Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology EOC

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 11hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
An iodine solution is placed on the cut side of a potato. Within seconds, a blue-black color appears. What is most likely occurring?
a)
A positive test for proteins
b)
A positive test for starches
c)
A negative test for proteins
d)
A negative test for starches
2.
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has occurred?
a)
The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b)
The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c)
The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d)
The excess water has moved out of the gums.
3.
Which organelle is the site where amino acids are synthesized into proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Golgi apparatus
d)
Mitochondria
4.
Plant cells that are specialized for cell division are most likely found in what part of a plant?
a)
Root tips
b)
Bark
c)
Stem epidermis
d)
Vascular tissue
5.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the S phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
6.
RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Nucleic Acids
d)
Proteins
7.
A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Protein Synthesis
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Cellular Respiration
8.
This diagram shows an enzyme-substrate complex.
Which is represented by Structure X?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Complex
d)
Product
9.
Which is the most likely function of a group of cells that contain a high number of chloroplasts?
a)
Respiration
b)
Transpiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Fermentation
10.
What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction?
a)
The reaction rate will increase
b)
The reaction rate will decrease
c)
The reaction will stop
d)
It will explode
11.
Which process is an example of asexual reproduction?
a)
An amoeba divides in half to form two amoebas.
b)
A bee transfers pollen from one flower to another.
c)
A female fish deposits eggs on a rock, then a male fish releases sperm on them.
d)
Earthworms exchange sperm
12.
A researcher is studying a particular disease-causing agent. The agent has a protein coat, but it lacks a nucleus, contains no other organelles, and can reproduce only when it is inside an animal cell. The researcher should classify the agent as which of the following?
a)
A bacterium
b)
A fungus
c)
A virus
d)
A protist
13.
This diagram shows the cell cycle.

Which of the following activities occur in the G1 phase?
a)
Replication of the DNA
b)
Growth of the cell
c)
Formation of the mitotic spindle
d)
Breakdown of the nuclear membrane
14.
Energy for most chemical reactions in cells is supplied by which of the following molecules?
a)
DNA
b)
ATP
c)
RNA
d)
Hemoglobin 
15.
Which pair of structures best shows that plant cells have functions different from animal cells?
a)
Cytoplasm and mitochondria
b)
Chloroplasts and cell wall
c)
Ribosome and golgi
d)
Nucleus and cell membrane
16.
Meiosis is the process by which gametes are produced. In which of the following human organs would meiosis occur?
a)
Liver
b)
Stomach
c)
Testis
d)
Lungs
17.
What is the function of enzymes in biological systems?
a)
Enzymes act as substrates when the necessary proteins are unavailable.
b)
Enzymes act as products to create new chemical reactions.
c)
Enzymes act as catalysts to drive chemical reactions forward.
d)
Enzymes bond with substrates to create the new reaction products.
18.
Which of the following macromolecules are a prominent part of animal tissues that function in insulation, helping animals conserve heat?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
19.
Some peeled pieces of apple were placed in distilled water and some in very salty water. The cells in the apple pieces will…
a)
Lose water in both solutions
b)
Gain water in both solutions
c)
Lose water in the distilled water and gain water in the salty water
d)
Gain water in the distilled water and lose water in the salty water
20.
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Interphase
21.

Which of the following is NOT common to both mitosis and meiosis?

a)

The DNA in the chromosomes is duplicated.

b)

The cells divide into equally sized halves.

c)

There is a reduction in the number of chromosomes in daughter cells.

d)

The chromosomes align themselves at opposite ends of the cells.

22.

The genetic code is the set of instructions that translates genetic material into proteins. This code defines how sequences of three nucleotides specify which amino acid will be added next during protein synthesis. Each sequence of three nucleotides is called —

a)

a protein

b)

a codon

c)

a DNA molecule

d)

a mutagen

23.

Which term most accurately describes the shapes of a DNA molecule?

a)

cylindrical

b)

double helix

c)

single helix

d)

spiral

24.

During division, the code for the protein cytochrome-C had the code for proline changed to the code for leucine. This type of change in the genetic material is known as a –

a)

point mutation

b)

chromosomal mutation

c)

redundant mutation

d)

frameshift mutation

25.

Which of the following shows a mutation that does not change the shape or the chemical nature of the protein so that it still functions normally?

a)

UCC to GAC

b)

UCC to UAA

c)

UCC to UGC

d)

UCA to AGC

26.

