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2020-2021 Spring Semester Exam Study Set

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Historical Geologists study the origin of the earth.

a)

True

b)

fALSE

2.

Mid-ocean ridges are locations for subduction.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The way someone interprets the facts depends on their worldview.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Scientists believe the deeper into the Earth _____.

a)

temperature and pressure both decrease, and density increases

b)

temperature and pressure increases as density decreases

c)

temperature, pressure, and density all increase

d)

temperature decreases as pressure and density increases

5.

Which layer of Earth is the most dense?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

6.

What do scientists use to map the Earth’s interior?

a)

They dig deep wells into all the layers.

b)

They use special X-Rays.

c)

They use seismic waves from earthquakes.

d)

They use satellite images.

7.

Which is true about Earth’s Crust?

a)

The Continental Crust is thicker and less dense than the Oceanic Crust.

b)

The Continental Crust is thinner and less dense than the Oceanic Crust.

c)

The Continental Crust is thicker and more dense than the Oceanic Crust.

d)

The Continental Crust is thinner and more dense than the Oceanic Crust.

8.

The Nebular hypothesis _________.

a)

has been developed by Biblical scientists to describe how our solar system came into existence.

b)

has been developed by secular scientists to describe how our solar system came into existence.

c)

has been developed by Biblical scientists to describe how our universe came into existence.

d)

has been developed by secular scientists to describe how our universe came into existence.

9.

Who first proposed the hypothesis of continental drift, and gave a name to the last supercontinent?

a)

Antonio Snider

b)

Alfred Wegener

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Charles Darwin

10.

Giant moving sections of the earth's crust are called _____________________.

a)

athenosphere

b)

tectonic plates

c)

uppermost mantle

d)

crust

11.

The order of events in the Genesis Creation account is _______ the order in which secular scientists believe the earth was formed.

a)

somewhat similar to

b)

the exact opposite of

c)

different from

d)

identical to

12.

Evidence that the Earth’s magnetic field has reversed itself several times in the past is shown in ______________

a)

the alignment of iron minerals in rocks when they are formed on the continental crust.

b)

the alignment of iron minerals in rocks when they are formed on the ocean floor.

c)

the subduction of the oceanic crust under the continental crust.

d)

the subduction of the continental crust under the oceanic crust.

13.

GPS data shows ________________.

a)

magnetic reversal

b)

mid-ocean ridges

c)

the speed and direction of tectonic plates

d)

the layers of the earth

14.

The layer of the earth that makes up the tectonic plates is called the ____________.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

crust

c)

inner core

d)

lithosphere

e)

mantle

15.

The layer of the earth that creates the Earth’s magnetic field is called the _______.

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

upper mantle

e)

asthenosphere

16.

The layer of the earth that tectonic plates “float” on is called the ____________.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

mantle

c)

crust

d)

lithosphere

e)

uppermost mantle

17.

A resource like oil, coal, and natural gas that cannot be replenished is called _________.

a)

natural resource

b)

unnatural resource

c)

renewable resource

d)

nonrenewable resource

18.

The effort to oversee and control the use of natural resources is called _____________.

a)

resource management

b)

nature management

c)

recycling

d)

Creation Mandate

19.

Earth’s continents were once joined as a single landmass called ____________________.

a)

Pangaea

b)

Earth

c)

Geomass

d)

Eden

20.

Biblical scientists believe that, after creation, the surface of the earth was dramatically changed by ___________________.

a)

asteroids and meteoroids.

b)

droughts.

c)

the great flood.

d)

a series of local floods.

21.

Proof that a supercontinent existed, and that the continents are drifting includes ____________________.

a)

Continents fit together like puzzle pieces.

b)

Fossils found on different continents.

c)

Similar mountain formations (rocks and minerals) on different continents

d)

Evidence of glaciers on tropical continents

e)

ALL of the other answers combined.

22.

The smallest type of volcano is a shield volcano.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Seismologists are scientists who study earthquakes.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Volcanoes are both a type of tectonic landform, and a type of non-tectonic landform

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Molten rock that is underground is called lava.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What do scientists believe causes seafloor spreading and subduction?

a)

divergence

b)

earthquakes and volcanoes

c)

convection

d)

convergence

27.

Earthquakes are caused by what type of force?

a)

Shear

b)

Compression

c)

Tension

d)

none of the other answers

28.

