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APES Final Review

Total questions: 166

Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

a)

is increasing in part due to fossil fuel use.

b)

has not significantly changed in the past 200 years.

c)

is increasing in part due to deforestation.

d)

has been decreasing since the 1800’s.

e)

can not be reliably measured

2.

The environment refers to

a)

all conditions surrounding us on Earth.

b)

species interactions that affect human life.

c)

conditions that cause negative effects on our health.

d)

interactions that harm the atmosphere.

e)

the sum of all the conditions surrounding us that influence life.

3.

Evidence of biodiversity is seen in

a)

genetic variation among human populations.

b)

number of species in a region.

c)

number of ecosystems and habitats in a region.

d)

genetic variation among plants and animals in a region.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

4.

Which is NOT a non-renewable resources?

a)

aluminum

b)

oil

c)

timber

d)

copper

e)

coal

5.

Which is an example of a sustainable practice?

I. Replanting a logged forest

II. Developing substitutes for nonrenewable resources

III. Banning the use of all fossil fuels without a planned transition to an alternative

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

6.

An ecological footprint considers

a)

per capita resource use of a nation.

b)

how much an individual consumes in terms of land area.

c)

average yearly consumption of resources.

d)

resources that an entire nation consumes in and average year.

e)

the ratio of resources consumed in developed nations to less developed nations.

7.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


The treatments planted with only wheat are the

a)

sample size.

b)

control.

c)

environmental variable.

d)

null hypothesis.

e)

replication.

8.

The study of environmental science differs from study of other natural sciences because it

a)

doesn’t use experiments.

b)

does not require any mathematical calculations.

c)

also includes politics, law, and economics.

d)

does not require an understanding of biology.

e)

uses the scientific process.

9.

The goal of using resources to meet the needs of both current and future generations is referred

to as

a)

NAFTA.

b)

preservation

c)

remediation

d)

sustainability

e)

environmental science

10.

An experiment is designed to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted alone or with clover. The design calls for 3 pans of each treatment. Pans A, B, and C contain only wheat. Pans D, E, and F contain clover and wheat planted in alternating rows. Each pan contains a total of

100 seeds. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size pan, are exposed to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the experiment.


Which statement provides a hypothesis for this experiment?

a)

Wheat grows taller when planted by itself than when it is alternated with clover.

b)

Clover grows better when planted by itself.

c)

Wheat grows better when planted together with clover.

d)

Clover grows better when planted together with wheat.

e)

Both A and C are legitimate hypotheses for this experiment.

11.

Which is NOT considered an example of natural capital?

a)

Copper ore

b)

Potable water

c)

Wind

d)

Plastic bottles

e)

Soil

12.

How do you calculate % Change?

a)

(y2-y1)/y2 * 100%

b)

(y1-y2)/y1 * 100%

c)

(y2-y1)/y1 * 100%

d)

(y1-y2)/y2 * 100%

13.

The study of environmental science primarily considers

a)

interactions among human systems and those found in Earth

b)

the effect of human systems

c)

abiotic factors that influence the state of our environment

d)

factors that affect global climate change

14.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

15.

Which best describes the difference between an environmentalist and an environmental scientist?

a)

the difference is unimportant because both care about Earth

b)

an environmentalist follows a belief system; an environmental scientist is concerned with the methods of science

c)

an environmentalist studies the humanities; an environmental scientist has a background in biology and chemistry

d)

an environmentalist is concerned with abiotic factors; an environmental scientist studies biotic factors

16.

Which pair of biogeochemical cycles are most associated with inorganic fertilizer and sewage waste?

a)

Carbon and Nitrogen cycles

b)

Carbon and Sulfur cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

17.

In which biogeochemical cycles are humans most affecting the natural greenhouse affect?

a)

Carbon, Nitrogen, and Water cycles

b)

Carbon and Phosphorous cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

18.

