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General Patho/ Microbio Part 1

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Normal range of a. Cardiac output, b. Ejection fraction

a)

2-4 L/min, 20-30%

b)

4-7 L/min, 70-80%

c)

1-3 L/min, 50-70%

d)

4-7 L/min, 50-70%

2.

Volume of blood in the ventricles after diastole/ filling period

a)

End systolic volume

b)

End diastolic volume

c)

Stroke volume

d)

Cardiac output

3.

Blood flows from ______ to _______ pressure

a)

Lower to higher

b)

Higher to lower

4.

Start of diastole is marked by

a)

Opening of semilunar valves

b)

Closure of semilunar valves

c)

Opening of AV valves

d)

Closure of AV valves

5.

Peripheral edema is one of the characteristic features of this type of Congestive heart failure

a)

Left CHF

b)

Right CHF

c)

Systolic CHF

d)

Diastolic CHF

6.

The type of Congestive heart failure that presents pulmonary edema

a)

Left CHF

b)

Right CHF

c)

Systolic CHF

d)

Diastolic CHF

7.

Patients with Congestive heart failure should be in _______ position during dental treatment to avoid complications

a)

Fully reclined

b)

Partially reclined

c)

Upright

d)

Supine

8.

Initial lesions called atheromas are present in

a)

Arteriosclerosis

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Angina Pectoris

d)

MI

9.

Stents are used to restore blood flow in patients with

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

MI

c)

Atherosclerosis

10.

Characterized by loss of blood supply and death of heart muscle

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

MI

c)

Atherosclerosis

11.

Most serious complication of Pericarditis

a)

Fibrinoid Pericarditis

b)

Consrictive Pericarditis

c)

Viral Pericarditis

d)

Cardiac Tamponade

12.

Pathognomonic sign of Rheumatic Heart Disease

a)

Anitschkow giant cells

b)

Aschoff bodies

c)

Guarneri bodies

d)

Negri bodies

13.

Which of the following presents Reed-sternberg cells on cytological exam

a)

Burkitts Lymphoma

b)

Hodgkins Lymphoma

c)

Non-hodgkins Lymphoma

d)

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

14.

All of the following describes Burkitts Lymphoma except:

a)

Associated with a genetic mutation chromosomal change in 8;14

b)

Close association with Epstein Barr virus

c)

High grade B cell malignancy

d)

High grade T cell malignancy

15.

Rheumatic heart disease is caused by Post-strep hypersensitivity which is a

a)

Type III hypersensitivity (Ab-Ag complexes)

b)

Type II hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)

c)

Type I hypersensitivity (Anaphylactic)

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed)

16.

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is characterized by all of the following except

a)

Streptococcus viridans

b)

More common than acute bacterial endocarditis

c)

Large vegetations

d)

Occurs in previously damaged valves only

17.

Ventricular Septal Defect except

a)

Roger’s disease

b)

Cyanotic

c)

Blood flows from left to right ventricle through a hole instead of aorta

18.

Tetralogy of Fallot except

a)

Pulmonic stenosis

b)

Right Ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Overriding aorta over ventricular septal defect

d)

Coarctation of aorta

19.

Coarctation of Aorta is

a)

narrowing of ascending aorta

b)

Narrowing of descending aorta

c)

Narrowing of pulmonary valve

20.

An artery that exists between the pulmonary artery and aorta that failed to close in Patent Ductus Arteriosus

a)

Ductus venosus

b)

Ductus arteriosus

c)

Foramen ovale

d)

Umbilical vein

21.

In fetal circulation, deoxygenated blood returns via:

a)

Ductus venosus

b)

Superior vena cava

c)

Inferior vena cava

d)

Umbilical vein

22.

Shunts in fetal circulation occurs in the following except:

a)

Umbilical vein

b)

Foramen ovale

c)

Ductus venosus

d)

Ductus arteriosus

23.

Inflammation of the lung affecting pulmonary parenchyma

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Bronchoectasis

d)

Pulmonary emoblism

24.

Collapsed airway causing loss of elasticity of alveoli. Characteristic feature is Barrel chest appearance

a)

Emphysema

b)

ChronicBronchitis

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Bronchiectasis

25.

