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Bio Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT related to the five fundamental characteristics of life?

a)

A bacterial cell divides to produce two cells.

b)

Sugars are broken down inside cells to produce energy.

c)

Giraffes have longer necks so that they can reach food sources unavailable to other animals

2.

Pasteur's experiments proved that ________.

a)

spontaneous generation can only occur if nutrient broth is left open to the environment

b)

preexisting cells present in the air can grow in sterilized nutrient broth

c)

sterilizing nutrient broth prevents spontaneous generation

3.

Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation. If he had just warmed the nutrient rich broth, rather than boiled it, what would have been the likely outcome of his experiment? Cells would ________.

a)

have appeared in both flasks

b)

not have appeared in either flask

c)

have appeared in the swan-neck but not the straight-neck flask

4.

Spontaneous generation ________.

a)

was demonstrated to occur under normal laboratory conditions by Pasteur

b)

apparently occurred at least once–when life on Earth began

c)

occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species

5.

Cells are ________.

a)

limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter

b)

characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms

c)

characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms

6.

The cell theory states that all cells come from preexisting cells. If this is the case, why are the cells in a multicellular organism so different from one another?

a)

Cells in a multicellular organism are exposed to different energy sources allowing them to develop different features.

b)

The genetic information of each cell is copied and passed on to the daughter cells and the molecular machinery makes copies of particular genes in different cells to generate different features in those cells.

c)

During cell division, the genetic information that is replicated and passed onto the daughter cells is different from the original cell.

7.

In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes ________.

a)

lack a nucleus, as do archaea, while eukaryotes have a nucleus

b)

have chromosomes composed of single-stranded DNA, while eukaryotes have chromosomes composed of double-stranded DNA

c)

are more closely related to archaea than eukaryotes

8.

Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because ________.

a)

protists eat bacteria

b)

bacteria cannot generate their own ATP, protists can

c)

protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack

9.

How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?

a)

Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses.

b)

Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses typically address more specific issues.

c)

Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories typically address more specific issues.

10.

Louis Pasteur's experiment was designed well because ________.

a)

the possible outcomes led to distinct, unambiguous conclusions

b)

simple equipment was used

c)

a major question, spontaneous generation, was tested

11.

A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are ________.

a)

making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start

b)

stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction

c)

testing a theory for why the car will not start

12.

In the process of science, which of these is NOT used to test a hypothesis?

a)

A theory

b)

A result

c)

An observation

13.

A controlled experiment ________.

a)

includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment

b)

includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables

c)

includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables

14.

Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?

I. It is testable.

II. It is falsifiable.

III. It produces quantitative data.

IV.It produces results that can be replicated.

a)

III only

b)

I and II

c)

III and IV

15.

Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?

a)

The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.

b)

The control group is matched with the experimental group, except for one experimental variable.

c)

The control group is left alone by the experimenters.

16.

A controlled experiment is one that ________.

a)

proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results

b)

tests experimental and control groups in parallel

c)

is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate

17.

Which of the following statements best distinguishes scientific hypotheses from scientific theories?

a)

Hypotheses describe and theories explain.

b)

Hypotheses are usually narrower in scope; theories have broader explanatory power.

c)

Hypotheses explain and theories describe.

18.

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which 4 of these 25 elements make up approximately 96 percent of living matter?

a)

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

b)

Carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

c)

Oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen

19.

Why is each element unique with respect to its chemical properties? Each element has a distinctive ________.

a)

number of protons

b)

number of electrons

c)

atomic mass

20.

Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?

a)

The number of neutrons in the element

b)

The number of protons plus neutrons in the element

c)

The number of protons in the element

21.

Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However, the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12 daltons. Why?

a)

Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.

b)

Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.

c)

The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.

22.

From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has ________.

a)

15 neutrons and 15 protons

b)

8 electrons in its outermost electron shell

c)

15 protons and 15 electrons

23.

A covalent chemical bond is one in which ________.

a)

electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged

b)

protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms

c)

outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals

24.

Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?

a)

Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge.

b)

Ammonia has an overall positive charge.

c)

Ammonia has an overall negative charge.

25.

Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are ________.

a)

polar covalent bonds

b)

nonpolar covalent bonds

c)

ionic bonds

26.

A covalent bond is likely to be polar when ________.

a)

the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative

b)

carbon is one of the two atoms sharing electrons

c)

one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom

27.

What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

a)

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between charged atoms.

b)

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms.

c)

Covalent bonds require carbon whereas ionic bonds do not.

28.

How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

29.

Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that are ________; these elements tend to form ________ in solution.

a)

almost empty; anions

b)

almost empty; cations

c)

almost full; cations

30.

When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of bond results?

a)

A nonpolar covalent bond

b)

A hydrogen bond

c)

An ionic bond

31.

You need to write down information about a molecule, but you only need to indicate the type and number of atoms it contains. Which representation would work best?

a)

Ball-and-stick model

b)

Structural formula

c)

Molecular formula

32.

Water has a high specific heat because of the ________.

a)

hydrogen bond formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule

b)

covalent bond formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule

c)

ionic bonds formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule

33.

Which of the following is a property of liquid water? Liquid water ________.

a)

has a specific heat that is lower than that for most other substances

b)

has a heat of vaporization that is higher than that for most other substances

c)

is less dense than ice

34.

A scientific theory is:

a)

a concept that is supported by experimental evidence that explains the facts in an area of study.

b)

a way to understand a complex system by reducing it to its working parts.

c)

a way to organize how we think about a problem.

35.

After Darwin concluded his voyage on the Beagle, he proposed that the process of natural selection was a mechanism for:

a)

overpopulation of finches on the Galapagos Islands.

b)

speciation.

c)

evolution.