Which biogeochemical cycles are directly related to acid deposition?

a)

Carbon and Nitrogen cycles

b)

Carbon and Sulfur cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Carbon, Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

19.

A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kilograms C/m^2/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kilograms C/m^2/year. What is the NPP?

a)

6.2 kg C/m^2/year

b)

1.4 kg C/m^2/year

c)

1.0 kg C/m^2/year

d)

9.12 kg C/m^2/year

e)

1.58 kg C/m^2/year

20.

Matter is ___

a)

anything that has volume and mass

b)

anything that has energy

c)

anything that doesn't have mass

d)

anything that doesn't have volume

21.

As a solid or a liquid, water reaches its lowest density at

a)

4 degrees C

b)

39 degrees F

c)

100 degrees C

d)

0 degrees C

22.

According to the law of conservation of matter,

I. matter can be created

II. matter can not be destroyed

III. after a chemical reaction, the original atoms remain

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

23.

To produce sodium chloride, common table salt, a single electron in the outer shell of the sodium atom is transferred to the outer shell of the chlorine atom. This is an example of

a)

the formation of an ionic bond

b)

the formation of a covalent bond

c)

radioactive decay

d)

the formation of a hydrogen bond

24.

Water is a good solvent. This statement explains which of the following phenomena:

I. High concentrations of dissolved ions in seawater

II. Capacity of living organisms to store many types of molecules in solution in their cells

III. Easy transport of toxic substances through the environment

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

I, II, III

25.

Organic compounds may contain

I. carbon-carbon bonds

II. carbon-hydrogen bonds

III. hydrogen-oxygen bonds

a)

I

b)

II

c)

I and III

d)

I and II

26.

The ability to do work is called

a)

power

b)

joules

c)

energy

d)

heat

27.

Most energy on Earth comes from

a)

volcanoes

b)

the sun

c)

trees

d)

water

e)

fire

28.

The difference between potential and kinetic energy is that

a)

kinetic energy can not be captured at a dam

b)

potential energy is measured in watts, whereas kinetic energy is measured in joules

c)

potential energy has not yet been released

d)

potential energy is measured in calories, whereas kinetic energy is measured in joules

e)

kinetic energy has not yet been released

29.

A dishwasher uses 700 watts each time it is run. The cycle takes one hour. It is run 150 times per year. How much energy does it use in one year?

a)

Energy = Power x Time; E = 700W x 150h = 105000 Wh = 105kWh

b)

Energy = Power x Time; E = 700W x 150h = 105000 Wh = 1050 kWh

c)

Energy = Power x Time; E = 700W x 150h = 105000 Wh = 1050 J

30.

Greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere

a)

are in steady state

b)

are decreasing

c)

are increasing

d)

can not be measured

31.

A positive feedback loop

a)

is when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

b)

is when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

may be seen in some examples of population growth

d)

both a and c

32.

Extinctions of species can be the result of

a)

natural systems changing

b)

introduction of invasive species

c)

systems that are not in steady state

d)

human inputs

e)

All of these are correct

33.

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

a)

sunlight

b)

pH

c)

water temperature

d)

bacteria

e)

soil texture

34.

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem

a)

Herbivores --> producers --> carnivores --> scavengers

b)

Producers --> herbivores--> carnivores --> scavengers

c)

Producers --> carnivores --> herbivores--> carnivores

d)

Scavengers--> carnivores --> herbivores--> producers

35.

Which group of organisms perform photosynthesis?

a)

scavengers

b)

autotrophs

c)

heterotrophs

d)

decomposers

36.

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of NPP

a)

Energy captured minus energy lost

b)

total amount of energy available for the sun

c)

Total amount of energy produced from photosynthesis

d)

Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

37.

Humans have a considerable effect on the hydrologic cycle. Which of the following human activities have(has a) direct effect(s) on the cycle?

I. Deforestation

II. Urbanization

III. Mining of fossil fuels

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

I and III

e)

I, II, and III

38.

