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Unit 7 Review: Genetics & Cell Regulation

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The different forms of a gene are known as _____________.
a)
Codons
b)
Proteins
c)
Alleles
d)
Nucleotides
2.
How many alleles do you get from each parent?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
23
d)
46
3.
Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are separated during meiosis?
a)
Law of Dominance
b)
Law of Segregation
c)
Law of Independent Assortment
d)
Law of Meiosis
4.
Which of the following is an example of a GENOTYPE?
a)
25%
b)
Blue
c)
1:2:1
d)
Bb
5.
Which of the following is an example of a PHENOTYPE?
a)
25%
b)
Blue
c)
1:2:1
d)
Bb
6.
The letters on the TOP AND SIDE of a punnett square represent ______________.
a)
The combination of alleles in offspring.
b)
The possible alleles given by the parents following meiosis.
c)
The genotype and phenotype of offspring.
d)
The results of genetic mutations in offspring.
7.
What is another name for heterozygous?
a)
Hybrid
b)
Purebred
c)
Codominant
d)
Mixed Breed
8.
If a person has a genotype of Rr, what do you know about their gametes (sex cells)?
a)
They will all carry the R allele.
b)
They will all carry Rr.
c)
Some will carry R, some will carry r.
d)
They will all carry the r allele.
9.
A wide range of phenotypic variations occur in the trait for human height.  Which of the following accounts for these variations?
a)
Polygenic Inheritance
b)
Codominance
c)
Incomplete dominance
d)
Multiple Alleles
10.

Examine the image. Which of the following would be the respective autosomal chromosome count for each organism?

a)

46, 48, 50, 78

b)

44, 46, 48, 76

c)

23, 24, 25, 39

d)

92, 96, 100, 156

11.
The pedigree shown indicates the expression pattern of VHL in a specific family. Genetic counselors told the affected female that she and her non-carrier husband had a 50% chance of producing children with VHL.  Based on this information, which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern for this disorder?
a)
X-linked recessive
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Autosomal dominance
d)
Autosomal recessive
12.

Australian Shepherds are a breed of dogs whose coat color is directly impacted by two different genes. The gene that determines basic coat color exhibits a dominant allele (B) for black coat color and a recessive allele (b) for red coat color. Additionally, these dogs can have a solid coat color (mm) or a mixed pattern coat color called merle (Mm). The homozygous dominant coat color is called a lethal white (MM) which produces pups that are deaf and blind. What is the probability that two red Australian shepherds will produce a black pup?

a)

0

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

13.

Australian shepherd dogs can have a solid coat color (mm) or a mixed pattern coat color called merle (Mm). The homozygous dominant coat color is called a lethal white (MM) which produces pups that are deaf and blind. The Australian Shepherds of America Club discourages from mating two merles. Which of the following best explains why merle-to-merle matings are undesirable?

a)

The cross has the probability of producing litters with 50% solid coat color pups.

b)

The cross produces all homozygous recessive pups

c)

The cross has the probability of producing litters with 25% merle coat pups.

d)

The cross has a 25% chance of producing homozygous dominant pups.

14.
In horses, the grey coat color (G) is dominant to non-grey coat color (g). Additionally, some horses have a genetic disorder called hyperkalemic periodic paralysis or HYPP. HYPP is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder that affects the sodium channels in muscle cells. HYPP (H) is dominant to the normal condition (h). If a non-grey, normal stallion sires a foal that is not grey and does not have HYPP, which of the following genotypes are possible genotypes for the mother?
a)
GGhh and ggHH
b)
ggHH and GgHh
c)
GGHH and GGHh
d)
GgHh and gghh
15.
Morgan crossed a pure-breeding wild type red-eyed fly with a mutant white eyed fly, producing an F1 generation of all red eyed flies.  When he crossed his red-eyed flies with each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. However, all the white-eyed flies were male. What explains this result?   
a)
The gene involved was on the X chromosome.
b)
The gene involved was on the Y chromosome.
c)
The result is due to multifactorial inheritance.
d)
Other male-specific factors (such as hormones) influence eye color in flies. 
16.
The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the higher the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
a)
True
b)
False
17.
The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 50%.
a)
True
b)
False
18.
In a dihybrid cross of fruit flies (a test cross), when heterozygous flies are crossed with pure recessive flies, the offspring show more parental-types than recombinant-types.  What is the best explanation for this?
a)
The testcross was performed incorrectly.
b)
The two genes are linked.
c)
The two genes are unlinked.
d)
Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
19.
What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
a)
The two genes are linked.
b)
The two genes are on the X chromosome.
c)
Epistasis has occurred.
d)
The two genes are on different chromosomes.
20.
New combinations of linked genes can be produced by:
a)
Nondisjunction
b)
Independent Assortment
c)
Crossing over
d)
Segregation
21.