The following presents productive cough with sputum except

a)

Bronchiectasis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Pulmonary Embolism

d)

Lobar Pneumonia

26.

Type of pneumonia that presents exudate within the alveolus in one lobe/ the entire lung. Predominance in middle age

a)

Bronchopneumonia

b)

Lobar Pneumonia

c)

Interstitial Pneumonia

d)

Bacterial Pneumonia

27.

Type of pneumonia that presents with bronchiole and alveolar infiltrates; patchy in appearance. It affects infants and elderly

a)

Lobar pneumonia

b)

Interstitital pneumonia

c)

Bronchopneumonia

28.

Type of emphysema affecting upper lobes of the lung and is associated with chronic bronchitis and smoking

a)

Panacinar

b)

Paraseptal

c)

Irregular

d)

Centriacinar

29.

Type of emphysema affecting the lower lobes of the lungs

a)

Paraseptal

b)

Panacinar

c)

Cenrtiacinar

d)

Irregular

30.

Type of Pneumoconiosis associated with Bronchogenic carcinoma

a)

Silicosis

b)

Anthracosis

c)

Asbestosis

d)

Berrylliosis

31.

Type of pneumoconiosis that is also known as Back luna/ Coal worker’s disease

a)

Silicosis

b)

Berrylliosis

c)

Anthracosis

d)

Asbestosis

32.

Type of pneumoconiosis also known as Stone Mason’s ds and is associated with tuberculosis

a)

Silicosis

b)

Anthracosis

c)

Asbestosis

d)

Berrylliosis

33.

Type of pneumoconiosis mimicking sarcoidosis

a)

Silicosis

b)

Asbestosis

c)

Anthracosis

d)

Berrylliosis

34.

Enlargement of right ventricle due to chronic lung disease

a)

Right Congestive heart failure

b)

Cor Pulmonale

c)

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

d)

Left Congestive Heart failure

35.

Select three respiratory complications after oral and maxillofacial surgery

a)

Cor pulmonale

b)

Pulmonary atelectasis

c)

Aspiration pneumonia

d)

Pulmonary embolism

36.

Skin cancer of the stomach that is common in patients with blood type A

a)

Peptic ulcer

b)

GERD

c)

Gastric carcinoma

d)

Duodenal ulcer

37.

Erosion is the lining of stomach/ duodenum characterized by excessive acid secretion. It is caused by

a)

GERD: Incompetent lower esophageal sphincter

b)

Peptic ulcer: H. Pylori

c)

Gastric carcinoma: Benzo-a-pyrenes

38.

Gastric ulcer is more common than duodenal ulcer. True or false?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

Zollinger-Ellison triad

a)

GERD

b)

Pancreatic gastrinoma

c)

Peptic ulcer

d)

Increased gastric acid

40.

The following are characteristic features of Gardner’s syndrome except

a)

Osteomas

b)

Freckles

c)

Supernumerary teeth

d)

Multiple impacted teeth

41.

Sjogren’s syndrome or Sicca syndrome damages

a)

Lacrimal glands

b)

Salivary glands

c)

Lacrimal and salivary glands

42.

Triad of Sjogren’s syndrome

a)

Xerostomia

b)

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis/ SLE

d)

Warthin’s tumor

43.

Most common salivary gland tumor (major and minor) and the most common benign tumor of parotid gland

a)

Warthin’s tumor

b)

Pleomorphic adenoma

c)

Monomorphic adenoma

d)

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

44.

2nd most common benign tumor except

a)

Warthin’s tumor

b)

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

c)

Freys syndrome

45.

A complication during parotid surgeries wherein the CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) is cut

a)

Warthins tumor

b)

Mikulicz disease

c)

Freys syndrome

d)

Benign lymphoepithelial lymphomatosum

46.

Most common malignant tumor of salivary gland and the 2nd most common skin cancer

a)

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

b)

Acinic cell carcinoma

c)

Warthins Tumor

d)

Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

47.

Most common skin cancer of the ORAL CAVITY is located most commonly in these areas

a)

Upper lip, posterolateral corner of tongue

b)

lower lip, ventrolateral corner of tongue

c)

Lower lip, posterolateral corner of tongue

d)

Upper lip, ventrolateral corner of tongue

48.