The Great Rift Valley in Africa is a _____.

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

divergent boundary

c)

convergent boundary

d)

transform boundary

29.

_____ are formed when two continental plates collide.

a)

Volcanoes

b)

Strike-slip faults

c)

Mountain ranges

d)

valleys

30.

“We all got scared and ran outside when we felt the earth shake. The house was ok, but our old shed fell over.” This quote would help a researcher to place an earthquake on which scale?

a)

Modified Mercalli Scale

b)

Richter Scale

c)

moment magnitude scale

d)

all of the other answers combined

31.

When the force on rocks is great enough, they break, producing vibrations called ____.

a)

faults

b)

earthquakes

c)

strains

d)

stresses

32.

At least ____ seismometers are needed to accurately locate an earthquake epicenter.

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

33.

A break in Earth’s lithosphere where one block of rock moves toward, away from, or past another is called a(n) ____.

a)

fault

b)

earthquake

c)

strain

d)

stress

34.

Scientists discovered changes in Earth's interior by studying ____.

a)

tsunamis

b)

tides

c)

changes in seismic waves

d)

all of the other answers combined

35.

The point in Earth's interior where the energy release of an earthquake occurs is the _______.

a)

focus

b)

epicenter

c)

fault

d)

inner core

36.

The amount of ground motion caused by an earthquake is measured by the _________.

a)

Richter scale

b)

moment magnitude scale

c)

modified Mercalli scale

d)

none of the other answers

37.

______________ (the equilibrium between continental crust and the denser mantle below it) explains how the entire surface of the earth was covered by water during the Great Flood. It also explains why coastal cities haven’t been flooded due to global warming.

a)

Subsidence

b)

Uplift

c)

Isostasy

d)

Topography

38.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Both earthquakes and volcanoes can be predicted.

b)

Neither earthquakes, nor volcanoes can be predicted.

c)

Earthquakes can be predicted, but volcanoes cannot be predicted.

d)

Volcanoes can be predicted, but earthquakes cannot be predicted.

39.

Glaciers form ________________________.

a)

moraines, eskers, and kames.

b)

sand dunes and sand stone.

c)

mesas, buttes, and pinnacles.

d)

plateaus and domes.

40.

A mountain, like Panola Mountain, that was created when molten rock formed a dome chamber, and later the softer sedimentary rock around it eroded, leaving the rock mountain is called a ____________________.

a)

dome

b)

fault-block mountain.

c)

pinnacle

d)

monadnock

41.

Sally accidentally stepped on a piece of soft candy on the floor, squishing it flat. This type of force or stress is called _______________.

a)

tension

b)

shear

c)

compression

d)

erosion

42.

Records show that ________________________________.

a)

earthquakes usually occur along tectonic plate boundaries, but volcanoes usually occur in the middle of tectonic plates.

b)

volcanoes usually occur along tectonic plate boundaries, but earthquakes usually occur in the middle of tectonic plates.

c)

both earthquakes and volcanoes usually occur in the middle of tectonic plates.

d)

both earthquakes and volcanoes usually occur along tectonic plates boundaries.

43.

_______________ is/are made up of particles of pulverized rock and glass.

a)

Magma

b)

Volcanic ash

c)

Lava

d)

Cinders

44.

Which of these structure types is the most common for volcanoes?

a)

seamounts

b)

shield volcano

c)

composite volcano or stratovolcano

d)

cinder cone

45.

What are “hot spots”?

a)

A “Hot Spot” is any hole in a volcano where lava is coming out.

b)

“Hot Spots” are a term used for any volcano.

c)

“Hot Spots” are volcanoes not associated with tectonic plate boundaries.

d)

“Hot Spots” are magma chambers or domes under volcanoes.

46.

Which of the following IS a hydrothermal land feature that we discussed in class?

a)

epicenter

b)

lava pool

c)

Cinder cone

d)

geyser

47.

Geothermal power plants __________.

a)

can be used for heating homes and businesses, and for generating electricity.

b)

are very common, producing most of the electricity in the United States.

c)

can be built just about anywhere.

d)

are very new because geothermal power has only recently been discovered.

48.

What are broad regions of relatively undisturbed sedimentary deposits lifted up by some tectonic process?

a)

folded mountain

b)

rift valley

c)

fault-blocked mountain

d)

plateau

e)

monadnock

49.

