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IB Chemistry SL Revision

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 3hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with whole numbers?

__MnO2 (s) + __HCl (aq) → __MnCl2 (aq) + __H2O (l) + __Cl2 (g)

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

2.

Which is correct?

a)

Mixtures are either homogeneous or heterogeneous and their chemical properties are an average of the individual component properties.

b)

Mixtures are never heterogeneous and their chemical properties are an average of the individual component properties.

c)

Mixtures are either homogeneous or heterogeneous and the components retain their individual chemical properties.

d)

Mixtures are never homogeneous and the components retain their individual chemical properties.

3.

What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with the smallest whole numbers?

__BaCl2 (aq) + __Fe2(SO4)3 (aq) → __FeCl3 (aq) + __BaSO4 (s)

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

9

4.

Which equation represents sublimation?

a)

2Al(s)+3I2(g)→2AlI3(s)

b)

HgCl2(s)→HgCl2(g)

c)

I2(g)→I2(s)

d)

CaCO3(s)+2HCl(aq)→CaCl2(aq)+CO2(g)+H2O(l)

5.

Some sodium chloride is dissolved in water. Which term describes the role of sodium chloride in this process?

a)

Solute

b)

Solvent

c)

Solution

d)

Saturated

6.

Which contains the greatest number of moles of oxygen atoms?

a)

0.05 mol Mg(NO3)2

b)

0.05 mol C6H4(NO2)2

c)

0.1 mol H2O

d)

0.1 mol NO2

7.

What is the empirical formula of a hydrocarbon with 75 % carbon and 25 % hydrogen by mass?

a)

C3H

b)

CH2

c)

C2H6

d)

CH4

8.

How many moles of FeS2 are required to produce 32 g of SO2? (Ar: S = 32, O = 16)

4FeS2 (s) + 11O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3 (s) + 8SO2 (g)

a)

0.25

b)

0.50

c)

1.0

d)

2.0

9.

16 g of bromine react with 5.2 g of metal, M, to form MBr2. What is the relative atomic mass of the metal M? (Ar : Br = 80)

a)

13

b)

26

c)

52

d)

104

10.

What is the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon containing 84.6% carbon by mass with a molar mass of 142.3 g mol−1?

a)

C20H44

b)

C11H10

c)

C10H22

d)

C5H11

11.

What is the value of x when 32.2 g of Na2SO4•xH2O are heated leaving 14.2 g of anhydrous Na2SO4?

Mr(H2O) = 18;

Mr(Na2SO4) = 142.


Na2SO4•xH2O (s) → Na2SO4 (s) + xH2O (g)

a)

0.1

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

12.

How many grams of sodium azide, NaN3, are needed to produce 68.1 dm3 of N2 (g) at STP?

Molar volume at STP = 22.7 dm3 mol–1

Mr(NaN3) = 65.0


2NaN3 (s) → 3N2 (g) + 2Na (s)

a)

32.5

b)

65.0

c)

130.0

d)

195.0

13.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

14.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
15.
Subatomic particles that are neutral in charge
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Nucleus 
d)
Electrons
16.

Which pair of elements reacts most readily?

a)

Li + Br2

b)

Li + Cl2

c)

K + Br2

d)

K + Cl2

17.

Which of the following properties of the halogens increase from F to I? *

I. Atomic radius, II. Melting point, III. Electronegativity

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

18.

For which element are the group number and the period number the same?

a)

Li

b)

Be

c)

B

d)

Mg

19.

Rubidium is an element in the same group of the periodic table as lithium and sodium. It is likely to be a metal which has a

a)

high melting point and reacts slowly with water.

b)

high melting point and reacts vigorously with water.

c)

low melting point and reacts vigorously with water.

d)

low melting point and reacts slowly with water.

20.

When the following species are arranged in order of increasing radius, what is the correct order?

a)

Cl–, Ar, K+

b)

K+, Ar , Cl–

c)

Cl–, K+, Ar

d)

Ar, Cl–, K+

21.

What happens when chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of potassium iodide?

a)

Chlorine displaces iodide and the brown colour of solution becomes less intense.

b)

No reaction takes place, no observable changes to solution.

c)

A purple precipitate of iodine is formed.

22.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

23.

Which is a finding attributed to Rutherford's Gold Foil Experiment?

a)

atoms are indivisible and have a dense positive nucleus.

b)

atoms are divisible and have multiple layers of electrons scattered uniformly about the atom.

c)

atoms are like plum pudding with positive and negative charges uniformly scattered throughout the atom.

d)

atoms are mostly empty space with a dense positive nucleus.