Characterized by zymogens being converted prematurely to catalytically active forms resulting to autodigestion of pancreas

a)

Chronic Pancreatitis

b)

Cholistitis

c)

Acute Pancreatitis

d)

Cirrhosis

49.

Characterized by increase in serum amylase and lipase and decreased Ca levels

a)

Acute pancreatitis

b)

Chronic pancreatitis

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

Cholecystitis

50.

Cirrhosis is reversible or irreversible?

a)

reversible

b)

Irreversible

51.

Mallory bodies are present in

a)

Cardiac cirrhosis

b)

Biliary cirrhosis

c)

Laennecs Cirrhosis

52.

The following are true regarding bacterial growth curve except

a)

Log/ Exponential phase is where bactericidal drugs work the best

b)

Stationary phase is characterized by plateau on the graph

c)

Lag phase causes a slight upswing in the curve and increased metabolic activity

d)

Cell division is rapid in LAG PHASE

53.

Which of the following are FALSE regarding necrosis

a)

Ischemia in all tissues is associated with coagulation necrosis

b)

Myocardial infarcts are an example of Liquefaction necrosis

c)

Fatty acids are released with liquefactive necrosis

d)

Gummatous necrosis are common in patients with Syphilis

54.

Chvostek and Trousseau sign test for which of the following

a)

Chronic hypocalcemia

b)

Acute hypercalcemia

c)

Acute hypocalcemia

d)

Chronic hypercalcemia

55.

Paramyxovirus is associated with all of the following except

a)

Respiratory syncytial virus

b)

Koplik’s spots

c)

Oophoritis

d)

Influenza virus

56.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is

a)

A strict anaerobe

b)

A strict aerobe

c)

Doesn’t have peptidoglycan layer

d)

A gram (+) bacteria

57.

All of the following presents hemoptysis except

a)

Emphysema

b)

Pneumonia

c)

TB

d)

Bronchitis

58.

Malabsorption is when

a)

Nutrients are not absorbed by the large intestine

b)

Nutrients are not absorbed by the small intestine

c)

Inability of stomach cells to release gastroferrin

59.

Which is not correct regarding classical signs of acute inflammation?

a)

Calor: Vasodilation and increased blood flow

b)

Tumor: due to tissue edema

c)

Dolor: active hyperemia

d)

Functio laesa: swelling and pain

60.

Risk factors for atherosclerosis except

a)

Smoking

b)

Hypertension

c)

Nephrosclerosis

d)

Premenopause

61.

Ankylosis Spondilitis is also known as

a)

Albers Schonberg

b)

Marie Strumpell disease

c)

Marble bone disease

d)

Osteitis deformans

62.

Increased alkaline phosphatase lab finding is seen in all of the following except

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Osteitis deformans

c)

Osteosarcoma

d)

Osteochrondroses

63.

It is characterized by distortion of bone architecture resulting in enlarged, odd shaped bones

a)

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

b)

Pagets disease of the bone

c)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

d)

Osteopetrosis

64.

_________ is the type of arthritis that is non-inflammatory and biomechanical in nature as compared to _______ that is systemic and inflammatory

a)

Osteoarthritis, Gouty arthritis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis, Osteoarthritis

c)

Osteoarthritis, Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Gouty arthritis, Osteoarthritis

65.

A type of histiocytosis X/ Langerhans cell granulomatosis that presents bone lesions in skull and mandible, loose teeth, exophthalmos, and diabetes insipidus

a)

Letterer siwe disease

b)

Hand-schuller-christian disease

c)

Eosinophilic granuloma of bone

d)

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

66.

The following are signs and symptoms of Psoriasis. Which are matched correctly

a)

Monroes abscess: cardinal sign

Auspitz sign: abnormal keratin prod.

Silvery scales: bleeding spots

b)

Monroes abscess: bleeding spots

Auspitz sign: cardinal sign

Silvery scales: abnormal keratin prod.

c)

Monroes abscess: Cardinal sign

Auspitz sign: bleeding spots

Silvery scales: abnormal keratin prod.

67.

