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Biology Semester 2 Review

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The smallest structural and functional unit of an organism is a/an __________.

a)

atom

b)

cell

c)

chromosome

d)

element

2.

Germ cells are found in the ____________

a)

heart

b)

lungs

c)

muscles

d)

ovaries

3.

These structures become tightly packed during cell division. They contain DNA.

a)

centromere

b)

centriole

c)

chromosome

d)

spindle fibers

4.

The stage in mitosis that results in two new daughter cells being formed.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

5.

The process where a pair of chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material.

a)

crossing over

b)

gamete cell

c)

replication

d)

reproduction

6.

In Meiosis II the cell division begins with how many daughter cells?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

7.

Select all that are true of Meiosis?

a)

meiosis starts with half the number of chromosomes as mitosis

b)

the genetic offspring are exactly like the parent cell

c)

there are 23 chromosomes from each parent passed on to the offspring in humans

d)

meiosis goes through 2 stages of divison, meiosis I and II

8.

Select all that ONLY apply to Meiosis

a)

creates 4 haploid cells

b)

creates 2 diploid cells

c)

One stage of division

d)

two stages of divison

e)

sex cell divide

9.

Select all that ONLY apply to Meiosis

a)

creates genetic diversity

b)

somatic cells divide

c)

identical to parent cell

d)

different from the parent cell

e)

replicates DNA

10.

______ is the type of cell division that produces gametes

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

11.

meiosis maintains the original number of chromosomes.

a)

true

b)

false

12.

during meiosis when do homologous chromosomes line up in their pairs?

a)

metaphase I

b)

prophase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

metaphase II

13.

What is the outcome of meiosis?

a)

four genetically unique haploid cells

b)

four genetically identical diploid cells

c)

two genetically identical diploid cells

d)

six genetically unique haploid cells

14.

During prophase I, chromosomes from each parent pair up based on their similarity. These paired chromosomes are called ________ chromosomes.

a)

homologous

b)

heterologous

15.

which cell has one set of chromosomes?

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

16.

which phase directly follows meiosis I?

a)

telophase I

b)

metaphase II

c)

cytokinesis

d)

prophase II

17.

Which phase follows metaphase II?

a)

anaphase II

b)

prophase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

prophase II

18.

The parent cell in meiosis has how many chromosomes?

a)

haploid number

b)

diploid number

19.
What is the study of the interactions among organisms and  between organisms and their environments called?
a)
Biology
b)
Ecology
c)
Astronomy
d)
Biosphere
20.
The direction of the flow of energy in a food web is represented by ___.
a)
Light bulbs
b)
Dotted Lines
c)
Arrows
d)
Bubbles
21.
Which of these is an example of an autotroph?
a)
Sunflower
b)
Krill
c)
Leopard
d)
Hummingbird
22.
What does every food chain start with?
a)
producers
b)
sun
c)
consumer
d)
decomposers
23.
Consumer that eats plants
a)
heterotroph
b)
herbivore
c)
producer
d)
community
24.
Energy increases as you move up the food pyramid (from bottom to top).
a)
True 
b)
False
25.
Which of the following is NOT a consumer
a)
grass
b)
dog
c)
shark
d)
fish
26.
A connection of food chains with many food energy paths in an ecosystem is a ____________
a)
ecosystem
b)
food web
c)
environment
27.
A frog eats a fly. The frog and fly are demonstrating ________.
a)
mutualism
b)
competition
c)
predator/prey
d)
parasitism
28.
What percentage of energy is passed on to each tropic level?
a)
10%
b)
50%
c)
90%
d)
100%
29.

Based on the model, which consumers would receive the greatest amount of energy captured by the producers in their food chains?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

Which group are producers?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

31.

Level 1 is what type of conusmer

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

32.

Which level has the greatest amount of energy?

a)

primary consumer

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

producer

33.

Which contribute to a positive population growth?

a)

immigration

b)

positive birth rate

c)

emigration

d)

positive death rate

34.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

35.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

36.

What type of growth model is shown in image B?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

37.

What point on the graph represents carrying capacity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

38.

Which choice most closely approximates the deer population's carrying capacity based on the graph?

a)

100

b)

80

c)

60

d)

10

39.

Darwin referred to the process of promoting certain traits by breeding members with those traits as ____.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

evolution

d)

ancestral breeding

40.

Darwin referred to the process of promoting certain traits by breeding members with those traits as ____.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

evolution

d)

ancestral breeding

41.

What theory accounts for why populations can be modified over time?

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

ancestral modification

d)

fossil theory

42.