What are small columns of rock left in place when water and/or wind erodes the dirt around them?

a)

plateau

b)

monadnock

c)

pinnacle

d)

folded mountain

e)

fault-blocked mountain

50.

What are formed when large regions fall vertically due to lack of support underground?

a)

folded mountain

b)

basin

c)

volcano

d)

monadnock

e)

plateau

51.

When an object is being pulled apart, what type of force is created?

a)

No stress

b)

compression

c)

tension

d)

shear

52.

When an object is being pushed together, what type of force is created?

a)

No stress

b)

compression

c)

tension

d)

shear

53.

The height of a landform measured from sea level (the surface of the ocean) to the top of the landform is called ____.

a)

Relief

b)

Range

c)

Length

d)

Elevation

54.

The height of a landform measured from the land around it to the top of the landform is called ____.

a)

Relief

b)

Range

c)

Length

d)

Elevation

55.

One of the types of diaphaneity is metallic.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Rocks that have a desired substance which can be mined for a profit are called sediments.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

All minerals form through ____________.

a)

erosion

b)

crystallization

c)

cementation

d)

deposition

58.

Which of the following scientists would most likely study minerals professionally?

a)

an anthropologist

b)

a mineralogist

c)

a paleontologist

d)

a petrologist

59.

Minerals are composed of one or more ____.

a)

rocks

b)

colors

c)

atomic elements

d)

structures

60.

A native mineral is one that ___________________.

a)

is one that is in the group of most common minerals.

b)

is a mineral that makes up most rocks.

c)

is made of only one type of atom/element.

d)

is one that never combines with other minerals.

61.

The hardest mineral on the Mohs scale is ____.

a)

topaz

b)

quartz

c)

diamond

d)

talc

62.

What can cause a given mineral to be different colors (ex. Quartz)?

a)

whether it is a mineral or not

b)

a different rate of cooling

c)

whether it is intrusive or extrusive

d)

chemical impurities

63.

Gemstones are prized for their _______________________.

a)

hardness for use in cutting tools.

b)

rarity and beauty.

c)

use in electrical connections.

d)

use in medicines.

64.

A mineral’s crystal shape is dictated by _________.

a)

how fast the mineral cooled.

b)

the mineral’s hardness.

c)

the arrangement of the mineral’s atoms.

d)

the amount of pressure from the rocks around it.

65.

All minerals share the following characteristics EXCEPT that of ____.

a)

being man-made

b)

having an orderly arrangement of atoms or ions

c)

being solids

d)

having a crystalline pattern

66.

Mica breaks into thin, flat pieces. This is an example of the physical characteristic called ____.

a)

hardness

b)

streak

c)

fracture

d)

cleavage

67.

Topaz will scratch quartz and quartz will scratch calcite. Which of these gives the only possible hardness values for topaz, quartz, and calcite in the correct order?

a)

topaz = 8 , quartz = 7, calcite = 3

b)

topaz = 3 , quartz = 8, calcite = 7

c)

topaz = 8 , quartz = 3, calcite = 7

d)

topaz = 3 , quartz = 7, calcite = 8

68.

The individual rock particles, crystals, and sometimes fossils that combine to give a rock its texture are known as __________.

a)

grains

b)

nuggets

c)

sediments

d)

parent rocks

69.

Rocks formed strictly from minerals precipitated from water are __________.

a)

non-clastic sedimentary rocks

b)

clastic sedimentary rocks

c)

contact metamorphic rocks

d)

extrusive igneous

70.

Which statement is NOT correct regarding igneous rock formation?

a)

The rock minerals were once molten (melted) rock.

b)

The processes to become igneous include weathering and erosion.

c)

Igneous rocks can be made from Igneous, Sedimentary, or Metamorphic rock.

d)

Rock melts, then cools and crystalizes.

71.

Foliated or non-foliated are classifications of ______________________.

a)

clastic sedimentary rocks

b)

non-clastic sedimentary rocks

c)

igneous rocks

d)

metamorphic rocks

72.

A rock that has melted, hardened, and crystalized above ground is a(n) ___________________.

a)

clastic sedimentary rock.

b)

intrusive igneous rock.

c)

extrusive igneous rock.

d)

non-foliated metamorphic rock.

73.