An addition of a limiting nutrient to an ecosystem may lead to an algal bloom. What effect will this algal bloom have on the oxygen content of the water?

a)

The algae bloom will cause the oxygen content in the water to increase overall

b)

The algae bloom will cause the oxygen content in the water to decrease, leading to hypoxic conditions

c)

The algae bloom will have no impact on the oxygen content of the water

d)

The algae bloom will cause rapid fluctuations of oxygen in the water

39.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

larger-bodied

b)

put energy into reproduction not survival

c)

good competitors

d)

are very protective of their offspring

40.

The K-selection reproductive strategy maximizes survival of offspring by producing

a)

many offspring with low levels of parental care

b)

few offspring with low levels of parental care

c)

many offspring with high levels of parental care

d)

few offspring with high levels of parental care

41.

Which represents an r-selected species?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

42.

Which represents a k-selected species?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

43.

Which represents a species that has a constant death rate

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

44.

Which represents a species that has many offspring but most do not reach sexual maturity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

45.

Line b represents

a)

exponential growth

b)

overshoot and dieoff

c)

constant growth

d)

species at carrying capacity

46.

Line c represents

a)

exponential growth

b)

overshoot and dieoff

c)

constant growth

d)

species at carrying capacity

47.

Which has a negative growth rate

a)

Country 1

b)

Country 2

c)

Country 3

d)

Country 4

48.

Which country has the highest fertility rate?

a)

Country 1

b)

Country 2

c)

Country 3

d)

Country 4

49.

Which country experienced a baby boom?

a)

Country 1

b)

Country 2

c)

Country 3

d)

Country 4

50.

Which country would you expect to be in stage 1 of the demographic transition

a)

Country 1

b)

Country 2

c)

Country 3

d)

Country 4

51.

Which of the following can be interpreted from an age-structure diagram of a country?

a)

The maximum age when women give birth

b)

The total fertility rate of the population

c)

The relative population growth rate of the population

d)

The carrying capacity of the local environment

52.

Which of the following best describes a density-independent factor that controls population size?

a)

Competition for resources like food and water

b)

Infectious disease transmission

c)

Reduced availability of habitat

d)

Occurrences of droughts and flooding

53.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

54.

During which stage does population experience an explosive increase in growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

55.

In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

56.

In a human population undergoing the demographic transition, which of the following generally decreases first?

a)

Birth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

life expectancy

d)

Average family size

57.

During which stage of the demographic transition are birth rates and death rates become equal but population is high

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

58.
The Coriolis effect is responsible for
a)
the convergence of two ascending Hadley cells
b)
the location of atmospheric currents caused by the unequal heating of Earth
c)
the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands
d)
the deflection of atmospheric currents
59.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
60.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

61.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

62.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

63.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
64.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
mud
d)
dirt
65.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
66.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
67.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

68.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
69.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
70.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

71.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
72.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
73.
This is the side of the mountain that is often drier and warmer.
a)
Leeward Side
b)
Wet Lapse Rate
c)
Windward Side
d)
Wild Side
74.

What are the proportions of sand, silt, and clay for the soil at point X ?

a)

5% Sand, 95% Silt, 5% Clay

b)

5% Sand, 20% Silt, 5% Clay

c)

65% Sand, 30% Silt, 10% Clay

d)

60% Sand, 30% Silt, 10% Clay

75.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

76.

Which two factors allow earth to experience four distinct seasons?

a)

latitude & solar intensity

b)

tilt of axis & rotation of axis

c)

tilt of axis & rotation around sun

d)

distance from sun & place in orbit around sun

77.

