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WorksheetsAPES Unit 5 Review - Land and Water Use
Total questions: 126
Worksheet time: 6hrs 18mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following can be described as a market-based system intended to help control access to fisheries?
a)
Cap and trade
b)
total allowable catch system
c)
co-management systems
d)
individual transfer rights system
2.
The geological layer, consisting of underground caverns and porous layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock, where groundwater flows, is called
a)
The zone of saturation
b)
Recharge point
c)
Aquifer
d)
bedrock
3.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
4.
Reverse osmosis is a process in which:
a)
Cells release water into the surrounding fluids.
b)
salt water is forced through a membrane to remove particulates.
c)
solid wastes are removed from septic systems.
d)
storm water runoff is diverted into natural water sources.
5.
The Mississippi River carries agricultural runoff to the Gulf of Mexico. What phenomenon results?
a)
a dead zone
b)
regular flooding of the Mississippi delta
c)
return of mining refuse water
d)
Gold tides
6.
What percentage of expensive bottled water is actually bottled tap water?
a)
10%
b)
30%
c)
40%
d)
56.72468%
7.
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sources of groundwater contamination?
a)
Industry
b)
Agriculture
c)
Mining
d)
Lawn fertilizers
8.
Which of the following could be described as "non-point source" pollution?
a)
A farmer dumps her waste into a stream that runs through her property.
b)
A mining impoundment pond overflows.
c)
Over 100,000 acres of continuos farmland has water with excess levels of nitrates.
d)
Waste water from a nuclear plant spills into a nearby waterway.
9.
The Great Lakes are threatened. Which of the following is a success story from the 2007 State of the Great Lakes Report?
a)
Native carnivorous fish numbers are increasing.
b)
Wetlands are being restored.
c)
Native species at the base of the food chain are increasing in size.
d)
Dissolved oxygen levels have improved.
10.
Streams and Rivers can cleanse themselves, why can't groundwater?
a)
It moves too quickly.
b)
It doesn't move quickly enough.
c)
It is too close to the surface to be adequately purified.
d)
It is too deep in the ground to be adequately purified.
11.
Lake Washington was restored due to:
a)
The Clean Water Act
b)
The Safe Drinking Water Act
c)
Citizen pressure
d)
The Superfund Act
12.
Coliforms are good indicator of:
a)
water quality
b)
invasive species
c)
parasites
d)
air quality
13.
Of the following organisms, the group that is least likely to cause disease is:
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protzoa
c)
Algae
d)
Parasitic worms
14.
[BLANK] is the branch of ecology which studies ways to encourage biodiversity in human-dominated ecosystems.
a)
Biomimicry
b)
Reconciliation ecology
c)
Restorative ecology
d)
Preventative Ecology
15.
Which of the following is NOT a problem with suburban sprawl?
a)
destruction of habitats
b)
loss of wetlands
c)
noise pollution
d)
air and water pollution
16.
Type of pollution found in urban areas
a)
light
b)
noise
c)
air
d)
all of these
17.
Where is urban growth the fastest?
a)
highly developed countries
b)
moderately developed countries
c)
less developed countries
d)
developing countries
18.
The systematic removal of rock or other substance for financial gain.
a)
smelting
b)
mining
c)
urban farming
d)
forestry
19.
A mineral or group of minerals from which we extract metal.
a)
metal
b)
ore
c)
magma
d)
overburden
20.
GMOs are leading to loss of original/ native plants because of cross breeding effecting genetic diversity
a)
true
b)
false
21.
Use of this method of control requires concentrations to be increased often because pest develop resistance
a)
GMOs
b)
Pestsides
c)
plant removal
d)
control burning
22.
The Green Revolution was
a)
a dramatic increase in crop yields in developing countries
b)
change to more sustainable agriculture
c)
way of fighting soil erosion
d)
power grab by the Green party in the 1980s
23.
Mining involves the _____________, _________________ and _________________ of minerals.
a)
Retrieving, Highjacking, and Selling
b)
Extraction, Refining, Processing
c)
Locating, Destroying and Incineration
d)
Extraction, Fermenting and Tasting
24.