Which of the following is matched correctly

a)

Sickle cell anemia - VALINE replaces GLUTAMATE

b)

Chronic anemia - VALINE replaces LYSINE

c)

Methemoglobinemia - TYROSINE replaces HISTIDINE

d)

Sickle cell and Methemoglobinemia are correct

e)

Chronic and Methemoglbinemia are correct

68.

All of the following describes osteogenesis imperfecta except

a)

Fractures

b)

Blue ocular sclera

c)

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

d)

Deficient type II collagen

69.

Albers schonberg disease is characterized by

a)

Abnormal osteoblasts

b)

Hastened eruption of teeth

c)

Non-involvement of CN

d)

Abnormal osteoclasts

70.

Osteochondrosis is described as all of the following except

a)

Children and adolescents affected

b)

Affects growing skeleton

c)

osteonecrosis of ossification centers of bone

d)

Delayed eruption of teeth

71.

Enlargement of muscle fiber is muscular _________ while increase in number is muscular __________

a)

Hyperplasia, Hypertrophy

b)

Hypertrophy, Hyperplasia

72.

___________ is muscle degeneration and irreversible while ________ is not a disease but a result of a disease. It is also reversible

a)

Muscle Dystrophy, Muscle Atrophy

b)

Muscle Atrophy, Muscle Dystrophy

73.

Benign tumor of skeletal muscle _________

Benign tumor of smooth muscle _________

a)

Rhabdomyoma, Leiomymoma

b)

Leiomyoma, Rhabdomyoma

c)

Rhabdomyosarcoma, Leiomyosarcoma

d)

Leiomyosarcoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma

74.

LE FORT I. All of the following is true except

a)

Pyramidal fracture

b)

Horizontal

c)

Guerins

d)

Transverse Maxillary

75.

Choose the Le Fort Fracture being described.

“Floating jaw”

Tongue depressor doesn’t move upon occlusion

a)

Guerins

b)

Pyramidal

c)

Transverse

76.

Choose the Le Fort Fracture being described

Black eyes/ Panda eyes/ Racoon eyes

Battles sign (Mastoid ecchymosis)

CSF Rhinorrhea

a)

Transverse maxillary

b)

Pyramidal

c)

Transverse

77.

Choose the Le Fort Fracture being described

Bilateral epistaxis

a)

Horizontal

b)

Pyramidal

c)

Transverse

78.

Endothelium and axon are intact. This may be due to compression and ischemia. What is being described

a)

Neuropaxia

b)

Axonotmesis

c)

Neurotmesis

79.

Endothelium is intact and axon is damaged. May be due to stretching of nerve and bone fractures. With wallerian degeneration

a)

Axonotmesis

b)

Neuropraxia

c)

Neurotmesis

80.

All layers are damaged due to laceration of nerve. With wallerian degeneration

a)

Axonotmesis

b)

Neurotmesis

c)

Neuropraxia

81.

Destruction of myelin sheath in PNS by autoimmune cells

a)

Lou Gehrigs disease

b)

Guillan-Bare syndrome

c)

Neuroblastoma

d)

Multiple sclerosis

82.

Destruction of myelin sheath in CNS by autoimmune cells. Presents plaques and has no treatment; palliative.

a)

Lou Gehrigs disease

b)

Guillan-Bare syndrome

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Epilepsy

83.

Degeneration of motor neurons in brain and spinal cord characterized by muscle weakness and atrophy

a)

Lou Gehrigs disease

b)

Guillan Bare syndrome

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Neuroblastoma

84.

Malignant tumor of adrenal glands consisting of immature nerve cells (neuroblasts)

a)

Neurilemoma

b)

Neuroblastoma

c)

Epilepsy

d)

MS

85.

Hemophilia A

Hemophilia B

Hemophilia C

a)

CF 8 (Antihemophilic factor)

CF 9 (Christmas factor); Christmas ds

CF 10 (Stuart factor); Rosenthals syndrome

b)

CF 9 (Christmas factor); Christmas ds

CF 10 (Stuart factor); Rosenthals syndrome

CF 11 (Plasma thromboplastin antecedent)

c)

CF 8 (Antihemophilic factor)

CF 9 (Christmas factor); Christmas ds

CF 11 (PTA); Rosenthals syndrome

d)

NOTA