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BIOLOGY - SEM 2: FINAL EXAM '20-21

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 3hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Describe how energy and matter flow through ecosystems.

a)

Matter & energy are recycled within and between ecosystems.

b)

Matter flows in one direction & energy is recycled.

c)

Matter & energy flow in one direction in ecosystems.

d)

Matter is recycled & energy flows in one direction in ecosystems.

2.
What is the water cycle?
a)
the 3 forms of water
b)
the movement of water on, above, or below the surface of the Earth
c)
when water melts
d)
when clouds form
3.

What is being shown in this picture?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

sublimation

d)

transpiration

4.

Snow, hail, sleet, and rain are all examples of ________________.

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

accumulation

d)

precipitation

5.
In the water cycle, the sun provides
a)
energy for water to evaporate from oceans, lakes and rivers.
b)
water for evaporation to happen. 
c)
energy to produce electricity. 
d)
water for condensation to happen. 
6.

The water, phosphorus, nitrogen, and carbon cycles have

a)

a beginning and an end.

b)

no beginning an no end.

c)

only a beginning.

d)

only an end.

7.

Which stage does the #1 show in the diagram?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

run off

8.

During which stage does snow fall in the mountains?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

9.
Which best describes percolation / infiltration? 
a)
Water that is absorbed into the ground
b)
Water that is absorbed into a plant
c)
Water that flows into a river / lake
d)
All the water that is part of a riverbasin
10.
Which answer below is closest to the amount of the Earth's surface covered with water?
a)
1/4 = 25%
b)
1/2 = 50%
c)
3/4 = 75%
d)
1/5 = 20%
11.

The process in which nitrogen circulates and is recycled is called

a)

The nitrogen cycle

b)

The carbon cycle

c)

The water cycle

d)

The phosphorus cycle

12.

Organisms that need nitrogen to survive.

a)

only plants

b)

only animals

c)

only bacteria

d)

all living things

13.

How is nitrogen "fixed" into a usable form for plants?

a)

Through action of bacteria only

b)

Through lightning only

c)

Through action of bacteria and lightning

d)

Through photosynthesis

14.

Gas that makes up 78% of our atmosphere.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

15.

What process occurs when dead plant and animal matter decomposes and nitrogen is released back into the atmosphere?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Fixation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Denitrification

16.

In the nitrogen cycle, what does label B in the diagram represent?

a)

Bacterial Nitrogen Fixation

b)

Uptake by producers

c)

Denitrification

d)

Nitrogen in the atmosphere

17.

A correct path that nitrogen could take would be

a)

air -> animals -> plants -> bacteria

b)

animals -> air -> bacteria -> plants

c)

bacteria -> air -> plants -> animals

d)

air -> bacteria -> plants -> animals

18.

Which groundwater contaminant contained in fertilizers and pesticides comes from farms?

a)

calcium carbonate

b)

carbonic acid

c)

nitrates

d)

bicarbonate

19.
Plants and animals need nitrogen to make __________.
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Lipids
d)
Minerals
20.

This is NOT a part of the phosphorus cycle.

a)

Phosphate is incorporated into sedimentary rocks

b)

Phosphate bound to soil

c)

Atmospheric phosphate

d)

Phosphate is absorbed from the soil by plants

21.
Phosphorous is passed from plants to ____ who eat them
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
scavengers
22.

Phosphorus is essential to all living organisms because it helps to form life-sustaining molecules such as...

*Select all that apply.

a)

protein

b)

RNA

c)

carbohydrates

d)

amino acids

e)

DNA

23.
Which of the following statements is true of the phosphorus cycle?
a)
Phosphorus enters the atmosphere as phosphates.
b)
The phosphorus cycle utilizes the processes of erosion, and weathering.
c)
Phosphates are used in carbohydrate and glucose storage.
d)
The phosphorus cycle utilizes bacteria to breakdown phosphates and make them available for plants.
24.

Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?

a)

Owl

b)

Fish

c)

Tree

d)

Mushroom (fungus)

25.
What role do decomposers play in the phosphorous cycle?
a)
absorb phosphorous 
b)
release phosphorous into atmosphere
c)
return phosphorous into the soil
d)
combustion
26.
Which nutrient is not cycled through the atmosphere and stays only on ground level?
a)
carbon
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
water
27.
What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
28.