Sedimentary rocks formed from the remains of once-living things, like coal, are ____.

a)

Inorganic

b)

Organic

c)

Clastic

d)

Chemical

74.

What type of sedimentary rock has a mixture of large, medium, and small clasts?

a)

shale

b)

sandstone

c)

conglomerates

d)

breccias

75.

Which of the following best describes what dynamic metamorphism is?

a)

a rock at a tectonic plate boundary which is exposed to high heat and pressure

b)

using magma to turn existing rock, close to the magma, into metamorphic rock

c)

rock put under pressure and frictional heat inside a fault during an earthquake

d)

rock that forms quickly from magma erupting from a volcano

76.

Most fossils are found in __________.

a)

sedimentary rock.

b)

intrusive igneous rock.

c)

extrusive igneous rock.

d)

metamorphic rock.

77.

What is the name for the study of fossils?

a)

paleontology

b)

mineralogy

c)

petrology

d)

archaeology

78.

Biblical scientists believe the layers of the fossil record occur __________.

a)

from the largest to the smallest organisms.

b)

in the order in which they evolved.

c)

in the order in which they were buried at a given location.

d)

in an order that is based on where they lived.

79.

Secular scientists believe the layers of the fossil record occur __________.

a)

in the order in which they evolved.

b)

in the order in which they were buried at a given location.

c)

from the largest to the smallest organisms.

d)

in an order that is based on where they lived.

80.

Soil is a mixture of decayed organic matter, weathered rock, mineral fragments, water and ____.

a)

sand

b)

moss

c)

air

d)

clay

81.

All of the following cause mechanical weathering EXCEPT ____.

a)

air pollution

b)

water

c)

wind

d)

animals walking on rocks

82.

Chemical weathering ____.

a)

only occurs with acid rain.

b)

breaks apart rocks by physical processes.

c)

occurs when chemical reactions dissolve or change the materials in rocks into new materials.

d)

none of other answers.

83.

The process where once living material is broken down into dark colored organic material is called ______________.

a)

decomposition.

b)

the rock cycle.

c)

subduction.

d)

weathering.

84.

Any fertile soil must contain __________.

a)

clay

b)

sand

c)

silt

d)

organic material

85.

Why are fossils not being formed today when so many organisms continue to die?

a)

When animals and plants die, they decompose and the pieces move into the soil.

b)

Dead animals and plants do not get buried quick enough to remain intact and fossilize.

c)

It takes thousands of years for animals and plants to become fossils.

d)

Both A & B

e)

A, B, & C

86.

Minerals can be identified based on their ____________ & ___________ properties.

a)

appearance & feel

b)

look & feel

c)

appearance & physical

d)

physical & chemical

87.

_________ are a natural, solid mixture of minerals or grains.

a)

Minerals

b)

Rocks

c)

Atoms

d)

Elements

88.

When light passes through a mineral, but it is distorted it is called _____________.

a)

luster

b)

diaphaneity

c)

opaque

d)

translucent

89.

The resistance of a mineral to being scratched is called __________.

a)

hardness

b)

density

c)

specific gravity

d)

streak

90.

_____________________ is equal to the mass divided by the volume.

a)

specific gravity

b)

density

c)

hardness

d)

diaphaneity

91.

The color of a mineral in powder form is called _________________.

a)

luster

b)

diaphaneity

c)

streak

d)

opaque

92.

About what percentage of the earth's surface is covered by water?

a)

30%

b)

35%

c)

50%

d)

71%

93.

Which of the following does not belong with the other three?

a)

ocean trench

b)

mid-ocean ridge

c)

waves

d)

continental shelf

94.

How much of the earth’s water is salt water?

a)

1%

b)

97.5%

c)

30%

d)

2.5%

95.

In general, the ocean’s temperature _____ from the surface to the bottom.

a)

alternately decreases and then increases

b)

increases

c)

decreases

d)

stays the same

96.

The moon’s and the sun’s gravity is the biggest influence on __________.

a)

the Coriolis effect

b)

tides

c)

weather

d)

the wind

97.

The periodic rise and fall of the ocean’s surface is called _______.

a)

currents

b)

sea level

c)

tides

d)

elevation

98.

Most ocean waves are caused by __________.

a)

the current

b)

changes in tides

c)

the earth’s rotation

d)

the wind

99.