24.
A helium nucleus with two protons and two neutrons is called a(n) ____.  
a)
alpha particle
b)
electroscope
c)
beta particle
d)
gamma ray
25.
How many electrons does potassium K contain? (click to see image)
a)
19
b)
39
c)
20
d)
40
26.
How many protons are in an atom with an atomic number of 20, an atomic mass of 45, and a charge of +2?
a)
20
b)
10
c)
2
d)
18
27.
How many electrons are in an atom that has an atomic number of 34, an atomic mass of 74 and a charge of -2?
a)
34
b)
36
c)
2
d)
40
28.
1.  What is the shape of an s orbital?
a)
sphere
b)
dumbbell
c)
double dumbbell
d)
TOO COMPLEX TO KNOW IT.
29.
What is the shape of a p orbital?
a)
sphere
b)
it's just too complex to thing about it
c)
dumbbell
d)
I don't know this stuff.
30.
How many electrons can each p orbital hold?
a)
6
b)
3
c)
2
d)
4
31.
How many p orbitals are there in a sublevel?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
4
d)
3
32.

Which electron configuration matches a magnesium atom?

a)

1s22s22p63s2, 3p64s23d104p5

b)

1s22s22p4

c)

1s22s22p6

d)

1s22s22p63s2

33.

Which element matches this electron configuration?

1s2 2s2 2p6

a)

Neon

b)

Magnesium

c)

Aluminum

d)

Potassium

34.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
35.
Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy first is part of what electron configuration rule?
a)
Hund’s Rule
b)
Aufbau Principle
c)
Pauli Exclusion Principle
36.
What is the shorthand electron configuration for Sulfur atom?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p3
37.
Which orbital shows a violation of Hund's Rule?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
38.
Which orbital shows a violation of the Pauli Exclusion Principle?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
39.

The electron configuration of an atom is 1s22s22p63s23p2 The number of valence electrons in the atom is

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

10

40.

Which electron configuration belongs to Copper (Cu)?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d10

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d9

41.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
42.
How many isotopes are shown in this mass spectrum?
a)
1
b)
84
c)
86
d)
4
43.
As you move down the periodic table atoms get bigger.  This is because ____________.
a)
The atoms have more mass.
b)
The atoms have more protons.
c)
The atoms have more energy levels
d)
The atoms have more nuetrons
44.
List the following in order of weakest to strongest ionization energy.
P, Cs, Co, Sr
a)
P, Co, Sr, Cs
b)
Cs, Sr, Co, P
c)
Sr, Cs, Co, P
d)
P, Co, Cs, Sr
45.

Which of the following will have a higher electronegativity than arsenic (As)?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Neon (Ne)

c)

Antimony (Sb)

d)

Germanium (Ge)

46.

As you look from left to right across a period, electronegativity

a)

increases

b)

decreases

47.

The electronegativity of Cl is the highest in Period 3. Why?

a)

Cl is the largest and has the greatest effective nuclear charge

b)

Cl is the smallest and has the lowest effective nuclear charge

c)

Cl is the largest and has the lowest effective nuclear charge

d)

Cl is the smallest and has the greatest effective nuclear charge

48.

Atomic radius generally increases as we move ________________.

a)

down a group and from right to left across a period

b)

up a group and from left to right across a period

c)

down a group and from left to right across a period

d)

up a group and from right to left across a period

49.

The higher the ionization energy...

a)

the more attracted the valence electron is to the nucleus so it is harder to remove

b)

the less attracted the valence electron is to the nucleus so it is easier to remove

c)

the more attracted the valence electron is to another electron, so it is harder to remove

d)

the more repelled a valence electron is to another electron, so it is easier to remove

50.
Which is larger... P or P3- ?
a)
P3- because it gains an energy level
b)
P3- due to extra electron repulsion
c)
P because it loses an energy level
d)
P because of extra electron repulsion
51.

Why does ionization energy decrease going down a group?

a)

Adding more energy levels makes the electrons further from the nucleus resulting in a smaller attraction and thus less energy is needed to remove the electron.

b)

There are more valence electrons in the outer shell so the electron is easier to remove due to electron repulsion.

c)

There are more protons in the nucleus so the electron is easier to remove

d)

There are less protons in the nucleus so the electron is easier to remove

52.

Why doesn't having more protons increase the attraction down a column?

a)

there are more valence electrons in the outermost energy level

b)

actually, there aren't more protons in the nucleus down the column

c)

as energy levels are added, the increase in electrons counteracts the increase in protons as it shields the valence electrons.

d)

more neutrons block the extra protons

53.
Covalent bond is equal sharing of electron. Polar covelent bond is
a)
unequal sharing of electrons
b)
different distribution of electrons
c)
presence of hydrogen bonding
d)
presence of polar atoms
54.
Polarity of a molecule is determined by
a)
shape and charge
b)
shape and difference in EN value
c)
difference in EN value and size
d)
difference in EN value and charges
55.