Which law states that matter cannot be created nor destroyed?

a)

Law of Conservation of Energy

b)

Law of Conservation of Matter

c)

Law of Angular Momentum

d)

Newton's Laws of Motion

29.
Combustion is another word for __________.
a)
Transportation
b)
Respiration
c)
Fossil Fuels
d)
Burning
30.
TRUE or FALSE?
All of the carbon in existence is continually recycled in the carbon cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
31.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
32.

Which of the following do NOT contain carbon? *Select all that apply.

a)

The atmosphere

b)

Soil

c)

Fossil fuels

d)

sodium chloride

e)

water molecules

33.
Respiration is the process by which animals take in _____ and release _____. 
a)
photosynthesis, air
b)
carbon, oxygen
c)
oxygen
d)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
34.

Which compound(s) contain carbon atoms? *Select all that apply.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

ammonium

c)

calcium carbonate

d)

methane

35.

After the autotrophs absorb the CO2 from the atmosphere, what do they produce that CONTINUES the CARBON CYCLE?

a)

glucose

b)

ATP

c)

water

d)

oxygen

e)

hydrogen sulfide

36.

How does the carbon in grass become part of a PRIMARY CONSUMER?

a)

The primary consumer eats the grass

b)

Carbon from grass doesn't end up in a primary consumer.

c)

The carbon ends up in the primary consumers food chain.

d)

The primary consumer breathes in carbon given out by the plant.

37.
If the plant population decreased, the amount of carbon would _________.
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
38.
What is deforestation?
a)
Clearing Earth's forests on a massive scale
b)
Eating too much vegetables
c)
Going to a forest and pulling weeds
d)
Clearing the five trees in my backyard
39.

Does deforestation contribute to global warming?

a)

No, trees aren't that important

b)

Sometimes because only the cutting down of Maple trees contributes to global warming

c)

No, deforestation adds methane to the atmosphere, which makes the Earth cooler

d)

Yes; less trees means less CO2 is turned into oxygen.

40.

The largest carbon sink is ___________ and it's important because it ____________________________.

a)

the desert; adds carbon to the atmosphere.

b)

the ocean; removes carbon from the atmosphere.

c)

the ocean; adds carbon to the earth's crust.

d)

the forest; adds carbon to the atmosphere.

e)

the forest; removes carbon from the atmosphere.

41.

If decomposition did not occur, what would happen?

a)

Carbon would not be recycled into the atmosphere.

b)

Carbon would be locked in the waste and dead matter, leaving less and less CO2 for photosynthesis.

c)

Wastes and dead organisms would pile up.

d)

There would be more CO2 available because decomposers didn't break down wastes and decaying matter.

e)

There would be more animals on the planet because the decomposers did not break them down.

42.

Which of the following is/are NOT examples of the combustion of fossil fuels? (Select all that apply...)

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.

____________________ is a part of oceans, air, rocks, soil, and all living things.

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Water

c)

Carbon

d)

Phosphorus

44.
Which is the main source of dissolved oxygen in the ocean?
a)
underwater earthquakes
b)
decay of living organisms
c)
animals that live near the surface
d)
plants and algae that live near the surface
45.

Substances below 7 on the pH scale are considered __________, pH 7 is ___________, and substances above pH7 are considered ____________.

a)

acidic; neutral; basic (alkaline)

b)

basic (alkaline); neutral; acidic

c)

neutral; acidic; basic (alkaline)

d)

acidic; basic (alkaline); neutral

e)

basic (alkaline); acidic; neutral

46.

What is the useful form of energy for all organisms?

a)

glucose

b)

ADP

c)

ATP

d)

starch

e)

protein

47.

Which of the following is/are NOT natural form(s) of combustion?

a)

power lines sparking a wildfire

b)

lightning sparking a forest fire

c)

nuclear reactors generating electricity

d)

burning fossil fuels to power factories

48.

The burying of microscopic organisms that lived millions of years ago under conditions of extreme heat and pressure will NOT result in which of the following?

*Select all that apply.

a)

oil

b)

coal

c)

natural gas

49.

The _______________ is the sphere that contains the crust and core of Earth.

a)

atmosphere

b)

biosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

geosphere

50.

A cell spends the majority of its life, actually __%, in this phase ___________.

a)

100, interphase

b)

10, cytokinesis

c)

40, mitosis

d)

90, interphase

51.