If a female who is heterozygous for color blindness marries a normal male, what percent of their children will be color blind? [X-linked recessive]

a)

0 %

b)

25 %

c)

50 %

d)

75 %

22.

If a female who is heterozygous for color blindness marries a normal male, what percent of their sons will be color blind? [X-linked recessive]

a)

0 %

b)

25 %

c)

50 %

d)

75 %

23.
What is the mechanism for the production of genetic recombinants?  
a)
X inactivation
b)
methylation of cytosine  
c)
   crossing over and independent assortment  
d)
deletions and duplications during meiosis
24.

A normal vision man with Huntington's disease [purebred] marries a color blind woman who does not have Huntington's. Huntington's is an autosomal dominant disorder. Color blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder. What is the probability of the couple having a colorblind offspring with Huntington's?

a)

0 %

b)

25 %

c)

50 %

d)

100 %

25.
A normal vision man with Huntington's disease marries a color blind woman who does not have Huntington's.  Huntington's is an autosomal dominant disorder.  Color blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder.  What is the probability of the couple having a colorblind daughter with Huntington's? 
a)
0 %
b)
25 %
c)
50 %
d)
100 %
26.
A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color-blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that a son of this couple will be color-blind?
a)
0
b)
1/4
c)
1/2
d)
3/4
27.
Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder.  If a hemophiliac male mates with a normal female, how many of their sons will be hemophiliac?
a)
0
b)
1/4
c)
1/2
d)
3/4
28.
What do the circles represent in a pedigree chart?
a)
males
b)
females
c)
individuals with a disease
d)
children of either gender
29.
X-linked recessive disorders are more likely to affect which gender?
a)
Males 
b)
Females
c)
Both Equally
d)
No one can have the disorder
30.
What percentage of the offspring are homozygous recessive when you cross two heterozygotes for a trait? 
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
31.
What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?
a)
BB
b)
AB
c)
BO
32.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
33.
Would a person with type B blood be able to receive type AB blood from a transfusion?
a)
yes, because they both have the B antigen
b)
yes, because the person has B antibodies
c)
no, because the person has A antibodies
d)
no, because the person has B antibodies
34.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
35.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
36.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
37.
If a trait is controlled by one gene, but there are 4 possible alleles, the inheritance pattern is called...
a)
dominance
b)
sex-linked
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic
38.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
39.
ABO blood types are an example of what type of inheritance?
a)
multiple alleles
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
polygenic inheritance
d)
genetic mutations
40.
What is the mode of inheritance shown here?
a)
Autosomal Recessive
b)
Autosomal Dominant
c)
Sex Linked
41.
What is the mode of inheritance shown here?
a)
Autosomal Recessive
b)
Autosomal Dominant
c)
Sex Linked Recessive
d)
Sex Linked Dominant
42.
The genotype of the affected son and daughter at the bottom of this pedigree must be:
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
Can't tell
43.
What is the relationship between person I-1 and III-2?
a)
Father and Son
b)
Father and Daughter
c)
Grandfather and Granddaughter
d)
Uncle and Niece 
44.
A red flower pollinated with a blue flower (P). All offspring are purple (F1). Then two of purple flower offspring pollinated with each other. What is the phenotypic ratio of that second generation (F2)? (Hint: Use genotype ratio when it comes to phenotype ratio for this type of dominance)
a)
2:2
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:1:1
45.
A plant shows incomplete dominance in size. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a medium plant (Tt). What percentage of plant offspring will be tall?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
46.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
47.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
48.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
49.
In some carnations, flower color exhibits codominance.  Identify the correct genotypes for red, white, and speckled carnations.
a)
Red = RR, white = rr, speckled = Rr
b)
Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = rw
c)
Red = RR, white = ww, Speckled = Rw
d)
Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = RW
50.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
51.
__________________ is/are when more than one set of genes controls a trait.
a)
Codominance
b)
Multiple alleles
c)
Polygenic inheritance
d)
Incomplete dominance
52.
(TAKE YOUR TIME) Based on this pedigree about ALBINISM (recessive), individual III - 7 must be...
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
Can´t Tell
53.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
54.
A purebred yellow pea plant, when crossed with a green pea plant, produces ONLY yellow offspring plants. What are the genotypes of the OFFSPRING?
a)
All heterozygous/hybrid (Yy)
b)
All homozygous dominant (YY)
c)
All homozygous recessive (yy)
d)
Some homozygous dominant (YY), some heterozygous (hh)
55.
Which of the following statements is true regarding blood types?
a)
A and O are codominant, B is recessive.
b)
B and O are codominant, A is recessive.
c)
A and B are codominant, O is recessive.
d)
A , B and O are all codominant with each other.
56.
The visual tool seen in the image is known as a ___________.
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Karyotype
c)
Dihybrid Cross
d)
Pedigree
57.
In guinea pigs, black hair is dominant to white hair and short hair is dominant to long hair. What would be the phenotype of a guinea pig with the genotype bbss?
a)
Black hair, long hair
b)
Black hair, short hair
c)
White hair, long hair
d)
White hair, short hair
58.
True or False: Men can NEVER be "carriers" for recessive sex-linked traits because they only have one X chromosome.
a)
True
b)
False
59.
There are no "carriers" for Huntington's Disease, a person either has the disease or they do not. Knowing this information, which of the following must be true about Huntington's Disease?
a)
It is a recessive disorder.
b)
It is a dominant disorder.
60.
Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to properly separate during the process of _______________.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Osmosis
d)
Translation
61.
More males are colorblind that females because colorblindness is an example of a ____________ trait.
a)
Sex Linked
b)
Codominant
c)
Completely dominant
d)
Incompletely dominant
62.
Type of Trait that is controlled by MANY genes at once. Many Genes will 'contribute' to one phenotype.
a)
Multiple Allele Trait
b)
Polygenic Trait
c)
Monogenic Trait
d)
Co-Dominant Trait
63.
If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked recessive trait of hemophilia and her husband has hemophilia, which of the following is true? Make a punnett square!
a)
All sons will have hemophilia
b)
all daughters will have hemophilia
c)
50% of daughters and 50% of sons have hemophilia
d)
100% of sons have hemophilia and 100% of daughters are carriers
64.
According to _______, genes that are closer together on a chromosome, have a higher chance of being inherited together.  
a)
Gene Linkage
b)
Polygenic
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Epistasis
65.