Which statement is true regarding evolution?

a)

It describes changes over many generations

b)

Is is the same as natural selection.

c)

It only involves artificial selection

d)

It occurs within a single generation

43.

What important observation did Darwin make on his voyage?

a)

same species on Galapagos as mainland

b)

Galapagos species were different than mainland species

c)

no life existed on the Galapagos

d)

populations on the Galapagos stayed the same

44.

What are two main components of natural selection?

a)

vestigial structures and camouflage

b)

artificial selection and selective breeding

c)

variation and inheritance

d)

mimicry and artificial selection

45.

Which of these is an example of analogous structures?

a)

hawk wings and fish fins

b)

hawk and insect wings

c)

horse legs and insect wings

d)

horse legs and elephant trunks

46.

Drastic population decline after a major event causes an extreme genetic drift called a ____.

a)

nonrandom mating

b)

founder effect

c)

bottleneck

d)

stabilizing effect

47.

What occurs when average traits benefit a population rather than extreme traits?

a)

unnatural selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

stabilizing selection

48.

Shows changes within a species

a)

natural selection

b)

selective breeding

49.

Happens over a very long period of time

a)

natural selection

b)

selective breeding

50.
Definition: competition
a)
inherited characteristic that increases chances of survival
b)
organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate
c)
a growing population causes a scarcity of resources
d)
differences in the DNA sequence
51.
Definition: natural selection
a)
inherited characteristic that increases chances of survival
b)
organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate
c)
a growing population causes a scarcity of resources
d)
differences in the DNA sequence
52.
Definition: fitness
a)
ability to survive and reproduce in a specific environment
b)
organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate
c)
a growing population causes a scarcity of resources
d)
differences in the DNA sequence
53.
Definition: homologous structures
a)
remains of dead organisms
b)
related organisms have the same bone makeup
c)
in the early stages of development dogs, pigs, and humans resemble one another
54.
A species is an organism that has different traits and cannot _______ with other organisms.
a)
breed
b)
exist
c)
survive
d)
evolve
55.

Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?

a)

Individuals of species compete with one another to survive.

b)

All species are genetically diverse.

c)

Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.

d)

All of the above.

56.

What is a scientist that studies fossils?

a)

Paleontologist

b)

Fossiologist

c)

Dinologist

d)

Physicist

57.

What provides evidence about the history of life on Earth, and shows how organisms change through time?

a)

fossil record

b)

index fossil

c)

geologic time scale

d)

half-life

58.

The amount of time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms in an isotope to decay is known as

a)

fossil record

b)

index fossil

c)

geologic time scale

d)

half-life

59.

Which is the longest amount of time?

a)

era

b)

period

c)

second

d)

decade

60.

The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains or bodies of water is

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

genetic equilibrium

c)

Behavioral isolation

d)

Temporal isolation

61.

A process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other over time is

a)

Coevolution

b)

Convergent Evolution

c)

Macroevolution

d)

Symbiotic Evolution

62.

Built a simulation of early Earth's gases and electricity

a)

oparin

b)

Darwin

c)

Mendel

d)

miller/urey

63.

____________ & _________________ are organelles that arose from prokaryotes, according to the endosymbiotic theory

a)

Nucleus and cell membrane

b)

Chloroplast and mitochondria

c)

Mitochondria and nucleus

d)

Cell wall and chloroplast

64.
TRUE OR FALSE: The deeper the rock is in the Earth, the newer it is.
a)
True
b)
False
65.

This is used to represent evolutionary time

a)

fossil record

b)

index fossil

c)

geologic time scale

d)

half-life

66.
What gas was necessary for complex (eukaryotic) life to evolve?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Dihydrogen monoxide
d)
Methane
67.
Which type of cell came first?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells evolved around the same time
68.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains...
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria evolved
d)
Why cells rely on one another
69.

select the way fossil forms

a)

Permineralization

b)

Natural Casts

c)

Trace Fossils

d)

Amber

e)

Relating data

70.

Are atoms of an element that have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.

a)

Radiometer

b)

Isopotes

c)

Radriomeric dating

d)

Relative Dating

71.

How many mass extinctions has the earth been through?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

8

72.

How many years is the half life of Carbon 14?

a)

2,430 years

b)

1.5 million years

c)

2.4 billion years

d)

5,730 years.

73.

What does the principle of Biogenesis state?

a)

All living things come from pre-existing living things.

b)

All living things come from similar living things.

c)

All living things have once been generated spontaneously

d)

All living things contain genetic material

74.