Reclamation is the process of
a)
Removing coal from a subsurface seam
b)
Extracting ore minerals from gangue minerals
c)
Returning land to its original or better condition
d)
Protecting the habitats of local wildlife
25.
Which of the following is the leading use of water globally?
a)
Domestic/Residential
b)
Industry
c)
Business/Commercial
d)
Agriculture
26.
Which of the following type of tree harvesting is the most detrimental to the environment?
a)
Strip Cutting
b)
Selective Cutting
c)
Clear Cutting
d)
Partial Harvest
27.
Overgrazing of grasslands can lead to reduced range quality. Two of the major effects of overgrazing are
a)
erosion and desertification
b)
eutrophication and increased methane production
c)
higher fire potential and increased productivity
d)
higher primary productivity and ammonification
28.
Which type of fishing has high rates of bycatch and highly destructive of benthic communities.
a)
Pole Fishing
b)
Long Line Fishing
c)
Purse Seining
d)
Trawling
29.
The graph above shows the change in Canada’s harvest of Atlantic Cod from 1950-2004. What change occurred between 1992-1993?
a)
The stocks of Atlantic Cod collapsed.
b)
Harvests of Atlantic Cod rapidly decreased.
c)
Canada declared a moratorium to all cod fishing in Newfoundland and Labrador.
d)
All of the above.
30.
The loss of the Atlantic Cod around Newfoundland occurred because those fisheries were…
a)
Underexploited
b)
Fully exploited
c)
Overexploited.
d)
None of the above.
31.
Which is true about aquaculturing?
a)
The amount of aquacultured fish has decreased significantly in favor of wild-caught fish.
b)
Aquaculturing requires the same inputs as other forms of animal agriculture, including feed and antibiotics.
c)
Aquaculture operations do not affect the surrounding ecosystem in any adverse way.
d)
All of the above are true.
32.
The United States has established annual catch limits to ensure fishing stocks can recover each year. Which of these statements best describes how these limits are established?
a)
The catch limits are lower than the maximum sustainable yield
b)
The catch limits are equal to the maximum sustainable yield
c)
The catch limits are greater than the maximum sustainable yield
d)
Catch limits are based on consumer demand, not on the health of fish stocks
33.
What type of fishing has baited hooks are attached to a single fishing line that trails behind a ship
a)
Pole Fishing
b)
Long Line Fishing
c)
Purse Seining
d)
Trawling
34.
__________________________ of a fishery is the highest amount of species that can be harvested without diminishing the populating in future years.
a)
Maximum Sustainable Yield
b)
Exclusive Economic zone
c)
Overexploited
35.
What is aquaculture?
a)
The study of saltwater and freshwater organisms for use in medicine
b)
The breeding of land plants and animals to be used as fish feed
c)
The breeding, raising and harvesting of both fresh and saltwater organisms
d)
The manufacturing of aquatic organisms into feed and fertilizer
36.
Which of these is NOT an environmental concern of farming fish?
a)
Introducing pesticides, herbicides and antibiotics into the environment
b)
Transferring disease from farmed fish to wild fish and vica versa
c)
Increasing waste in slow moving water
d)
Potentially introducing native fish into the wild
37.
Crop rotation is used by organic farmers to preserve the qualities of the soil?
a)
YES
b)
NO
38.
Organic farming products are more expensive because farmers do not get as much out of their land as a conventional farmer?
a)
YES
b)
NO
39.
Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
a)
Wind
b)
Coal
c)
Solar
d)
Biomass
40.
Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenewable because they.......
a)
require expensive equipment
b)
take millions of years to replace
c)
can be found all over
d)
provide all the energy we use
41.
What gas is increasing in large amounts due to human activities?
a)
BP
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
diesel
42.
Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
43.
Why does too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere cause climate change?
a)
It cools down our planet.
b)
It blocks out UV rays.
c)
It traps heat and warms up our planet.
d)
It lets sunlight escape.
44.
Which type of soil holds the least water?
a)
silt
b)
sand
c)
loam
d)
clay
45.