Which best describes epistasis?

a)

An allele that changes the genotype of another allele

b)

A gene that changes the genotype of another gene

c)

An allele that controls or masks the expression of another phenotype

d)

A gene that controls or masks the expression of another gene

66.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
67.
Activation or deactivation of genes by environmental experiences throughout development
a)
turn on genes
b)
gene expression
c)
environmental factors
d)
gene markers
68.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
69.

Why does the fox change color at different times of year?

a)

The alleles for fur color change as the fox grows older.

b)

The color is affected by the latitude of the animal.

c)

The color of the foxes are determined at birth.

d)

The genes that determine color is affected by temperature.

70.

Epigenetics is

a)

The turning off and on of genes by mutations

b)

A stemcell transforming into a specialized cells

c)

Changes in an organisms traits that does not result from changes to DNA

d)

None of these

71.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
72.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
73.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
74.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
75.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
76.
For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must be true?
a)
A corepressor must be present.
b)
RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
c)
RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
d)
RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive.
77.

What is 4 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

78.

What is 2 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

79.

What is 5 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

80.

In the bottom picture the operon is

a)

on

b)

off

81.

What process does this show?

a)

independent assortment

b)

polyploidy

c)

chromosome map

d)

crossing over

82.
1 map unit is equal to:
a)
1 nm
b)
1% recombination
c)
1 chromosome
d)
1 mutation
83.

If the distance between A/B is 0.12 mu and gene C is on the opposite side of A with respect to B at a distance of 0.23 mu, What is the order of the gene linkage map

a)

A - B - C

b)

C - A - B

c)

both A - B - C and C - B - A are possible

d)

The linkage map cannot be detemined as the ratio is not 1:1

e)

A - C - B

84.

If the distance between A/B is 0.12 mu and gene C is on the opposite side of A with respect to B at a distance of 0.23 mu, then distance A/C is (choose the most accurate option)

a)

equal to 0.35 mu

b)

greater than 0.35 mu

c)

lesser than 0.35 mu

d)

equal to or lesser than 0.35 mu

e)

equal to or greater than 0.35 mu

85.

Histone Acetyl Transferases (HATs) add acetyl groups to the histone tails, resulting in

a)

decondensed chromatin

b)

condensed chromatin

c)

none of these options

86.

Which of the following can serve as an "off" switch in eukaryotic organisms?

a)

Histone acetylation

b)

DNA methylation

c)

Operator

d)

Repressor

87.

Which of the following can serve as an "on" switch in eukaryotic organisms?

a)

Histone acetylation

b)

DNA methylation

c)

Operator

d)

Repressor

88.

Which of the following help to turn genes on by loosening DNA so that they are expressed (transcribed and translated)?

a)

a high level of condensation (coiling around histones)

b)

histone acetylation

c)

DNA methylation

d)

histone methylation

89.

DNA Methylation...

a)

inhibits transcription

b)

inhibits translation

c)

promotes transcription

d)

promotes translation

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