Natural selection is when humans breed plants and animals to have useful traits

a)

true

b)

false

75.

What islands are arguably where Darwin made his most influential observations

a)

Galapagos

b)

Hawaiian

c)

Virgin

76.

Early cyanobacteria produced ____ which eventually formed the ozone layer.

a)

hydrogen

b)

proteins

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

oxygen

77.

What theory suggests the important relationship between ancestral eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

a)

spontaneous genertation

b)

early cellular theory

c)

prokaryotic theory

d)

endosymbiont theory

78.

check all that are true of fossils

a)

some bacteria can form fossils

b)

most extinct organisms have been preserved

c)

a small percent of extinct organisms are preserved

d)

plants can form fossils

79.
Who was the scientist who showed that microscopic life is not produced by spontaneous generation?
a)
Miller
b)
Ulrey
c)
Einstein
d)
Redi
80.

The mortality rate of organisms following a type I survivorship curve is __________.

a)

fairly constant throughout life

b)

higher in post-reproductive years

c)

lower after the organisms become established

d)

unrelated to age

81.

Animals such as pandas are long lived, mature slowly, and generally produce fewer offspring during their life spans but place a greater investment in each. What term is applied to this type of reproductive strategy?

a)

K-strategy

b)

r-strategy

82.

Which contribute to a positive population growth?

a)

immigration

b)

positive birth rate

c)

emigration

d)

positive death rate

83.

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of high population density?

a)

mortality increase

b)

predators tend to ignore prey that is overabundant

c)

reduction in births

d)

decreased resource availability

84.

Which of the following describes the population of elephants in Kenya from 1973-1989?

a)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) = 0

b)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) = 1

c)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) < 0

d)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) > 0

85.

A population’s emigration in one month totaled 2 individuals. During the same period, immigration was 12 individuals. Natality (births) was 8, and mortality was 15 due to a parasite infection. What was the net effect on the population size?

a)

+5

b)

+3

c)

0

d)

-4

86.

What type of factor has an increasing impact as the population size increases?

a)

density-independent

b)

density-dependent

c)

cohort effect

d)

survivorship factor

87.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

88.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

89.

Factors like predation can have a positive benefit to the population of prey organisms because predators tend to keep prey populations below their ___________.

a)

carrying capacity

b)

sustainibility number

c)

exponential growth point

d)

competition level

90.

As a population of a species increases within a territory, which of the following most likely also increases?

a)

Immigration

b)

Food supply

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Competition

91.

What type of growth model is shown in image A?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

92.

What type of growth model is shown in image B?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

93.

What point on the graph represents carrying capacity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

94.

At carrying capacity, a population __________.

a)

increases rapidly

b)

increases slowly

c)

decreases slowly

d)

is in dynamic equilibrium

95.

Which choice most closely approximates the deer population's carrying capacity based on the graph?

a)

100

b)

80

c)

60

d)

10

96.

Which mathematical model most closely describes the population growth curve shown in deer population graph from the previous question?

a)

logistic growth

b)

exponential growth

97.

Which of the following populations is most likely to go extinct?

a)

a very small population in an unstable environment

b)

a moderate-sized population of r strategists

c)

a large population with lots of genetic variability

d)

all would be equally likely to go extinct

98.

What is the the closest approximation of the size of the human population today?

a)

850 million

b)

7.5 billion

c)

20.8 billion

d)

1.7 trillion

99.

Which population growth model most closely describes the human population in the modern age?

a)

logistic growth

b)

exponential growth

c)

upward growth

d)

tumor growth

100.

The genetic makeup of an organism

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

101.

An alternative form a gene (one member of a pair) that is located on a chromosome

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

allele

102.

the expression of a trait that occurs when the dominant form of the allele is absent

a)

Recessive

b)

Dominant

c)

Phenotype

103.

The physical expression of an organism's genetic make-up

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Gene

104.

A short segment of DNA, that tell the body how to build a protein, and codes for a specific physical trait.

a)

allele

b)

genotype

c)

gene

105.

a trait that is determined by an allele found only on the sex chromosomes (XX or XY).

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Sex Linked

c)

Codominance

106.

a trait where the dominant allele does NOT completely express itself.

a)

Sex Linked

b)

Codominance

c)

Incomplete Dominance

107.

A trait where the heterozygous genotype produces characteristics of both alleles----a sharing of dominance between two alleles.

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

sex linked

108.

What process does this figure show?

a)

protein synthesis

b)

replication of DNA

c)

crossing over

d)

Mitosis

109.