Which is a direct result of the Coriolis Effect?

a)

Upwellings

b)

tides

c)

ocean conveyor belt

d)

Tsunami

e)

Ocean gyres

78.
Which of the following can be described as a market-based system intended to help control access to fisheries?
a)
Cap and trade
b)
total allowable catch system
c)
co-management systems
d)
individual transfer rights system
79.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
80.
Reverse osmosis is a process in which:
a)
Cells release water into the surrounding fluids.
b)
salt water is forced through a membrane to remove particulates. 
c)
solid wastes are removed from septic systems.
d)
storm water runoff is diverted into natural water sources.
81.
The Mississippi River carries agricultural runoff to the Gulf of Mexico.  What phenomenon results?
a)
a dead zone
b)
regular flooding of the Mississippi delta
c)
return of mining refuse water
d)
Gold tides
82.
What percentage of expensive bottled water is actually bottled tap water?
a)
10%
b)
30%
c)
40%
d)
56.72468%
83.
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sources of groundwater contamination?
a)
Industry
b)
Agriculture
c)
Mining
d)
Lawn fertilizers
84.
Which of the following could be described as "non-point source" pollution?
a)
A farmer dumps her waste into a stream that runs through her property.
b)
A mining impoundment pond overflows.
c)
Over 100,000 acres of continuos farmland has water with excess levels of nitrates.
d)
Waste water from a nuclear plant spills into a nearby waterway.
85.
The Great Lakes are threatened.  Which of the following is a success story from the 2007 State of the Great Lakes Report?
a)
Native carnivorous fish numbers are increasing.
b)
Wetlands are being restored.
c)
Native species at the base of the food chain are increasing in size.
d)
Dissolved oxygen levels have improved.
86.
Streams and Rivers can cleanse themselves, why can't groundwater?
a)
It moves too quickly.
b)
It doesn't move quickly enough.
c)
It is too close to the surface to be adequately purified.
d)
It is too deep in the ground to be adequately purified.
87.
Lake Washington was restored due to:
a)
The Clean Water Act
b)
The Safe Drinking Water Act
c)
Citizen pressure
d)
The Superfund Act
88.
Coliforms are good indicator of:
a)
water quality
b)
invasive species
c)
parasites
d)
air quality
89.
Of the following organisms, the group that is least likely to cause disease is:
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protzoa
c)
Algae
d)
Parasitic worms
90.
[BLANK] is the branch of ecology which studies ways to encourage biodiversity in human-dominated ecosystems.
a)
Biomimicry
b)
Reconciliation ecology
c)
Restorative ecology
d)
Preventative Ecology
91.

What percent of energy consumption is made of renewable energy?

a)

92%

b)

50%

c)

20%

d)

8%

92.

Which type of renewable energy is pictured?

a)

photovoltaic cells

b)

parabolic solar collection

c)

hydroelectric

d)

geothermal

93.

Which of the following is not a drawback of solar energy?

a)

sunlight does not have energy

b)

cost

c)

sun is not always out

d)

solar energy is diffuse and hard to collect

94.

Which of the following is a drawback to wind energy? (Select all that apply)

a)

migration of birds being interrupted

b)

noise

c)

disrupts the landscape

d)

not available in all locations

95.

What is a drawback to hydroelectric power?

a)

fish being isolated on one side of the dam

b)

water in the reservoir becomes warm

c)

increases the dissolved oxygen

d)

increases the rate of nutrient flow downstream

96.

Which location would be best for solar energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

97.

Which location would be best for geothermal energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

98.

Which location would be best for wind energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

99.

Which renewable energy does not require spinning a turbine?

a)

hydroelectric

b)

wind

c)

tidal

d)

photovoltaic cells

100.

A home is built with clear glass panels that allow sunlight to pass through. This is an example of

a)

Active solar

b)

Passive solar

c)

Parabolic collector

d)

Photovoltaic Cells

101.

What is given off as waste in a hydrogen fueled car?

a)

H2

b)

O2

c)

H2O2

d)

H2O

102.

A home is fitted with pumps that pipe water to the roof of the home to be heated by the sun. This is an example of

a)

passive solar

b)

active solar

c)

parabolic collector

d)

photovoltaic cell

103.