Which sample has hydrogen bonding?

a)

H2S

b)

CH4

c)

NH3

d)

HI

56.

Which substance would we predict to have the lowest boiling point?

a)

CH4

b)

NaCl

c)

H2O

d)

MgF2

57.

The weaker the intermolecular forces of a substance the _____________ the boiling point

a)

higher

b)

lower

58.

Which of these has the strongest London forces?

a)

F2

b)

Br2

c)

I2

d)

Cl2

59.

Intermolecular forces depend on the size of the charge

a)

true

b)

false

60.

Intermolecular forces depend on the distance apart of the particles

a)

true

b)

false

61.

What is the molecular shape for BCl3?

a)

linear

b)

bent

c)

trigonal planar

d)

trigonal pyramidal

e)

tetrahedral

62.

What is the molecular shape and polarity of HCN? Select two answers.

a)

trigonal planar

b)

linear

c)

bent

d)

polar

e)

nonpolar

63.

What is the molecular shape and polarity of SO2? Select two answers.

a)

trigonal planar

b)

trigonal pyramidal

c)

bent

d)

polar

e)

nonpolar

64.
How many lone pairs of electrons are on the P atom in PF3?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
0
65.
 Which of the following is the correct formula for these two ions:
Al+3 +  S-2
a)
AlS3
b)
Al2S3
c)
Al3S2
d)
Al3S
66.
Whats the formula
Sr+2  +  (CO3)-2
a)
Sr(CO3)
b)
Sr2 (CO3)2
c)
Sr1(CO)5
d)
Sr(CO5)
67.
Magnesium bromide is an ionic compound with the chemical formula MgBr₂.  What does the "2" tell you?
a)
There are 2 bromide ions for every magnesium ion
b)
Bromide has a 2- charge
c)
Bromide has a 2+ charge
d)
There are 2 magnesium ions to every bromide ion
68.

What is the charge of ion "X" in the formula XF3?

a)

+3

b)

-3

c)

+1

d)

-1

69.
Why do metals conduct
a)
They are shiny
b)
The electrons are held tightly within the lattice
c)
The electrons are delocalised and able to move
d)
The electrons are shared between two metal ions
70.
A mixture of two or more metals is called:
a)
mixture
b)
solution
c)
compound
d)
alloy
71.
Electrons that are free to move in metals
a)
delocalized electrons
b)
oxidation number
c)
chemical bond
d)
salts
72.
Metallic bonding is...
a)
a type of covalent bond.
b)
a type of ionic bond.
c)
an attraction between positive ions and electrons.
73.
For carbonate ions, how many resonance structures can be drawn ?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
74.
For carbonate ions, what is the bond strength between C and O
a)
C-O (single bond)
b)
C=O (double bond)
c)
C≡O (triple bond)
d)
C-O(between single and double bond)
75.

What is the name for when more than one valid Lewis structure can be drawn for a molecule?

a)

coordinate covalent bond

b)

resonance

c)

endothermic

d)

structural formula

76.

What is the enthalpy change of the following reaction (in kJ)?

CH2CHCH2CH3 + HBr → CH3CHBrCH2CH3

a)

-119.6

b)

+119.6

c)

-119.8

d)

+119.8

77.

Which change of state is exothermic? 

a)

CO2(s) → CO2(g)

b)

H2O(l) → H2O(g) 

c)

NH3(g) → NH3(l) 

d)

Fe(s) → Fe(l)

78.

For the reaction R → P, which letter represents the activation energy for the catalysed reverse reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

79.

What happens when the temperature of the following equilibrium system is increased? 

CO(g) + 2H2(g)  CH3OH(g)         ΔHθ = -91kJ

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.

Which species behave as Brønsted–Lowry bases in the following reaction? 

H2SO4 + HNO3  H2NO3+ + HSO4- 

a)

HNO3 and HSO4- 

b)

HNO3 and H2NO3+ 

c)

H2SO4 and HSO4- 

d)

H2NO3+ and HSO4-

81.

The structure of a drug used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease is shown below. Which functional groups are present in this molecule?

a)

Hydroxyl and ester 

b)

Hydroxide and ether

c)

Hydroxyl and ether

d)

Hydroxide and ester

82.

Which type of reaction occurs when methanol and propanoic acid react together in the presence of a catalyst?

a)

Addition

b)

Condensation

c)

Redox

d)

Neutralization 

83.

A student carried out a titration to determine the concentration of an acid and found that his value had good precision but poor accuracy. Which process explains this outcome?

a)

Consistently overshooting the volume of solution from the burette into the flask.

b)

Collection of insufficient titration data.

c)

Reading the meniscus in the burette at a different angle each time.

d)

Forgetting to rinse the flask after one of the titrations.

84.