The observable expression of an allele pair is called a _______.

a)

recessive gene

b)

genotype

c)

monohybrid cross

d)

phenotype

110.

The process by which haploid gametes combine is called _______.

a)

interphase

b)

fertilization

c)

genetic variation

d)

synapsis

111.

Crossing over results in ______.

a)

the removal of genotypes from a zygote.

b)

less genetic variation

c)

fewer combinations of genes

d)

greater genetic variation

112.

Down syndrome results from a(n) ______ chromosome.

a)

enlarged

b)

missing

c)

extra

d)

weak

113.

Which statement is NOT true of carriers

a)

they can pass a gene for a recessive disorder

b)

they are heterozygous for a recessive disorder

c)

they express the recessive trait

d)

they have one dominant allele.

114.

In a pedigree, how can you tell which family members are carriers

a)

the shape is half shaded.

b)

the shape is entirely the shaded.

c)

the shape is not shaded at all.

115.

This punnett square shows incomplete dominance in snap dragons. What do the Rr alleles represent?

a)

heterozygous traits

b)

homozygous recessive traits

c)

homozygous dominant traits

116.

What does the TT represent in this Punnett square?

a)

a genotype consisting of two dominant alleles

b)

a heterzygous trait

c)

a single allele

d)

a genotype consisting of two recessive alleles

117.

an individual who is heterozygous for a recessive disorder

a)

recessive

b)

carrier

c)

pedigree

d)

autosome

118.

Human blood groups are determined by

a)

the removal of all alleles

b)

single alleles

c)

chromosome inactivation

d)

multiple alleles

119.

Which of the following is NOT a threat to biodiversity?

a)

Pollution

b)

Deforestation

c)

Invasive Species

d)

Ecological Succession

120.

When human-made chemicals and garbage find their way into nature and harm the air, soil, and water it is called

a)

pollution

b)

habitat destruction

c)

overexploitation

d)

climate change

121.

1. Which biome has the highest biodiversity and is the most threatened?

a)

Temperate forests

b)

grasslands

c)

tropical rain forests

d)

deserts

122.

What is global warming

a)

the normal temperature fluctuations of Earth's climate cycle

b)

the melting of the polar ice caps

c)

the trend of increasing temperatures on Earth

d)

the changes in Earth's biosphere that affect the atmosphere

123.

What does the root "bio" mean...

a)

living

b)

nonliving

c)

toxic

d)

variety

124.

What does the root "diversity" mean...

a)

living

b)

nonliving

c)

toxic

d)

variety

125.

How do biodiversity and stability work together?

a)

The lower the biodiversity the greater the stability of an ecosystem.

b)

The higher the biodiversity, the less stable the ecosystem

c)

The higher the biodiversity, the greater the stability of the ecosystem.

d)

Biodiversity has nothing to do with ecosystem stability.

126.
High biodiversity is 
a)
having a lot of the same organism.
b)
having a few of the same organism.
c)
having a lot of variety of different organisms.
d)
only having one of each organism. 
127.

Which ecosystem is more likely to survive a change in the environment?

a)

One with High biodiversity

b)

One with Low biodiversity

128.

Which statement best describes an example of high biodiversity?

a)

A pond ecosystem is populated by a single species of frogs

b)

A state park that includes multiple forest and freshwater ecosystems with many different species of fish, birds and frogs in a variety of colors

c)

A desert ecosystem is populated by organ pipe cacti, camels, and armadillo lizards

129.

Why is biodiversity important to ecosystems?

a)

It helps populations adapt to ecological changes.

b)

It increases at each level of the food chain.

130.

What are the 3 types of biodiversity (SELECT 3)

a)

Genetic

b)

Species

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Size

e)

Biotic

131.

Things of value that ecosystems provide for free are called ___________________.

a)

ecosystem services

b)

ecosystem diversity

c)

food services

d)

species diversity

132.

Define species diversity

a)

a variety of genes and traits within a species

b)

a variety of ecosystems in a given area

c)

system made up of all the living and nonliving things in a given area

d)