Due to energy being lost during production, transportation, etc. Coal-burning power plants are only about ____% efficient.
a)
50
b)
1
c)
35
d)
99
46.
These types of power plants are primarily responsible for acid deposition (including acid rain)
a)
natural gas
b)
petroleum
c)
coal
d)
nuclear
47.
Which is NOT an example of biomass?
a)
wood
b)
crop leftovers (the part of the plant that isn't consumed)
c)
manure and/or trash
d)
petroleum
48.
The world gets MOST of their energy through all of the following sources EXCEPT
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
hydroelectric
d)
oil
49.
All of the following renewable resources are derived from the sun in some way EXCEPT
a)
biomass
b)
wind
c)
hydroelectric
d)
geothermal
50.
What is and example of cogeneration?
a)
heat energy normally wasted is used to power a turbine
b)
a power plant that gets energy from both nuclear and hydroelectric
c)
a type of wind turbine that can be powered by wind or steam
d)
harvesting natural gas and petroleum from the same field
51.
Nuclear energy generates ________ waste instead of _____________.
a)
radioactive, air pollutants
b)
air pollutants, ash
c)
CO2, uranium ore
d)
radioactive, uranium ore
52.
If Canada has a population of 35 million people and the annual consumption of petroleum in Canada is 12 barrels per capita, the total annual consumption is closest to
a)
420 million
b)
420 billion
c)
5.4 billion
d)
540 million
53.
high level radioactive waste would be ____________. low level radioactive waste would be ___________.
a)
uranium ore, carbon
b)
exhaust produced from the plant, spent fuel rods
c)
spent fuel rods, exposed clothing
d)
exposed clothing, spent fuel rods
54.
what is the earliest stage of coal? (this has the least amount of energy and is the youngest)
a)
peat
b)
lignite
c)
bituminous
d)
anthracite
55.
which of these FOSSIL FUELS burns the cleanest?
a)
coal
b)
natural gas
c)
motor oil
d)
petroleum
56.
Most of the developing countries in the world depend on _______ for their main source of energy.
a)
renewable sources
b)
nuclear
c)
biomass (including wood, manure, etc)
d)
coal
57.
All of the following would increase global greenhouse gas emissions EXCEPT
a)
increasing the number of cars
b)
use natural gas instead of hydroelectric
c)
replace coal power plants with solar energy
d)
reduce the number of nuclear power plants
58.
The main advantage to using natural gas as a fuel or to power industrial plants is that
a)
natural gas is more abundant and cheaper to harvest/mine
b)
it burns cleaner and has less air pollutants
c)
natural gas is one of the most harmful fossil fuels to the environment
d)
it is better for the economy than coal or petroleum
59.
Passive solar design includes all of the following except
a)
large windows on the south side of the house
b)
floor and walls that will store heat in the winter
c)
overhang that blocks the sun in the summer, but allows it inside in the winter
d)
trees that block the sun for the entire year
60.
What is a possible downside to hydroelectric energy?
a)
generates high levels of pollution
b)
high startup cost
c)
low functional lifespan
d)
high operation and maintenance cost
61.
a downside to relying on biomass as a primary fuel source for a nation is that
a)
it can cause soil erosion, water pollution, and habitat loss
b)
it requires little land use
c)
it produces no pollution
d)
it produces more pollution than coal
62.
Most of the energy that we use on Earth can be traced back to
a)
coal
b)
the sun
c)
geothermal heat from the earth
d)
natural gas
63.
Most oil in the US is used
a)
in power plants
b)
for transportation
c)
in cooking
d)
as supplements for human and animal health
64.
Which two things increase the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere ?
a)
burning fossil fuels and using renewable energy sources
b)
burning fossil fuels and deforestation
c)
deforestation and shifting to renewable energy
d)
mining and the production of PV solar panels
65.
If a 100 W incandescent bulb uses 400 kJ of energy per hour. How much would a CFL use that is 3 times as efficient IN 30 MINUTES?
a)
66 kJ
b)
133 kJ
c)
200 kJ
d)
1200 kJ
66.