Which of the following is not a biofuel or a biomass?

a)

wood

b)

ethanol from corn

c)

dung

d)

methane

104.

Fuel cells that use a chemical reaction to generate electricity are using

a)

hydrogen gas

b)

methane gas

c)

water

d)

oil

105.

What is a drawback of using ethanol as a fuel alternative to gasoline?

a)

it is produced from a food item

b)

produces more pollution than gas

c)

nonrenewable and comes from the ground

d)

burns worse than gasoline

106.

If a tractor trailer truck is 20% efficient, what happened to the other 80%

a)

energy is destroyed

b)

energy is lost as heat

c)

the 80% is still in the gas tank

d)

energy is converted into matter

107.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Ideal for mobile combustion engines

· Quick ignition/ turn-off capability

· Cleaner-burning than coal

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

108.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Energy-dense and abundant—will last up to 200 years

· No refining needed

· Easy, safe to transport

· Economic backbone of many small towns

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

109.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Cogeneration power plants can have efficiencies up to 60%

· Efficient for cooking, heating, etc.

· Fewer impurities than coal or oil

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

110.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Emits no CO2

· Offers independence from imported oil

· High energy density, ample supply

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

111.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Significant refining required

· Potential for spills on wildlife habitats

· Significant dust and emissions during construction of rigs and refineries

· Human rights/ environmental justice issues in developing countries that export

Will decrease in availability greatly within 40 years

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

112.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Mining alters landscapes and endangers humans

· Plants are slow to reach full operating capacity

· Large contributor to acid rain

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

113.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Risk of leaks/explosions

· 25x more effective as a greenhouse (warming) gas than CO2

· Low availability because pipelines are needed

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

114.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?


· Unpopular, generates protests

· Plants are $$$ to build because of legal challenges

· Potential for catastrophic meltdowns and accidents

· Possible terrorist targets

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

115.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Second highest emitter of CO2

· Hydrocarbons

· Hydrogen sulfide

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

116.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Highest emitter of CO2

· Sulfur

· Trace amounts of toxic metals such as mercury

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

117.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Methane (CH4)

· Hydrocarbons

· Hydrogen sulfide

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

118.

The following are pollutant and greenhouse gas emissions of which type of energy?


· Radioactive waste

· Emissions from uranium mining

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

119.

Implicated in human neurological damage

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

120.

Is the major pollutant that electrostatic precipitators are designed to remove from power-plant smokestack emissions

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

121.

Considered harmful in the troposphere but beneficial in the stratosphere

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

122.

Most often cited as the causative factor for acid deposition

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrocarbons

e)

Particulates

123.

The three main anthropogenic sources of gaseous air pollutants in the United States are

a)

soil erosion, volcanoes, and forest fires

b)

soil erosion, volcanoes, and energy production

c)

industry, construction, and agriculture

d)

industry, transportation, and energy production

e)

industry, transportation, and agriculture

124.

Composed of fibers known to cause lung disease

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

125.

Emitted from most manufactured building materials and furniture

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

126.

Found in old plumbing pipes and fixtures and some ceramic glazes

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

127.

Colorless, odorless gas that is a naturally occurring decay product of uranium

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

128.

Which of the following is the human health impact most closely associated with atmospheric particulates?

a)

Cataracts

b)

Diabetes

c)

Melanoma

d)

Asthma

e)

Obesity

129.

Smoke from forest fires is most likely to affect air quality over larger areas for many days when

a)

smog is produced due to chemical reactions in the atmosphere

b)

a persistent atmospheric inversion exists in the region

c)

oak trees are burned, releasing terpenes into the atmosphere

d)

primary, rather than secondary, forests are burned

e)

vegetation in the region is green and burns more slowly

130.

The majority of atmospheric mercury is produced by

a)

medical waste incinerators

b)

volatilization of lead-based paint

c)

coal-burning power plants

d)

runoff from thermometer factories

e)

municipal waste incinerators

131.