God’s provision of water on the Earth is unique because ____________.

a)

The Earth has liquid water and other planets do not.

b)

Water exists naturally on the Earth in all three states; solid, liquid, and gas.

c)

Water is soluble.

d)

All of the other answers combined.

100.

The best thing to do when caught in a rip current is to ______________.

a)

swim directly to shore.

b)

swim to the side of the current AS SOON AS YOU CAN.

c)

bob up and down in the water.

d)

Let the current take you away from the shore, and when the current becomes weak, swim parallel to the shore, and then back to shore; letting the waves carry you back to shore.

101.

What are the shallow, submerged edges of a continent extending beyond the beach called?

a)

shore

b)

continental shelf

c)

reef

d)

seamount

102.

A stream and all its tributaries make up a __________.

a)

waterway

b)

drainage basin

c)

river

d)

stream system

103.

The region from which water empties into a stream and its tributaries is called which of the following?

a)

drainage basin

b)

valley

c)

stream system

d)

runoff area

104.

Ultimately, streams east of the North American Great Continental Divide drain into the __________.

a)

Southern Ocean

b)

Atlantic Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Arctic Ocean

105.

Which of these contain the greatest amount of the earth's fresh surface water?

a)

marshes

b)

lakes and ponds

c)

streams

d)

swamps

106.

What are the two main factors that drive the water cycle?

a)

The sun and gravity.

b)

The weather and gravity.

c)

The gravitational pull of the sun and moon.

d)

plants and animals.

107.

Irrigation is ______________________________________.

a)

water that is damaging to plants.

b)

God’s way of naturally watering plants.

c)

artificially supplying water to crops.

d)

a form of permeability.

108.

The _________ __________ tells us that we should have dominion over God’s creation.

a)

Golden Rule

b)

story of the Good Samaritan

c)

Creation Mandate

d)

Rule of Law

109.

Where is groundwater located? _______________

a)

runoffs

b)

drainage basins

c)

underground

d)

oceans

110.

What process in the water cycle creates clouds?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

transpiration

111.

What process in the water cycle creates water vapor?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

runoff

112.

What process in the water cycle includes rain, snow, sleet and hail?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

runoff

113.

High blood pressure is the result of too much exposure to ultraviolet light.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

The total amount of energy reaching Earth from the Sun is less than the amount of energy leaving Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

In general, atmospheric pressure is greatest near Earth's surface and ____ as you move upward away from sea level.

a)

doubles

b)

increases

c)

stays the same

d)

decreases

116.

The two gas cycles that move gases from living things to the soil and oceans, into the atmosphere, and back to living things are the ____________________________ cycles.

a)

ions and ozone.

b)

water and oxygen.

c)

oxygen and nitrogen.

d)

carbon and nitrogen.

117.

Reflection and absorption by the atmosphere prevent ____ of the sun’s radiation from reaching Earth's surface.

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

78%

118.

If the ozone layer disappeared, life on Earth would be exposed to ____ concentrations of ultraviolet radiation.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

no change in

d)

none of the other answers

119.

The most common gas in the atmosphere is _____________.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

ozone

e)

hydrogen

120.

As you go higher in the troposphere, the temperature ____________________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays constent

d)

increases and then decreases

e)

decreases and then increases

121.

Gases in the atmosphere that allow sunlight to pass through but prevent some of the Earth’s IR energy from escaping are called _____________________ gases.

a)

carbon and nitrogen

b)

ozone

c)

homosphere

d)

greenhouse

122.

The energy that causes the movement of air called wind originates at the sun.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

As air cools down ____________________________.

a)

it falls because it becomes less dense.

b)

it falls because it becomes more dense.

c)

it rises because it becomes less dense.

d)

it rises because it becomes more dense.

124.

The global winds that drive most weather in the United States are the __________.

a)

polar easterlies

b)

prevailing westerlies

c)

southeasterlies

d)

trade winds

125.

Air at the top of the troposphere that moves cold air from the poles towards the tropics is called _________________________.

a)

the jet stream.

b)

the trade winds.

c)

the polar easterlies.

d)

the Coriolis effect.

126.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

the land heats and cools more slowly than the water

b)

the land heats and cools more quickly than the water

c)

air moves more easily over water than over land

d)

air moves more easily over land than over water

127.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The Coriolis Effect causes wind and water to turn to the right in the Northern hemisphere.

b)

The Coriolis Effect is caused by the Earth’s rotation.

c)

The Coriolis Effect caused the Trade winds to flow from the east to the west.

d)

The other statements are ALL true.

