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Chem Q1 Final

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 3hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Nonmetals tend to

a)

gain electrons

b)

lose electrons

2.

Metals tend to

a)

gain electrons

b)

lose electrons

3.
When metals bond with non-metals they form what type of bonds
a)
covalent
b)
ionic
c)
cooperative
d)
lewis
4.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Na1+  F1-         
a)
NaF
b)
NaF3
c)
Na3F
d)
Na1F2
5.

When a nonmetal gains electrons, it becomes this type of ion.

a)

Anion

b)

Cation

6.

When a metal loses electrons, it becomes this type of ion.

a)

anion

b)

cation

7.
When an ionic compound is formed, its charge is 
a)
negative
b)
neutral (no charge)
c)
positive
8.
Which is the correct formula for sodium chloride?
a)
SoCl
b)
SdCl
c)
NaCl
d)
NaCl2
9.
Which of the following BEST describes ionic bonds?
a)
Bond held together by a sea of electrons
b)
Bond of two ions of opposite charges held together by electrostatic forces
c)
Bond held together by the sharing of electrons
d)
Bond between hydrogen and an anion or polyatomic ion.
10.

When electrons are shared a(an) ________ bond is formed

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

11.
How many valence electrons in this structure?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
4
d)
7
12.

Which category of elements usually form negative ions?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

noble gases

13.

A charged particle that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n) _____.

a)

molecule

b)

ion

c)

isotope

d)

element

14.

Which part of the atom is responsible for chemical bonding?

a)

Core Electrons

b)

Valence Electrons

c)

Protons

d)

Neutrons

15.

How many valence electrons does an atom of phosphorus have?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

5

d)

8

16.
The number of valence electrons is equal to the ____________ for the representative elements (group A elements)
a)
period number
b)
Atomic number
c)
group number
d)
oxidation number
17.

Looking at your Periodic Table, what kind of bond would NaF create?

a)

Covalent

b)

Molecular

c)

Ionic

d)

Metallic

18.
If I gain electrons I become
a)
Positive because I've added to my atom
b)
negative because I've added electrons
c)
same because i'm balanced
d)
equal because now I have electrons
19.

what is the name of the ion - Mg+1

a)

manganese metal

b)

magnesium metal

c)

manganese ion

d)

magnesium ion

20.

which of the elements below is a metal

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon

c)

sodium

d)

sulfur

21.

which element is a nonmetal

a)

aluminum

b)

fluoride

c)

lead

d)

potassium

22.
If my charge becomes 2+ what does that say about me?
a)
I am stealing 2 electrons
b)
I am losing 2 electrons
c)
I am in period 2
d)
I have an atomic # of 2
23.
The molecular formula for water is
a)
W
b)
H2O
c)
2HO
d)
H2O
24.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
25.

You place electrodes in a solution and you observe a current! This solution must include

a)

ionic bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

ions

d)

salt

26.
 In a Hydrogen bond the slightly positive hydrogen in water is attracted to:
a)
positive ions
b)
negative ions
27.

A molecule that has a partial positive end and a partial negative end because of unequal sharing of electrons is a _______________.

a)

nonpolar molecule

b)

polar molecule

c)

ionic compound

d)

metalic compound

28.

Polar molecules will dissolve in other polar molecules and nonpolar molecules will dissolve in other nonpolar molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Polar molecules have

a)

no charges.

b)

slight positive and negative charges on opposite ends of the molecules.

c)

only positive charges.

d)

either positive or negative charges, but not both.

30.
Which particle is negatively charged?
a)
proton
b)
atom
c)
neutron
d)
electron
31.

Is water an element or a compound?

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

neither

d)

both

32.

In this Lewis structure, the symbol above F means...

a)

Partial positive charge

b)

Electrons are less attracted to F than H

c)

Partial negative charge

d)

Fluorine has formed a cation

33.

Which atom has the LOWER electronegativity?

a)

Na

b)

Li

34.
The pH scale is a range from:
a)
1-7
b)
0-14
c)
1-5
d)
1-20
35.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
36.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
37.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

38.

An acid

a)

is a substance that releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

b)

is a substance that does not release any ions when dissolved in water

c)

is a substance that releases OH- when dissolved in water

d)

releases an equal amount of OH- and H+ ions when dissolved in water

39.

Water has a neutral pH because

a)

it has more H+ ions than OH-

b)

it has more OH- ions than H+

c)

it does not produce any ions

d)

it has an equal amount of H+ and OH- in solution

40.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if H ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
41.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
42.
A solution has a pH of 7.0.  What would happen to the pH if OH ions were added?
a)
pH would go up
b)
pH would go down
c)
pH would stay the same
d)
None of these
43.