During division, the code for the protein cytochrome-C had the code for proline changed to the code for leucine. This type of change in the genetic material is known as a –

a)

point mutation

b)

chromosomal mutation

c)

redundant mutation

d)

frameshift mutation

27.

The chart shows a dihybrid cross between pea plants. What are the genotypes of the parents in this cross?

a)

RRyy and rrYY

b)

RrYy and RrYy

c)

RRYY and rryy

d)

RrYY and Rryy

28.

In guinea pigs, the allele for a rough coat (R) is dominant over the allele for a smooth coat (r). A guinea pig with a rough coat is mated with a guinea pig with a smooth coat. Of the three offspring, 1 has a smooth coat. What is the probability that their next offspring will have a smooth coat?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

29.

What do members of archae, bacteria, protista, fungi, plantae, and animalia taxonomic groups have in common?

a)

Oxygen is essential for metabolism

b)

Nutrition is by absorption or ingestion

c)

All organisms have the same genetic code

d)

DNA is present in cells.

30.

The genotypes of four offspring are shown in the table. If one parent’s genotype is xx, what is the genotype of the second parent?

a)

xx

b)

XX

c)

Xx

d)

xX

31.

The diagram below shows a section of DNA undergoing the transcription process. The purpose of transcription is to create —

a)

a sequence of RNA bases that organizes a sequence of DNA bases.

b)

a sequence of DNA bases that deletes a sequence of RNA bases.

c)

a sequence of RNA bases that complements a sequence of DNA bases.

d)

a sequence of DNA bases that duplicates a sequence of RNA bases

32.

Which of the following best describes the process that diagram 2 represents?

a)

cell division that occurs in reproductive structures of an organism

b)

process prior to the first stage of cell division

c)

occurs in all cells of the body system

d)

cell division that occurs in the repair process of damaged skin cells

33.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

a)

O only

b)

A or B only

c)

A, B, or O only

d)

A, B, AB, or O

34.

A mutation in which types of cells would only affect the organism and not future generations?

a)

Egg cell and liver cell

b)

Sperm cell and egg cell

c)

Nerve cell and brain cell

d)

Sperm cell and lung cell

35.

A sequence of a DNA template strand is shown below.

3’ TCC AAT GGC TTA TTT GCA 5’

Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand

a)

Arginine - Leucine - Proline - Asparagine - Lysine - Arginine

b)

Tryptophan - Phenylalanine - Leucine - Glycine - Asparagine - Phenylalanine

c)

Serine - Leucine - Proline - Asparagine - Lysine - Arginine

d)

Tryptophan - Phenylalanine - Leucine - Glycine - Asparagine - Serine

36.

The Himalayan rabbit’s habitat has cold, snowy winters and mild summers. The body is typically covered in white fur except for the nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are covered in black fur. A scientist shaved an area of white fur on the back of a Himalayan rabbit and placed an ice pack over the shaved area. The shaved area grew black fur. Which of these bests explains why the hair that grew back where the ice pack was placed was black and not white?

a)

The genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures.

b)

The white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit’s body temperature decreased.

c)

The coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit.

d)

White hair only grows during certain times of the year.

37.

Students are given data from an investigation that identified some of the chemical elements present in four different samples.

Which sample was most likely DNA?

a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

38.

In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in this picture. What is the probability of cloven hooves in the offspring of parents that are heterozygous for the trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

39.

In the early 1900s, Thomas Hunt Morgan was among the first scientists to contribute to the chromosome theory of heredity. Morgan’s investigations into heredity in fruit flies led him to propose that the event represented in the diagram sometimes occurs. Which statement about the event represented in the diagram is valid?

a)

The event represents RNA translation in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

The event takes place in bacterial cells.

c)

The event produces genetically identical daughter cells.

d)

The event provides genetic diversity in eukaryotic cells.

40.

A certain mutation in the gene for hemoglobin results in the red blood cells becoming sticky, rigid, and irregularly shaped. These irregularly shaped red blood cells block the flow of blood throughout the body. A single base mutation is responsible for these irregularly shaped blood cells.

Which of these mutations most likely results in the mutated hemoglobin gene?

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

duplication

d)

substitution

41.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.

42.