One gallon of fuel produces 5 lbs of CO2. Two cars drive 100 miles each. The first gets 10 MPG. The second gets 25 MPG. How much LESS CO2 is produced by the second car?
a)
10 pounds
b)
50 pounds
c)
30 pounds
d)
15 pounds
67.
Which of the following would result in the greatest savings of gasoline? Assume all trips are same distance in the same location.
a)
15 mpg to 30 mpg
b)
25 mpg to 35 mpg
c)
30 mpg to 40 mpg
d)
use synthetic motor oil instead of petroleum based
68.
Which region would have the greatest potential for solar technology?
a)
10 degrees north latitude
b)
40 degrees south latitude
c)
35 degrees north latitude
d)
50 degrees south latitude
69.
in most power plants what is the heat energy used for?
a)
to create steam which turns turbines
b)
to directly power the generator
c)
the heat is transmitted through the electrical grid into homes
d)
nuclear fission which then creates a chain reaction
70.
which fossil fuel energy source does the world (and US) have the largest supply of?
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
petroleum
d)
crude oil
71.
which type of hydropower diverts water away from a stream or river and then feeds it back into it after a turbine is spun?
a)
run of the river system
b)
water impoundment
c)
PV cells
d)
geothermal cogeneration plants
72.
Most of the energy with an incandescent light bulb is converted to
a)
heat energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
potential energy
d)
transportation
73.
The major downside to hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is that
a)
the empty spaces left behind can result in earthquakes or buildings collapsing
b)
the equipment that is used is very cheap and often falls apart after a single use
c)
the fracking chemicals could get into aquifers and groundwater
d)
all of these
74.
The major downside to hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is that
a)
the empty spaces left behind can result in earthquakes or buildings collapsing
b)
the equipment that is used is very cheap and often falls apart after a single use
c)
the fracking chemicals could get into aquifers and groundwater
d)
all of these
75.
Why don't we use vegetable oils or other biofuels for our transportation needs
a)
would require too much land to produce enough to meet demand
b)
the viscosity isn't appropriate for current engines
c)
they build up in engines long term and cause problems
d)
all of these
76.
problems associated with the use of trees for biomass include all of the following except
a)
potential soil eroision
b)
potential deforestation
c)
burning fossilized carbon and releasing it into the atmosphere
d)
the loss of habitat for wildlife and some people
77.
Ways to maximize our energy resources include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
increasing energy efficiency
b)
increasing energy conservation
c)
reducing funding for renewable resource development
d)
having lower MPG (miles per gallon) requirements
78.
In nuclear power plants, the _________ are used to prevent a meltdown during nuclear fission.
a)
fuel rods
b)
control rods
c)
on site storage facilities
d)
pellets of uranium
79.
Human activity adds CO2 to the atmosphere through all of these EXCEPT
a)
clear cutting/deforestation
b)
transportation with gas powered vehicles
c)
burning biomass
d)
agricultural runoff
80.
Energy conservation in the United States ________.
a)
can be accomplished only through changes in environmental laws
b)
is unlikely to ever occur
c)
can be accomplished by changes in tax laws
d)
can be improved as individuals make conscious choices to reduce personal consumption
81.
Deposits of natural gas are most numerous in ________.
a)
the Middle East
b)
Panama
c)
South America
d)
USA and Russia
82.
The high sulfur content of the coal burned in South African power plants means that the ________.
a)
coal is very expensive, forcing most poor people to go without electricity
b)
coal is very inexpensive, leading to an improved economy
c)
power plants burn cleanly, with little pollution
d)
power plants contribute to acidic deposition
83.
Coal burning produces more greenhouse gases per unit of energy than any other fuel
a)
True
b)
False
84.
Which of the following energy sources is a non-solar related energy source?
a)
geothermal
b)
natural gas
c)
wind
d)
tar sands
85.
Which of the following best explains the energy transformations that occur in a coal burning power plant (in the correct order)?
a)
chemical-heat-mechanical-electrical
b)
mechanical-electrical
c)
heat-chemical-electrical
d)
chemical-mechanical-heat-electrical
86.