The division of the cytoplasm is called

a)

mitosis

b)

interphase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

somatic

52.
A repeating sequence of growth and division...
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)

Cell Cycle

d)
Somatic
53.
Which of the following shows the correct order for mitosis
a)
Prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase
b)
telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
54.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
55.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
56.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
57.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
58.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
59.

How many chromosomes do humans have?

a)

46

b)

21

c)

10

d)

23

60.
Cytokinesis is a phase of mitosis. 
a)
True
b)
False 
61.

Chromatin refers to DNA that is...

a)

old and needs to be dissolved.

b)

completely unzipped and ready for replication.

c)

tightly bound into chromosome-like structures.

d)

uncoiled in the nucleus; looks relaxed like a bowl of spaghetti.

62.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
63.

Which phase is shown here?

a)

anaphase

b)

telolphase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

64.

An individual living thing that is capable of responding to stimuli, growing, reproducing, and maintaining homeostasis is called a(n) ______________.

a)

organism

b)

virus

c)

predator

d)

cancer

65.

Select all that apply to "Single Celled Organisms"

a)

made up of eykaryotic cells

b)

made up of a prokaryotic cell

c)

reproduce through mitosis

d)

reproduce through binary fission

e)

can respond to stimuli, grow, reproduce, and maintain homeostasis

66.

Select all that apply to "Multicellular Organisms"

a)

made up of specialized eykaryotic cells

b)

made up of a prokaryotic cell

c)

reproduce through mitosis

d)

reproduce through binary fission

e)

can respond to stimuli, grow, reproduce, and maintain homeostasis

67.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
68.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
69.

A female pig has 38 chromosomes in each of its somatic cells. How many would be present in its sex cells?

a)

9

b)

19

c)

38

d)

76

e)

152

70.

Which of the following cause genetic variation? *Select all that apply.

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

crossing over of chromosomes

c)

random fertilization

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

e)

independent assortment

71.

Compare/Contrast Spermatogenesis & Oogenesis. *Select all that are FALSE.

a)

Both produce haploid cells that are genetically different.

b)

Spermatogenesis produces 1 gamete and 3 polar bodies.

c)

Oogenesis produces 1 gamete and 3 polar bodies.

d)

Both produce 4 cells that are used in reproduction

e)

Both produce haploid cells that are genetically identical.

72.

What type of cells store the genetic information that is passed to off-spring?

a)

BODY CELLS

b)

SOMATIC CELLS

c)

EGG

d)

SPERM

e)

GAMETES

73.

MEIOSIS... *Select all that apply.

a)

REDUCES THE NUMBER OF CHROMOSOMES BY ONE HALF

b)

PRODUCES 4 DIFFERENT SEX CELLS (n)

c)

ALLOWS TRAITS TO BE PASSED TO OFFSPRING

d)

INCREASES GENETIC VARIATION

e)

NONE ARE TRUE

74.

MEIOSIS

a)

REDUCES THE NUMBER OF CHROMOSOMES BY ONE HALF

b)

PRODUCES UNIQUE SEX CELLS-1N

c)

ALLOWS TRAITS TO BE PASSED TO OFFSPRING

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

e)

INCREASE GENETIC VARIATION

75.

If the diploid number of carrots is 18, the haploid number is

a)

18

b)

9

c)

27

d)

36

76.
What phase is this?
a)
Interphase II
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Anaphase II
77.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Telophase II
d)
Anaphase I
78.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase II
b)
Anaphase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Interphase I
79.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase I
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
 Metaphase I
80.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Metaphase II
b)
Telophase I
c)
Telophase II
d)
Metaphase I
81.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Telophase II
82.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
83.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

84.
What causes mutations?
a)
Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
b)
The amino acids
c)
Passed down by genetics
d)
It's how your born
85.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Mutations are NEVER helpful to the organism.

a)

true

b)

false

87.
What are the building blocks of proteins called?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
88.
Stem cells are ____________________.
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably
b)
undifferentiated and can turn into any type of cell
c)
those that never go through cell division
d)
differentiated cells that do one job
89.

Which of the following are true about CANCER? *Select all that apply.

a)

Uncontrolled cell growth

b)

Cells no longer function correctly

c)

Cells which have lost the ability to reproduce

d)

Cells which create abnormal tissues

e)

Cells that can metastasize

90.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
91.

Stem cells can be obtained from... *Select all that apply.

a)

embryos

b)

some adult tissues

c)

umbilical cord blood

d)

all adult tissues

e)

none of these

92.
Which is true about embryonic stem cells?
a)
They no longer divide, their cell type is set and cannot change.
b)
They can develop into only one type of cell.
c)
They can become any cell type in the body.
d)
They are found in adults.
93.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
94.