Scientists use zebra fish to study human genetic diseases because zebra fish and humans share many of the same genetic diseases. Which statement describes why zebra fish experience similar genetic diseases as humans?

a)

Zebra fish have an omnivorous diet similar to that of humans.

b)

Zebra fish have nucleotide sequences similar to those of humans.

c)

Zebra fish go through embryonic stages similar to those of humans.

d)

Zebra fish produce gametes through a process that is similar to that of humans.

43.

Homologous structures are defined as anatomical structures originating from the same structure in ancestral form. For instance, a bird's wing and the front flippers of a seal are examples of homologous structures. Which of the following does the presence of homologous structures in vertebrates suggest?

a)

All vertebrates developed at the same rate.

b)

All vertebrates developed internally.

c)

All vertebrates evolved from different animals.

d)

All vertebrates have a common ancestor.

44.

The position and shape of the bones in the forelimbs of four present-day vertebrates were studied. Two of the organisms seemed to be more closely related to each other than to the other vertebrates. This relationship was most likely based on evidence using the field of —

a)

comparative anatomy

b)

DNA sequences

c)

biochemistry

d)

fossil record

45.

According to Darwin's theory on natural selection, the traits that survive and continue in future generations are –

a)

caused by response to stress

b)

made by environmental change

c)

already present in the population

d)

introduced by immigrating species

46.

Survival of the fittest can best be described as –

a)

the process by which only the strongest of a species will be able to survive and reproduce

b)

the process in which organisms that are better adapted to their environment will have a better chance of surviving and reproducing

c)

the reason the strongest of the species will not be able to reproduce as often as others

d)

the reason weaker organisms in a species will always be killed by predators

47.

Each labeled area of this diagram represents organisms in a taxonomic level. In this diagram, level A represents marine mammals. The area of the diagram labeled B most likely represents which of the following taxonomic levels?

a)

fish

b)

mammals

c)

invertebrates

d)

primates

48.

Which characteristic should be used to classify the horse and cow in one group and all the other organisms in another group?

a)

presence of hooves

b)

number of legs

c)

presence of vertebrae

d)

number of eyes

49.

Scientists compared the fossil remains of a species that lived 5,000 years ago to members of the same species living today. Scientists concluded that the species changed very little over this period of time. Which statement best accounts for this lack of change?

a)

The environment did not change significantly, and those offspring expressing new characteristics survived their natural enemies.

b)

The environment changed significantly, but the species had no natural enemies for a long period of time.

c)

The environment did not change significantly, and those offspring expressing new characteristics did not survive.

d)

The environment changed significantly, and those offspring without favorable characteristics did not survive.

50.

Which process results in greater genetic diversity in offspring?

a)

genetic linkage

b)

recombination of DNA during meiosis

c)

crossing-over during mitosis

d)

rearrangement of chromosomes in germ cells

51.

The knowledge of the species name of an organism most importantly indicates for scientists –

a)

precisely where the organism lives in the world

b)

the life span of the organism

c)

which organisms have reproductive potential with one another

d)

the color of external features

52.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms. Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

53.

A student used a microscope to study four members of the phylum Ciliophora. Members of this phylum move when propelled by hundreds of tiny cilia. Although these organisms belong to the same phylum, they are classified as different —

a)

families

b)

species

c)

kingdoms

d)

orders

54.

Which list correctly identifies characteristics that protists share with animals?

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

55.

The white cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between the broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states. Which of these explains the success of the white cattail?

a)

Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.

b)

Hybridization produces offspring traits that allow different species to survive in extreme environments.

c)

Inherited traits passed on from parental generations make hybrid species more susceptible to disease.

d)

Hybrid species display more adaptations due to their reduced genetic diversity.

56.

The gray squirrel, Eastern fox squirrel, and red squirrel are all different species of squirrels. Why is having a scientific name for each species of an organism important?

a)

To prevent existing named organisms from having their names changed as they become extinct

b)

To keep the classification system from being altered as new organisms are discovered

c)

To allow organisms to be placed in many classification levels at the same time

d)

To standardize the naming and organization of organisms to avoid confusion

57.

The diagram shows light- and dark-colored beetles that live on a tree. Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

58.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult

59.

Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould researched the lenses of the eyes of fossil trilobites of different species. In 1972 they published a paper in which they described the tendency of a species to remain the same until a sudden change in the environment causes a new related species to appear.