Photovoltaic cells convert sunlight into:
a)
Heat
b)
Motion
c)
Light
d)
Electricty
87.
Spent nuclear fuel (already used) is stored at -
a)
a landfill
b)
on site at the nuclear power plant
c)
a repository in Nevada
88.
Which of the following correctly pairs a renewable energy source with it's pollution/emission?
a)
Coal: sulfur dioxide
b)
wind: carbon dioxide
c)
liquid biofuels: methane
d)
hydroelectricity: toxic metals
89.
Due to energy being lost during production, transportation, etc. Coal-burning power plants are only about ____% efficient.
a)
50
b)
1
c)
35
d)
99
90.
These types of power plants are primarily responsible for acid deposition (including acid rain)
a)
natural gas
b)
petroleum
c)
coal
d)
nuclear
91.
The major downside to hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is that
a)
the empty spaces left behind can result in earthquakes or buildings collapsing
b)
the equipment that is used is very cheap and often falls apart after a single use
c)
the fracking chemicals could get into aquifers and groundwater
d)
all of these
92.
Most of the energy with an incandescent light bulb is converted to
a)
heat energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
potential energy
d)
transportation
93.
Why don't we use vegetable oils or other biofuels for our transportation needs
a)
would require too much land to produce enough to meet demand
b)
the viscosity isn't appropriate for current engines
c)
they build up in engines long term and cause problems
d)
all of these
94.
Ways to maximize our energy resources include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
increasing energy efficiency
b)
increasing energy conservation
c)
reducing funding for renewable resource development
d)
having lower MPG (miles per gallon) requirements
95.
Put the items below in correct sequence for the generation of electricity using the wind
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-1-3-4
c)
2-3-1-4
d)
2-4-3-1
96.
Formed when large quantities of dead organisms such as Zoo-plankton and Algae are buried under sedimentary layers and subjected to intense heat and pressure turning them into a liquid fossil fuel.
a)
Coal
b)
Oil/ Petroleum
c)
Natural Gas
97.
Compared to typical petroleum extraction, oil sands (or tar sands)
a)
require more energy to extract
b)
require more water to extract
c)
releases more carbon dioxide
d)
all of the above
98.
) Scrubbing is a technique used by utilities companies to:
a)
increase the sulfur content in the exhaust gases generated from coal combustion
b)
) increase the nitrogen oxide content in the exhaust gases generated from coal combustion
c)
decrease the water content in the exhaust gases generated from coal combustion
d)
decrease the sulfur oxide content in the exhaust gases generated from coal combustion
99.
The Alaska National Wildlife Refuge (ANWR) has made headlines because:
a)
it is the leading source of coal in North America
b)
of proposals to explore for oil there
c)
it is the proposed site for disposal of high-level nuclear waste
d)
further oil migration there is blocked by a trap
100.
Problems with exploiting oil shale and tar sand deposits as an alternative to crude oil include all of the following except:
a)
the deposits are usually deeply buried and difficult to extract
b)
the conversion process to fuel requires a lot of energy
c)
the mining and conversion process requires a lot of water
d)
mining would involve widespread disruption of the land surface
101.
Use Figure. The graph projects the smallest rise from 2008 to 2035 in the use of
a)
Coal
b)
Liquids
c)
Natural Gas
d)
Nuclear
102.
Which is NOT a disadvantage of using nuclear energy?
a)
Radioactive waste disposal
b)
The amount of CO2 released by the reactors
c)
Possible terrorist use of nuclear weapons
d)
Mining uranium
103.
The most commonly used approach to solar energy collection is ________, in which buildings are designed and building materials chosen to maximize their direct absorption of sunlight in winter, even as they keep the interior cool in the heat of summer.
a)
Active
b)
Passive
c)
Concentrated Solar Power (CSP)
d)
Photovoltaic Cells
104.
The poster shown below advertises tours of a power plant.
This power plant produces electricity most likely by using-
This power plant produces electricity most likely by using-
a)
fossil fuels
b)
biofuels
c)
solar energy
d)
geothermal energy
105.