Which type of electricity-generating power plant releases radioactive materials as well as toxic metals such as lead and arsenic under normal operating conditions?

a)

Nuclear

b)

Hydroelectric

c)

Solar

d)

Coal-burning

e)

Geothermal

132.

Has a stronger affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen has

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

methane

d)

radon

e)

sulfur dioxide

133.

Is a flammable gas produced by landfills

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

methane

d)

radon

e)

sulfur dioxide

134.

Has been implicated as the cause of as much as 15 percent of lung cancer cases

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

methane

d)

radon

e)

sulfur dioxide

135.

Is an important precursor to acid rain

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

methane

d)

radon

e)

sulfur dioxide

136.

Catalytic converters reduce which of the following pairs of pollutants in car exhaust?

a)

Carbon dioxide and ozone

b)

Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons

c)

Carbon dioxide and particulates

d)

Lead and mercury

e)

Methane and particulates

137.

Is primarily responsible for acid rain in the northeast United States

a)

uranium-238

b)

coal

c)

natural gas

d)

oil

e)

solar

138.

Currently proven global reserves are expected to be largely exhausted within the next 50 years.

a)

uranium-238

b)

coal

c)

natural gas

d)

oil

e)

solar

139.

Is renewable

a)

uranium-238

b)

coal

c)

natural gas

d)

oil

e)

solar

140.

Occurs naturally in bedrock and leads to the formation of radon

a)

uranium-238

b)

coal

c)

natural gas

d)

oil

e)

solar

141.

Approximately how many more times acidic, in terms of H+ concentration, is precipitation in the northeastern United States as compared to precipitation in the South Pacific?

a)

0.1

b)

2

c)

10

d)

20

e)

100

142.

The primary cause of acid precipitation in the northeastern United States is

a)

the large number of automobile air conditioners leaking Freon

b)

burning of sulfur-containing fossil fuels to produce electricity

c)

deforestation, which reduces the number of trees removing atmospheric CO2

d)

strip-mining, which releases large quantities of particulates into the atmosphere

e)

global warming, which speeds the chemical reactions that produce acids

143.

A paper company located on the banks of a river discharges its treated wastewater into the river.


Which of the following would be the best control group to evaluate the treated wastewater from the paper company?

a)

A sample of distilled water

b)

A sample of water from a nearby river

c)

A sample of water downstream from the same river

d)

A sample of water upstream from the same river

144.

A paper company located on the banks of a river discharges its treated wastewater into the river.


Which of the following would be the best location to obtain a water sample from to determine if the paper plant is affecting the acidity of the river?

a)

Immediately downstream from the paper plant

b)

Immediately upstream from the paper plant

c)

At an upstream tributary to the river

d)

At a downstream tributary to the river

145.

A paper company located on the banks of a river discharges its treated wastewater into the river.


Which of the following water quality indicators should be measured to best determine if the wastewater is increasing the acidity of the river?

a)

The amount of dissolved oxygen

b)

The total suspended solids

c)

The amount of hydrogen ions

d)

The species richness

146.
The largest component of municipal solid waste in the US is:
a)
Paper
b)
Plastic
c)
Yard Trimmings
d)
Metal
147.

Endocrine disruptors cause the following impacts to organisms

a)

increased respiratory rate

b)

damage to the cardiovascular system

c)

increased size of individual organisms

d)

birth defects and cancer

148.
Which of the following is NOT used as a tertiary treatment to sanitize wastewater?
a)
Chlorine
b)
Ozone
c)
UV light
d)
CFC
149.
DDT is a POP (Persistent Organic Pesticide) that can act as an endocrine disruptor.  Which would it have the greatest effect on?
a)
Producers
b)
Primary Consumers
c)
Secondary Consumers
d)
Autotrophs
150.
The release of a large amount of sewage overflow into a nearby creek would lead to:
a)
High DO, High BOD, Low Fecal Coliform
b)
Low DO, High BOD, Low Fecal Coliform
c)
Low DO, High BOD, High Fecal Coliform
d)
Low DO, Low BOD, High Fecal Coliform
151.
In a river ecosystem, dissolved oxygen concentrations drop quickly downstream from a point-source input of organic matter into the river due to
a)
increasing populations of mayfly and stonefly larvae
b)
increasing bacterial activity as organic matter decays
c)
decreasing bacterial activity as turbidity increases
d)
decreasing water temperature
152.