The reproductive process involving two parents whose genetic material is combined to produce a new organism different from themselves...

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

binary fission

d)

mitosis

95.

A method of reproduction that requires only one parent...

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

stem cells

d)

cell cycle

96.

Mutation that causes NON-CANCEROUS tumors that do not spread to the surrounding tissues...

a)

malignant

b)

benign

c)

carcinogen

d)

metastasis

97.

Mutation that causes CANCEROUS tumors that invades the surrounding tissues...

a)

malignant

b)

benign

c)

carcinogen

d)

metastasis

98.

Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

carcinogen

b)

tumor

c)

pathogen

d)

virus

e)

bacteria

99.

An abnormal mass/group of cancer cells is called a

a)

tumor

b)

cyst

c)

lesion

d)

polyp

100.

If cancerous cells travel throughout your body, the cells have...

a)

metastasized

b)

migrated

c)

flowed

d)

locomoted

101.

Anything that can cause mutations or turn on cancer genes.

Examples: smoking, radiation, chemicals, poor diet

a)

Risk Factors

b)

Mutations

c)

Tumors

d)

Predispositions

102.

What is a variation?

a)

a difference between individuals of the same species

b)

the same trait between individuals

103.

What is a mutation?

a)

No change in DNA

b)

Any change in DNA

c)

No change in RNA

104.

Which of the following are ways genetic mutation can occur? *Select all that apply.

a)

expression

b)

addition

c)

deletion

d)

sex-linked

e)

substitution

105.

What are the effects that mutations can have?

a)

only harmful effects

b)

Harmful, helpful and neutral

c)

only harmful and neutral effects

d)

environmental

106.

When can an acquired mutation be passed from parent to offspring?

a)

only if the mutation occurs in sex cells

b)

only if the mutation occurs in the y-chromosome

c)

only if the parent has an acquired mutation in an autosomal chromosome

d)

only if neither of the parents has the mutation in sex cells.

107.

A mutation adds a single base pair at the beginning of a gene's coding sequence. How will this affect the protein made from the gene?

a)

The protein will be non-functional.

b)

The protein will work extra hard.

c)

The protein will not exist

108.

What advantage do organisms that reproduce sexually have or organisms that reproduce asexually?

a)

Organisms that reproduce sexually can reproduce faster

b)

Organisms that reproduce sexually don't need a mate

c)

Organisms that reproduce sexually have a better chance of survival if the environment changes

d)

Organisms that reproduce sexually are exactly like their parents.

109.

Amoebas, hydras, and yeast reproduce asexually so

a)

offspring is exactly like their parents

b)

offspring is not like either parent

c)

offspring take a long time to be born

d)

offspring will survive if something wipes their parent out

110.

Inherited traits are controlled by

a)

nucleus

b)

chromosomes

c)

genes

d)

cells

111.

Which of the following is NOT a source of genetic diversity?

a)

mutation

b)

segregation of homologs

c)

independent assortment of homologous pairs

d)

mitosis

112.

This law describes how each homologous pair separates independently of any other pairs during Anaphase I of meiosis. *Select all that apply

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Gravity

d)

Law of Mathematical Order

e)

Law of Probability

113.
Crossing over is important because....
a)
It prevents mutations from entering the gametes. 
b)
It allows for even distribution of chromosomes in the gametes.
c)
It allows for more genetic diversity of gametes.
d)
It allows for genetic uniformity of gametes. 
114.

Which type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

e)

Deletion

115.

Which type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

e)

Translocation

116.

Which type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

tranverse

d)

insertion

e)

translocation

117.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

118.

An abnormal mass/group of cells is called a _____________ if it doesn't spread to other tissues.

a)

benign tumor

b)

malignant tumor

c)

benign lesion

d)

malignant polyp

e)

benign cyst

119.
A cancer causing agent is best known as a(n)_______.
a)
carcinogen 
b)
mutation 
c)
inheritance 
d)
metastasis 
120.

Cancer is caused due to

a)

Controlled mitosis

b)

Uncontrolled mitosis

c)

Controlled meiosis

d)

Uncontrolled meiosis

121.

Example of mutagens

a)

all are mutagens

b)

x-rays

c)

ultraviolet radiation

d)

tobacco

e)

pesticides

122.

