. Squares are males and circles are females.
Sex linked dominant
Sex linked recessive
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
Which process occurs during cloning of animals using differentiated cells?
The oocyte is exposed to infra-red light to destroy the donor cell nucleus.
An oocyte nucleus is replaced with a donor nucleus.
A sperm cell is injected into the receiver’s oviduct.
The nucleus of a spermatocyte is injected into the oocyte.
Which technique causes fragments of DNA to move in an electric field?
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Genetic engineering
DNA profiling
Gel electrophoresis
A gorilla cell has between 20,000 and 25,000 genes whereas an E. coli cell has approximately 4000 genes. Which of the following statements is true?
The gorilla genome is larger than the E. coli genome.
There are more genes on each gorilla chromosome than on the E. coli chromosome.
The gorilla cell and the E. coli cell produce approximately the same variety of proteins.
The DNA in both organisms is associated with histones (proteins).
Which of the following is true about autosomes and sex chromosomes?
There are two different types of sex chromosomes but only one type of autosome.
Sex chromosomes only control sex, puberty and reproduction. Autosomes control all other characteristics.
Males and females have the same type of autosomes but different sex chromosomes.
Sex chromosomes form homologous pairs in meiosis but autosomes remain unpaired.
Which of the following are directly involved in both replication and transcription?
DNA
RNA only
DNA and ribosomes
DNA, RNA and ribosomes
Which type of molecule is shown in the diagram below?
Peptide
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Nucleic acid