Which of the following energy sources has the lowest negative environmental impacts?
a)
Biomass
b)
Nuclear
c)
Natural Gas
d)
Solar
106.
How is energy transported in a circuit with a solar panel and an electronic device?
a)
neutrons
b)
electrons
c)
protons
d)
ions
107.
Dams disrupt a river’s ecosystem and are only available in areas that have large, fast-flowing rivers. This is a disadvantage of ___.
a)
Geothermal
b)
Fossil Fuels
c)
Nuclear
d)
Hydroelectric
108.
Expensive to use for large scale energy production and it is only practical for sunny areas. This is a disadvantage of ______.
a)
Coal
b)
Solar
c)
Oil
d)
Wind
109.
Climates are classified according to two major factors:
a)
elevation and precipitation
b)
latitude and temperature
c)
elevation and latitude
d)
precipitation and temperature
110.
Which of the following has cause repeating 100,000-year cycles of ice ages in the past?
a)
an increase in sun spots
b)
several major volcanic eruptions
c)
changes in Earth;s orbit and tilt of its axis
d)
continental drift
111.
Over the past 200 years, the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has
a)
decreased slightly
b)
increased until recently, and then decreased
c)
increased steadily
d)
stayed about the same
112.
Over the past 200 years, the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has
a)
decreased slightly
b)
increased until recently, and then decreased
c)
increased steadily
d)
stayed about the same
113.
What does the term "anthropogenic" mean?
a)
something that is NOT caused by human activity
b)
a naturally occurring cause
c)
originating from human activity
d)
something that everyone should care about
114.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
115.
Visible light reaches Earth’s surface while infrared light is trapped as heat. Which characteristic of Earth’s atmosphere causes this to happen?
a)
the hole in the ozone
b)
the greenhouse effect
c)
atmospheric pressure
d)
the inversion layer
116.
Which of the following have been linked to climate change?
a)
droughts
b)
flooding
c)
melting of polar ice caps
d)
all of the above
117.
If you took away the atmosphere’s natural greenhouse effect, and everything else stayed the same, Earth’s temperature would be
a)
10-20°F warmer
b)
30-40°F warmer
c)
10-20°F cooler
d)
50-60°F cooler
118.
The formation of ozone begins when and O2 molecule is split by
a)
UV-A radiation
b)
UV-B radiation
c)
UV-C radiation
d)
UV-A or UV-B radiation
119.
If carbon monoxide emissions decreased from 145 million tons annually to 80 million tons annually, by what percentage have emissions been reduced?
a)
41%
b)
45%
c)
47%
d)
52%
120.
Which pollution control method was proposed by an amendment to the Clean Air Act?
a)
Allowing tolls to limit the use of automobiles
b)
a market for sulfur emissions
c)
the regulation of radon emissions
d)
the use of catalytic converters
121.
The effects of acid deposition include
a)
increased cancer rates in aquatic organisms
b)
increased pH of lake water
c)
decreased mobilization of metals
d)
decreased aquatic biodiversity
122.
Thermal inversions
a)
increase the rate of smog formation
b)
trap high concentrations of pollution as ground level
c)
result in increased levels of acid deposition
d)
reduce the negative effects of VOC's
123.
Through international cooperation, the concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere
a)
has already decreased below 3ppb
b)
will stabilize around 3ppb by 2030
c)
has stabilized at 5ppb
d)
is expected to stabilize at 5ppb by 2100
124.
Which outdoor air pollutant is also a significant indoor air pollutant?
a)
sulfur dioxide
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
ozone
d)
lead
125.
Which is NOT a result of the reduction in stratospheric ozone?
a)
reduced photosynthetic activity
b)
increased skin cancer
c)
increased eye problems
d)
increased birth defects
126.
Ozone is a natural component of the Earth’s stratosphere as well as an element of photochemical smog. Ozone also can be an indoor air pollutant. Sources of ozone in homes or offices include:
a)
combustion of fossil fuels
b)
household solvents and cleaning fluids
c)
photocopying machines, printers, and other high-voltage electrical equipment
d)
electrolysis of tap water
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