Chromosomes that are paired by size and content are called _______ chromosomes.

a)

homeostasis

b)

homologous

c)

matching

d)

sister

123.

Cells that contain 2 sets of chromosomes are called _________ (2n).

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

triploid

d)

polyploid

124.

Which sequence of complementary DNA bases would pair with this partial strand AAG CCG GTA?

a)

AAG CCG GTA

b)

TTC GGC CAT

c)

GAA GCC ATG

d)

TTC GGG CAT

e)

TTC GGC GAT

125.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Protein Synthesis

126.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

127.

The physical expression of a genetic trait is called a

a)

mutation

b)

genotype

c)

crossing over

d)

phenotype

128.

The following items are examples of __________.

Items: eye color, hair color, height

a)

homozygous alleles

b)

genotypes

c)

heterozygous alleles

d)

phenotypes

129.
B=brown eyes
b= blue eyes
What is true about these two brothers that have brown eyes:
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
a)
they have same phenotype and genotype
b)
they have different genotypes and phenotypes
c)
they have same phenotype but different genotypes
d)
they have same genotype but different phenotypes
130.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
131.

A haploid (n) cell of a whale has 21 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will you find in one of its somatic cells?

a)

10.5

b)

21

c)

42

d)

84

e)

168

132.

A haploid cell from a female snail has 12 chromosomes. What type of cell is this? Choose all that apply

a)

Sperm

b)

Egg

c)

Heart Cell

d)

Somatic

e)

Gamete

133.

A Tasmanian devil has 6 chromosomes in its gametes. What is the haploid number?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

e)

48

134.

A gene pool consists of

a)

all of the genes, including all the different alleles, that are present in a population

b)

some of the genes, including the different alleles, that are present in a population

c)

all of the genes that are present in all populations

d)

all of the genes, including all the different alleles, that are present in all populations

135.

A version or variation of a gene

a)

trait

b)

gene

c)

allele

d)

DNA

136.

Two genetically identical plants were crossed. The genotypic ratios of offspring are seen in the Punnett square.


What percent of the offspring should NOT look like the parents?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

137.

Inherited traits are passed down from our parents to us, their offspring, by the information that is coded in our parents'

a)

RNA

b)

antibodies

c)

chromosomes.

d)

plasma.

138.

Absent-mindedness is an inherited recessive trait. The Punnett square shows the genetic cross for absent-mindedness in the Smith family. If the Smith's have 3 children, how many could be absent-minded?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

139.

How are scientists able to compare DNA from bones or teeth to that found in hairs on a hairbrush?

a)

They cannot and this is making body identification very difficult.

b)

Each sample provides an exact karyotype for genetic identification.

c)

DNA is the same in every cell of the body and does not change over time.

d)

The DNA must all come from the hair in order to be accurate

140.

In rabbits, the allele for black fur, B, is dominant over the allele for brown fur, b. Calculate the probability of a homozygous dominant (BB) offspring resulting from a cross between two parents with the genotype Bb. *Hint: Use scratch paper to solve the Punnett square.

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

87.5%

141.

Which of the following is a Homozygous Dominant Genotype?

a)

Cc

b)

ZZ

c)

mm

142.

Which of the following is a homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

LL

b)

ww

c)

Qq

143.

Which of the following is a heterozygous genotype?

a)

Ee

b)

Nn

c)

ii

144.

Which of the following would NOT go in the yellow box? *Select all that apply.

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

145.

What is the chance the offspring born from this cross will have a homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

146.

The Punnett square is used to tell the color of a frogs skin. "G" means green skin and "g" means brown skin. What is the chance the baby frogs will have green skin?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

147.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
148.

What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

2:2

b)

4:0

c)

0:2:2

d)

2:2:0

e)

2:0:2

149.

Based off this Punnett Square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, green seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

e)

4/16

150.

What fraction of offspring from the cross AaBB x Aabb will be homozygous recessive for trait "A" and heterozygous for trait "B."? *Hint: Use scratch paper to solve the Punnett square.

a)

1/16

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/16

e)

7/16

151.

In cacti, long arms (A) are dominant to short arms (a). Suppose 2 heterozygous cacti are crossed. What percentage of their offspring are expected to have long arms? *Hint: Use scratch paper to solve the Punnett square.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

100%

152.

What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

2:2

b)

4:0

c)

0:2:2

d)

2:2:0

e)

2:0:2

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