128.

A severe weather watch means which of the following?

a)

It is the season during which the type of severe weather concerned occurs.

b)

The conditions are right for severe weather, but it is not occurring yet.

c)

Severe weather is occurring.

d)

Severe weather has passed through and it is now safe to go outside.

129.

Climate is referred to as ______________________.

a)

the average atmospheric conditions for an area over a long period of time.

b)

the day to day weather conditions.

c)

the change in weather from week to week.

d)

the change in weather from year to year.

130.

What instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

a)

hygrometer

b)

wind vane

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

e)

barometer

131.

Wind always moves from areas of ____________ pressure to areas of ___________ pressure

a)

high pressure to low pressure

b)

low pressure to high pressure

132.

Which of the following statements is not correct about the sun's electromagnetic energy?

a)

It forms a continuous spectrum that includes radio waves and gamma rays.

b)

Some animals can see all wavelengths of electromagnetic energy.

c)

The visible spectrum contains only those waves we can see.

d)

About 93% of the sun's emitted energy is electromagnetic energy.

133.

The moon's surface gravity is what fraction of the earth's surface gravity?

a)

1/8

b)

1/3

c)

1/6

d)

1/2

134.

The moon has a very thin atmosphere because it __________.

a)

is too hot

b)

rotates too fast

c)

has too little mass (gravity)

d)

has a large escape velocity

135.

Most lunar craters appear to have formed __________.

a)

from numerous volcanic eruptions

b)

as a result of meteoroid and asteroid impacts

c)

at Creation

d)

petrified bubbles of magma after they burst

136.

How many times does the moon rotate during one revolution around the earth?

a)

once

b)

twice

c)

28 times

d)

365 1/4 times

137.

During the last half of the lunar month the moon is said to be __________.

a)

new

b)

gibbous

c)

waxing

d)

waning

138.

What do we call the lunar phase that comes right after the full moon?

a)

first quarter

b)

waxing gibbous

c)

waning gibbous

d)

last quarter

139.

The vernal equinox occurs near __________.

a)

March 20

b)

June 21

c)

September 23

d)

December 21

140.

In what phase of its cycle must the moon be for a total lunar eclipse to take place?

a)

first quarter

b)

last quarter

c)

new moon

d)

full moon

141.

What type of electromagnetic waves causes skin cancer?

a)

infrared

b)

ultraviolet

c)

visible

d)

microwaves

142.

What is the biggest cause of Earth’s tides?

a)

The rotation of the Earth.

b)

The revolution of the Earth.

c)

The gravitational pull of the Sun.

d)

The gravitational pull of the Moon.

143.

According to the Bible, why did God create the sun, moon, and stars?

a)

To be for signs and for seasons.

b)

To indicate days and years.

c)

To give light upon the earth.

d)

To separate the light from the darkness.

e)

ALL of the other answers combined.

144.

When is there 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of night time?

a)

Summer Solstice.

b)

Summer and Winter Solstice.

c)

Vernal Equinox.

d)

Vernal and Autumnal Equinox.

145.

The creation story in the Bible perfectly agrees with both The Big Bang Theory, and The Nebular Hypothesis.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

A rotation is the motion of an astronomical object around another astronomical object.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

More people can see a solar eclipse than a lunar eclipse.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

A solar eclipse occurs when the earth, moon, and sun are lined up in the following order:

a)

Sun - Earth - Moon

b)

Sun - Moon - Earth

c)

Moon - Sun - Earth

d)

Earth - Sun - Moon

149.

Why does the Earth have seasons?

a)

The earth moves closer and farther away from the sun.

b)

The Earth rotates and the side of the Earth facing the Sun has summer, while the side of the Earth away from the Sun has winter.

c)

One side of the Sun is hotter than the other side.

d)

The Earth's axis of rotation is tilted.

150.

Why aren't there solar and lunar eclipses every time the moon orbits the earth?

a)

The moon is moving farther away and closer to the Earth.

b)

The Earth's rotation and the Moon's rotation don't line up most of the time.

c)

The Moon's orbit is tilted

d)

The Moon's axis of rotation is tilted.