36.

It is known that many trees lose their leaves in response to decreasing day length. As a result, you think that Gingko trees may also lose their leaves in response to decreasing day length. This statement is an example of:

a)

an experiment

b)

A theory

c)

A hypothesis

37.

Darwin's book in which he described his views on evolution

a)

On the Origin of Species

b)

Survival of the Fittest

c)

Principles of Geology

38.

Multiple independent experiments have demonstrated that phytochrome helps trigger seasonal change responses in the plant such as changing color and loosening of leaves. Plants have the ability adapt to seasonal changes in their surroundings. This statement is an example of:

a)

A theory

b)

An experiment

c)

Inductive reasoning

39.

The term that Darwin used to describe the concept that those with superior physical, behavior or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed, and thus are more likely to pass their traits to the next generation, is called:

a)

Geometric progression

b)

Superior beings

c)

Natural selection

40.

The area around a nucleus where an electron is most likely to be found is the:

a)

orbital

b)

polar space

c)

energy level

41.

Which element's isotope is commonly used to determine when biological samples such as fossils, were formed?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Carbon

42.

Atoms in which the number of electrons does not equal the number of protons are known as:

a)

Ions

b)

Valences

c)

Isotopes

43.

Carbon-12, Carbon-13 and Carbon-14 are examples of

a)

molecules

b)

isotopes

c)

isomers

44.

Two carbon atoms joined to each other by the sharing of two pairs of electrons, form a(n):

a)

single bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

double covalent bond

45.

The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is attracted to the partial positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?

a)

a covalent bond

b)

a hydrogen bond

c)

an ionic bond

46.

What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

a)

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between charged atoms

b)

Covalent bonds require carbon whereas ionic bonds do not.

c)

Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between charged atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms.

47.

An atom has 20 electrons and 20 neutrons. What is the mass of this atom?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

48.

To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance has to have the capacity to absorb a great deal of heat. You have a reference book with tables listing the physical properties of many liquids. In choosing a coolant for your car, which table would you check first?

a)

pH

b)

specific heat

c)

heat of vaporization

49.

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by ________.

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

polar covalent bonds

c)

ionic bonds

50.

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because ________.

a)

the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus

b)

the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by hydrogen atoms

c)

one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom

51.

Which of the following effects can occur because of the high surface tension of water?

a)

Lakes cannot freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.

b)

A raft spider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

c)

Organisms can resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.

52.

Why does ice float in liquid water?

a)

The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.

b)

Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.

c)

Stable hydrogen bonds keep water molecules of ice farther apart than water molecules of liquid water.

53.

Sue was monitoring the oil spill into the Gulf of Mexico from an oil tanker. From her observations, she noted that the oil was moving as large patches in the water. It did not appear as though the oil was dissolving into the water. Why did the oil not dissolve into the water?

a)

surface tension

b)

Sea water acts as a solvent

c)

hydrophobic interactions

54.

A solution contains 0.0000001 (10−7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH−] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?

a)

acidic: H+ donor

b)

basic: H+ donor

c)

neutral

55.

All atoms tend to fill their outer energy levels with the maximum number of electrons, usually eight. Depending on whether atoms satisfy the octet rule will predict:

a)

the chemical behavior of atoms

b)

whether they will be found in nature

c)

their radioactive energy

56.

In the chemical reaction CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O, there are reactants on the left of the equation and products on the right. If you count the atoms in the reactants, there are

a)

1 carbon atom, 4 hydrogen atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

b)

4 carbon atoms, 4 hydrogen atoms, and 2 oxygen atoms.

c)

1 carbon atom, 4 hydrogen atoms, and 2 oxygen atoms.

57.

The two nitrogen atoms in nitrogen gas (N2) share six electrons forming a _____.

a)

double covalent bond

b)

hydrogen bond

c)

triple covalent bond

58.

If two substances react and the temperature of the mixture increases, the reaction is

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothermic

c)

One that needs a catalyst

59.

Consider the following electronegativity values:

Boron (B) = 1.8

Carbon (C) = 2.5

Chlorine (Cl) = 3.2

Selenium (Se) = 2.6

Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

a)

Se-Cl

b)

cannot determine from the info provided

c)

B-Cl

60.

If a reaction is endothermic

a)

The temperature increases

b)

It takes more energy to break the bonds of the reactants than is released when the bonds in the products are formed.

c)

The same amount of energy is used to break the bonds of the reactants as is released when the bonds in the products are formed.

61.

As you and a friend are entering a chemistry laboratory at your university, you see a sign that states: DANGER— RADIOACTIVE ISOTOPES IN USE. Your friend is an accounting major and has not had any science courses yet. She asks you what a radioactive isotope is and you respond correctly with:

a)

emit energy in a process called radioactive decay.

b)

Radioactive isotopes are atoms that are stable and as a result emit energy in a process called radioactive decay.

c)

Radioactive isotopes are atoms that are stable and as a result only emit energy if they are exposed to higher temperatures.

62.

In any sample of water, there are always some water molecules which have become ions. These ions are produced by transferring a ________ from one water molecule to another.

a)

Neutron

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

63.

In any sample of water, there are always some water molecules which have become ions. These ions are

a)

H2O + and OH

b)

HO+ and H2O -

c)

H3O + and OH

64.

Sodium has 11 electrons arranged in three energy levels. In order to become stable, sodium form an ion with:

a)

no charge

b)

-1 charge

c)

+1 charge

65.

Life is thought to have evolved from complex molecules formed by the interaction of smaller molecules in oceans and the atmosphere. The substance which brought these molecules together to interact is

a)

hydrogen

b)

water

c)

salts