a variety of species in an ecosystem

133.
What is the greenhouse effect?
a)
the burning of fossil fuels causes gases to mix with water in the atmosphere
b)
ground level ozone and vehicle exhaust react in the presence of sunlight
c)
certain gases such as carbon dioxide act like a blanket and keep the sun's energy close to earth
134.
Which is an effect of climate change?
a)
melting of sea ice 
b)
burning of fossil fuels
c)
cutting down trees 
d)
vehicle exhaust
135.
What long-term impact could the destruction of large areas of forests have on Earth?
a)
decreased rates of erosion
b)
increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
c)
decreased amounts of acid rain
d)
increased atmospheric oxygen levels
136.
Why is it important to conserve the biodiversity of Earth?
a)
to decrease the amount of global predator populations
b)
to decrease the stability of major global ocean currents
c)
to increase the stability of ecosystems during environmental changes
d)
to increase the amount of nonrenewable resources located in the lithosphere
137.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
138.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
139.
What is the goal of the pioneer species in Primary Succession?
a)
To kill the dead materials after a disaster
b)
To rebuild soil
c)
To feed Johnny
d)
To put fresh oxygen into the air
140.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
141.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
142.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
143.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
144.
What is the correct order from oldest (happened first) to youngest (happened last) in this pond succession?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
D, C, B, A
c)
B, A, D, C
d)
C, D, A, B
145.
Reaches a climax community quicker because soil is already present
a)
primary succession 
b)
secondary succession
c)
both types of succession
146.
Succession type?
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
tertiary succession
d)
variable succession
147.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the                       as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)
Air
148.
During photosynthesis, carbon is moved from which reservoir to which reservoir?
a)
From the atmosphere to the terrestrial biosphere.
b)
From the troposphere to the terrestrial biosphere.
c)
From the lithosphere to the terrestrial biosphere.
d)
From the hydrosphere to the terrestrial biosphere
149.

How does carbon in a grass plant get into a lion?

a)

The lion eats an antelope that ate the grass

b)

Carbon from grass doesn't end up in a lion.

c)

The lion absorbs the carbon given off by transpiration

d)

The lion breathes in carbon given out by the plant

150.
Which of the following add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
a)
volcanoes
b)
combustion of fossil fuels
c)
animal and plant respiration
d)
all of these
151.

features of environment that are alive or were once alive

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

c)

inbiotic

d)

biography

152.
How nitrogen is "fixed" into useable form for plants
a)
only through action of bacteria
b)
only through lightning
c)
through action of bacteria & lightning
d)
through photosynthesis
153.
TRUE or FALSE?
All of the carbon in existence is continually recycled in the carbon cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
154.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
155.
Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
156.

Which describes the relationship between plants and animals in the carbon cycle?

a)

Plants produce and release oxygen that animals need

b)

Plants produce and release carbon dioxide that animals need

c)

Animals produce and release oxygen that plants need

d)

Animals produce oxygen that plants turn into carbon dioxide

157.

Carbon molecules cannot be created or destroyed

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not enough information to answer

158.
How do  animals get nitrogen?
a)
the atmosphere 
b)
eating other organisms
c)
bacteria
d)
lightning 
159.
Building proteins and DNA is the reason organisms need what substance?
a)
Water
b)
Carbon
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Calcium
160.
Which is the opposite of condensation?
a)
runoff
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
d)
transpiration
161.
Which best explains why runoff is important?
a)
It returns water to other locations on Earth
b)
It increases the chance of flooding
c)
It makes evaporation occur faster
d)
It increases condensation
162.
Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples of  ________________. 
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
accumulation
d)
precipitation
163.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
164.
During which stage do clouds form?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
precipitation
165.
What is a layer of rock or sediment that holds water?
a)
glacier
b)
well
c)
aquifer
d)
natural spring
166.

Plants use CO2 in the process of ___________________ to make ___________ and oxygen.

a)

photosynthesis, carbon dioxide

b)

cellular respiration, glucose

c)

cellular respiration, carbon dioxide

d)

photosynthesis, glucose

167.

Only special bacteria can directly use nitrogen in our atmosphere and modify it into a usable form for plants and animals. This process is called

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

denitrification

c)

decomposition

d)

nitrogen renewal

168.

What part of the carbon cycle is represented by B?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

cellular respiration

d)

combustion

169.

Approximately what percentage of our atmosphere is made up of Nitrogen?

a)

90%

b)

10%

c)

78%

d)

42%

170.

Through which activity do animals get the carbon that is needed for their bodies?

a)

breathing

b)

running

c)

eating

d)

sleeping

171.
The impact on the planet due to global warming is called...
a)
climate change
b)
the seasons
c)
the weather
d)
natural change
172.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
173.

The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is

a)

riding bicycles

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

texting on cellphones

d)

eating meat

174.

Which of the following have been changed or altered due to climate change ?

a)

droughts

b)

flooding

c)

melting of polar ice caps

d)

all of the above

175.

Which of the following is contributing to an INCREASE in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

deforestation

b)

photosynthesis

c)

oceans

d)

all of the above

e)

the loss of animal species

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