Which hypothesis was most challenged by the work of Eldredge and Gould?

a)

Redi’s hypothesis that spontaneous generation does not occur

b)

Haeckel’s hypothesis that embryological development mimics the evolution of species

c)

Wallace’s hypothesis that geography affects the distribution of species

d)

Darwin’s hypothesis that the development of species is a slow, gradual process

60.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram. Based on this cladogram, which statement best describes relationships among millipede orders?

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta.

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida.

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to Glomeridesmida.

61.

The image shows part of the humerus bone in different genera of primates. Which statement is best supported by the observable structures of the different humerus

bones?

a)

The primates lived in similar environments

b)

The primates shared a common ancestor.

c)

The primates interbreed with similar organisms in a population.

d)

The primates had diets that consisted of similar types of foods.

62.

The 1918 influenza epidemic killed between 50 million and 100 million people worldwide. THis epidemic happened near the end of World War I. More people died from the influenza epidemic than were killed in the war. Which of the following explains why this virus was so deadly worldwide?

a)

Infected soldiers returning from the war spread the virus when they coughed.

b)

Food was scarce because of the war, so people were undernourished, and their immune systems were weakened.

c)

Medical personnel often became ill as a result of exposure to airborne virus particles.

d)

All of the above

63.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

64.

During the final stages of human gestation, receptors for the hormone oxytocin increase on the smooth muscle cells of the uterus. The release of oxytocin during labor stimulates the smooth muscle tissue in the wall of the uterus. The vigorous contraction of the uterine smooth muscle helps push the baby through the birth canal so that delivery can occur. This process involves the interaction of which organ systems?

a)

Endocrine and muscular only

b)

Endocrine and reproductive only

c)

Endocrine, muscular, and reproductive

d)

Endocrine, reproductive, and excretory

65.

In the early 1900s a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of protein in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940s scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was the newly identified molecule?

a)

a gene

b)

mRNA

c)

ATP

d)

thymine

66.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

67.

Health professionals sometimes recommend nutritional supplements that contain a variety of species of bacteria to promote good digestive health. The product label for one of these supplements is shown. Why does this type of bacteria-filled supplement benefit human health instead of causing illness?

a)

Stomach acids and digestive enzymes kill the bacteria in this type of supplement, protecting the person against future infections by live organisms.

b)

The human digestive system contains billions of beneficial bacteria that enhance digestion and nutrient absorption, synthesize vitamins, and help limit the growth of harmful bacteria

c)

These species of bacteria remove all other species of microorganisms living in the human digestive system and ensure that no microorganisms survive to contaminate the body.

d)

These bacteria are able to deactivate viruses that may inhabit the human digestive system and are used to protect against further viral infections.

68.

In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormone. Which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?

a)

Human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli cells are prokaryotic.

b)

All living organisms share the same genome.

c)

The genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks.

d)

The human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. coli.

69.

Kidneys are part of the excretory system in a human body. They purify the impure blood and send it back to the rest of the body. Which system is mainly responsible for the transport of plasma to the kidneys?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Muscular system

d)

Nervous system

70.

Several structures work together to allow flowering plants to reproduce. The diagram shows a typical flower. Which table correctly identifies the function of each structure or group of structures in the reproduction of the plant?

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

The complex carbohydrates pictured below are made by linking molecules of glucose. In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely —

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

72.

Plants called sundews have rounded green leaves with many hair-like structures. The ends of these structures contain enzymes in a sticky liquid that looks like nectar or moisture, as shown in the picture. The hairs do not react to dust or nonliving material but will bend inward when insects get caught in the sticky liquid. Sundews digest trapped insects over a period of a few days. Based on this information, what functions do the specialized leaves of sundews perform?

a)

Provide water to the plant and perform photosynthesis

b)

Respond to stimuli and anchor the plant

c)

Provide nutrients to the plant and respond to stimuli

d)

Release pollen to insects and perform photosynthesis

73.
These two systems interact to allow our bodies respond to the environment and to maintain homeostasis.  (Hint - they both send messages and one is fast, one is slow)
a)
nervous and endocrine
b)
nervous and digestive
c)
endocrine and excretory
d)
respiratory and digestive
74.