Excess magnesium powder was added to a beaker containing hydrochloric acid, HCl (aq).

The mass of the beaker and its contents was recorded and plotted against time (line I).

Which change could give line II?

a)

Doubling the mass of powdered Mg

b)

Using the same mass of Mg ribbon

c)

Increasing the temperature

d)

Using the same volume of more concentrated HCl

85.

What will happen if the pressure is increased in the following reaction mixture at equilibrium?

CO2 (g) + H2O (l) ⇌⇌ H+ (aq) + HCO3− (aq)

a)

The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will decrease.

b)

The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will increase.

c)

The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will increase.

d)

The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will decrease.

86.

What is the major product of the reaction between HCl and but-2-ene?

a)

1,2-dichlorobutane

b)

2,3-dichlorobutane

c)

1-chlorobutane

d)

2-chlorobutane

87.

What is the name of this compound, using IUPAC rules?

a)

3-methylbutan-3-ol

b)

2-ethylpropan-2-ol

c)

2-methylbutan-2-ol

d)

3-methylbutan-2-ol

88.

Which type of reaction occurs between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid?

a)

Addition

b)

Oxidation

c)

Esterification

d)

Polymerization

89.

Which expression gives the enthalpy change, ΔH, for the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate?

a)

ΔH = ΔH1 − ΔH2

b)

ΔH = 2ΔH1 − ΔH2

c)

ΔH = ΔH1 − 2ΔH2

d)

ΔH = ΔH1 + ΔH2

90.

Copper catalyses the reaction between zinc and dilute sulfuric acid.

Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)

Why does copper affect the reaction?

a)

Decreases the activation energy

b)

Increases the activation energy

c)

Increases the enthalpy change

d)

Decreases the enthalpy change

91.

100 cm3 of 10% hydrogen peroxide solution decomposes at 298 K to form water and oxygen.

H2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + 1212O2(g)

The dotted line graph represents the volume of oxygen produced.

Which graph represents the decomposition of an equal volume of a 20% solution under the same conditions?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

Which change does not increase the initial rate of reaction when CaCO3(s) is added to excess HCl(aq)?

a)

Decrease in the size of the CaCO3(s) particles

b)

Increase in the temperature of the reaction mixture

c)

Increase in the concentration of HCl(aq), keeping the same volume

d)

Increase in the volume of HCl(aq), keeping the same concentration

93.

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

Which methods can be used to monitor the progress of this reaction?

I.Change in colour of this reaction mixture

II.Change in mass of this reaction mixture

III.Change in volume of gas evolved

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, and III

94.

Which conditions are used to convert ethanol to ethanal?

a)

Excess oxidizing agent and reflux

b)

Excess oxidizing agent and distillation

c)

Excess ethanol and reflux

d)

Excess ethanol and distillation

95.

Which compound contains a secondary carbon atom?

a)

CH3CH(Cl)CH(CH3)2

b)

(CH3)2CHCH2Cl

c)

(CH3)3CCl

d)

CH3CH2Cl

96.

Consider the reaction:

2N2O (g) ⇌⇌ 2N2 (g) + O2 (g)

The values of Kc at different temperatures are:

Which statement is correct at higher temperature?

a)

The forward reaction is favoured.

b)

The reverse reaction is favoured.

c)

The rate of the reverse reaction is greater than the rate of the forward reaction.

d)

The concentration of both reactants and products increase.

97.

What is the mechanism for the reaction of propene with iodine in the dark?

a)

<electrophilic> addition

b)

<electrophilic> substitution

c)

free radical substitution

d)

<nucleophilic> substitution

98.

Which is a secondary alcohol?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

99.

Which is an example of an amphiprotic species?

a)

Al2O3

b)

CO3

c)

P4O10

d)

HPO4

100.

When equal masses of X and Y absorb the same amount of energy, their temperatures rise by 5 °C and 10 °C respectively. Which is correct?

a)

The specific heat capacity of X is twice that of Y.

b)

The specific heat capacity of X is half that of Y.

c)

The specific heat capacity of X is one fifth that of Y.

d)

The specific heat capacity of X is the same as Y.

101.

Which compound cannot undergo addition polymerization?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

102.

When the electron density around an atom is drawn away by more electronegative atoms.

a)

This is called shielding

b)

This is called deshielding

103.

When the electron density around an atom is concentrated around that atom.

a)

This is called shielding

b)

This is called deshielding

104.

Identify which of these carbon atoms experiences the most shielding

a)
b)
c)
d)
105.

Identify which carbon atom in this molecule is the most deshielded.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

106.
A molecule absorbs IR at a wavenumber of 1720 cm-1.  Which functional group could account for this absorption.
I. aldehydes
II. esters
III. ethers
a)
I only
b)
I and II 
c)
I, II and III 
d)
none of the above

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