Aquatic ecosystem that serves as a nursery for many species and suffers from pollution from city harbors like the Chesapeake Bay

a)

estuaries

b)

coral reefs

c)

open ocean

d)

wetlands

153.

Presence of fecal coliform bacteria suggests that

a)

a factory polluted the river

b)

a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the waste water

c)

the water is safe for drinking

d)

untreated animal waste contaminated the water

154.

Which of the following describe the relationship between D.O. and B.O.D.?

a)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. decreases

b)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. increases

c)

When B.O.D. decreases, the D.O. decreases

d)

When B.O.D. increases, the D.O. decreases

155.

Which water quality test will best determine the disruption of photosynthesis caused by cloudy water conditions from sedimentation?

a)

Temperature

b)

Salinity

c)

Dissolved oxygen

d)

pH

e)

Turbidity

156.

The process of human activities in urban or agricultural areas that load nutrients into surface bodies of water is known as

a)

artificial fertilization

b)

cultural eutrophication

c)

thermal pollution

d)

lake stratification

e)

synthetic primary productivity

157.

Which of the following is a point-source pollutant?

a)

Sediment loading from erosion

b)

Runoff of pesticides from croplands

c)

Animal wastes from feedlots

d)

Fertilizer runoff from urban areas

e)

A sewage treatment plant effluent pipe

158.

Which of the following river conditions would yield the highest dissolved oxygen content?

a)

Fast-moving cold water, large amounts of submerged vegetative biomass

b)

Stagnant, warm water with large clumps of algae

c)

Slow- moving warm waters, low amounts of submerged vegetative biomass

d)

Warm water with little vegetative biomass

159.
Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution
a)
Effluent from a sewage treatment plant
b)
BP refiner in Indiana discharging ammonia in a river.
c)
Runoff of pesticides from regional farms into the Illinois River.
d)
Hot water discharges from a nuclear power plant.
160.
Increased use of inorganic (lab-made) fertilizers on crops contributes to:
a)
Hypoxia in the Gulf of Mexico
b)
Increase in storm severity in southeastern U.S.
c)
Water shortages in California
d)
Saltwater intrusion on the East Coast.
161.

What is the danger in eating large fish like tuna and shark?

a)

They may be invasive species.

b)

If abundant, they may lead to a crash in other species.

c)

If they are high on the food chain they may contain high levels of mercury or POP's like PCB's

d)

They may contain too many nutrients from fertilizers.

162.
What is it called when a persistent pollutant (like mercury or PCBs) builds up in the tissues of an organism as they continue to eat something that contains the pollutant
a)
Subsidence
b)
Biomagnification
c)
Tragedy of the commons
d)
Bioaccumulation
163.

Organic matter like yard waste in landfills is a problem primarily because

a)

there is a high risk of toxic leaching

b)

it contains bacteria that spreads disease

c)

as it breaks down it can dissolve the containment

d)

it produces methane gas

164.
Incineration of waste is primarily used
a)
to generate heat or electricity
b)
to reduce waste volume and mass
c)
to eliminate heavy metals
d)
when there is no other option
165.
Amount of a toxic material per unit of body weight of test animals that kills half the test population in a certain time
a)
risk assessment
b)
risk management
c)
LD50
d)
LD60
166.
What is the LD-50 for Toxin B?
a)
10 mg
b)
13 mg
c)
25 mg
d)
50 mg

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