Why is blood considered a tissue?

a)

cells working together for a specific purpose

b)

tissues are always red

c)

blood moves through the entire body

d)

blood makes up an organ system

75.
What are the reactants of photosynthesis? 
a)
water, carbon dioxide, light energy
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
76.
The function of a ___ is to absorb water, store food, and anchor plants. 
a)
phloem
b)
tissue
c)
xylem
d)
root
77.
When water leaves a plants' leaves in the water cycle
a)
evaporation
b)
transpiration
c)
precipitation
d)
condensation
78.
Transports water and nutrients UP from the soil through all parts in the plant. Involved in transpiration.
a)
xylem
b)
phloem
c)
stomata
d)
roothair 
79.
What is the structure in the picture?
a)
Stomata
b)
Leaves
c)
Roots
d)
Vascular tissue
80.
In a parasitic relationship, one organism is ___________ and one organism is benefiting. 
a)
helped
b)
harmed
c)
not effected
d)
happy
81.
In a mutual relationship, both organisms are ________________. 
a)
hurt
b)
not effected
c)
harmed
d)
benefiting 
82.
Commensalism is where one organism is benefiting and the other organism is _____________________. 
a)
not effected
b)
helped
c)
harmed
d)
hurt
83.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that feed on parasites found on an impala. The impala gets rid of parasites and the red-billed oxpeckers get a yummy dinner. This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
84.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs  in the flowers where  the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds. Both species benefit.  
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Parasitism 
c)
Commensalism 
85.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from the spruce tree to the tree's detriment (harm). 
a)
Mutualsim 
b)
Parasitism 
c)
Commensalism 
86.
Which organism do the owl and the weasel compete for in the food web?
a)
Hawk
b)
Spider
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Shrew
87.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
88.
Which of the following would be the most likely effect, if there were a sudden increase in the cricket population?
a)
There would be a decrease in the small bird population.
b)
There would be a decrease in the grass/flowers population.
c)
There would be a decrease in the mice population.
d)
There would be an increase in the grass/flowers population.
89.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
90.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
91.

The diagram shows an energy pyramid.

Which level will contain plants?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.

Approximately what percentage of energy is passed on to the next higher level in an energy pyramid?

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

90%

d)

100%

93.

Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?

a)

Owl (tertiary consumer)

b)

Grasshopper (primary consumer)

c)

Lilypad (autotroph)

d)

Lizard (secondary consumer)

94.

Which statement best describes the role of decomposers?

a)

They convert carbon dioxide and water to glucose.

b)

They break down organic compounds into products used by other organisms.

c)

They release oxygen to the atmosphere.

d)

They provide energy for the synthesis of proteins.

95.

Which statement best describes the role of decomposers?

a)

They convert carbon dioxide and water to glucose.

b)

They break down organic compounds into products used by other organisms.

c)

They release oxygen to the atmosphere.

d)

They provide energy for the synthesis of proteins.

96.

What do the arrows in the diagram represent?

a)

an increase in population

b)

the evolution of organisms

c)

ecological succession

d)

the flow of energy

97.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
98.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
99.
What is the goal of the pioneer species in Primary Succession?
a)
To kill the dead materials after a disaster
b)
To rebuild soil
c)
To feed Johnny
d)
To put fresh oxygen into the air
100.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
101.
Which of the following is true in a climax community?
a)
the community will constantly evolve and change
b)
if one species dies, a new species will fulfill the same role
c)
They are stable for a long time, with the same species maintaining their population
d)
it goes through a major change called "climax" every few hundred years
102.
What is Ecological Succession?
a)
Competition between plants in a society
b)
A natural disaster such as a flood or fire
c)
The cycle of a tomato plant
d)
The change an ecosystem experiences over time
103.
As succession progresses, animal species diversity increases due to the fact that
a)
less soil is being created
b)
food choices increase
c)
precipitation rates stabilize
d)
temperatures moderate
104.
How many predators does the squid have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
105.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
106.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
107.
Which of the following best describes the small bird in the food web above?
a)
primary and secondary consumer
b)
secondary and tertiary consumer
c)
primary consumer only
d)
secondary consumer only
108.
A feeder fish usually follows behind sharks to pick up food scraps that they leave behind. The fish gets food and the shark is unaffected. This is an example of:
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Decomposition
109.
A feeder fish usually follows behind sharks to pick up food scraps that they leave behind. The fish gets food and the shark is unaffected. This is an example of:
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Decomposition