Bright Red pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

44.

Dark blue pH indicator indicates that the solution is a(n)

a)

Base

b)

Acid

45.
A  pH and a pOH will add up to:
a)
0
b)
7
c)
14
d)
1.0 x 10-14
46.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the Hydronium (H+) concentration?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

47.

If a solution has a hydroxide (OH-) ion concentration of 6 what is the pH?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

48.

According to the video, H+ and H3O+ are symbols essentially representing the same idea.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which is an example of an ionic compound?

a)

Water

b)

Table Sugar

c)

Table salt

d)

Olive oil

50.

Covalent bonds form when...

a)

Atoms share electrons

b)

Atoms give away electrons

c)

Atoms gain electrons

d)

Atoms are near eachother

51.

Which of the following can form covalent bonds? Choose the best answer

a)

Metals

b)

Nonmetals

c)

Both Metals and nonmetals

d)

Only nuclear compounds.

52.

Atoms joined by covalent bonds form?

a)

Atoms

b)

Elements

c)

Molecules

d)

Ionic compounds

53.

Oxygen has 6 valence electrons, Hydrogen has 1. How many hydrogens need to bond to 1 oxygen atom to form a stable valence shell of 8?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

If an atom shares 2 pairs of electrons it forms a...

a)

Single Bond

b)

Double Bond

c)

Triple Bond

d)

Quadruple Bond

55.

If an atom shares 3 pairs of electrons it forms a...

a)

Single Bond

b)

Double Bond

c)

Triple Bond

d)

Quadruple Bond

56.

Oxygen shares two pairs of electrons. It forms a __________ covalent bond

a)

Single

b)

Double

c)

Triple

d)

Quadruple

57.

What is the formula for sodium bromide?

a)

NaBr

b)

NaBr2

c)

Na2Br

d)

SoBr

58.

What is the formula for diphosphorus pentoxide?

a)

P2O5

b)

PO5

c)

P5O2

d)

Po2O5

59.

What is the name for SiCl4?

a)

silicon tetrachloride

b)

silicon quadchloride

c)

monosilicon tetrachloride

d)

silicon chloride

60.

What is the chemical formula of sulfur hexabromide?

a)

SBr₆

b)

S₆Br

c)

S(VI)Br

d)

SBr4

61.

What is the name of P₄S₁₀?

a)

phosphorous sulfide

b)

phosphorus sulfite

c)

tetraphosphorus decasulfide

d)

tetraphosphide decasulfide

62.
What is the formula for Hydrosulfuric Acid?
a)
H2(SO3)
b)
H2S
c)
H2(SO2)
d)
H2(SO4)
63.
Name HF
a)
hydrofluoric acid
b)
Hypofluoric acid
c)
hydrogen fluorine acid
d)
fluoric acid
64.
What is the formula for hydrochloric acid?
a)
HCl
b)
HClO
c)
H3ClO3
d)
HClO3
65.

Binary acids start with "____________"

a)

acid

b)

nitric

c)

hydraulic

d)

hydro

66.

Always add the word "________" to the end when naming acids

a)

base

b)

hydro

c)

acid

d)

Baumstark

67.

When naming binary acids, the ending always changes to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ite

c)

-ic

d)

-ous

68.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ite" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

69.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ate" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

70.

The "Polyatomic Ion" chart is needed to name:

a)

binary acids

b)

oxyacids

c)

jack acids

d)

all acids

71.
How many electrons should Oxygen have around its Lewis dot model?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
72.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for the compound PBr3?
a)
structure A
b)
structure B
c)
structure C
d)
structure D
73.
According to the octet rule most elements need _______ valence electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
6
d)
18
74.
In the correct Lewis structure for CH4, how many unshared electron pairs surround the carbon?
a)
2
b)
8
c)
0
d)
4
75.
This is a correct dot diagram for oxygen (O)
a)
true
b)
false
76.
This is a correct dot diagram for fluorine (F)
a)
true
b)
false
77.
This is the correct dot diagram for nitrogen (N)
a)
true
b)
false
78.
How many sigma bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
79.
How many pi bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
80.
How many sigma bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
81.
How many sigma and pi bonds does this have?
a)
1 sigma and 1 pi
b)
2 sigma and 1 pi
c)
1 sigma and 2 pi
d)
2 sigma and 2 pi
82.
How many pi bonds does this have? 
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
83.

How many sigma bonds are in the following molecule?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

5

e)

6

84.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
85.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
86.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
87.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
88.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
89.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

90.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

91.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
92.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
93.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

94.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

95.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

96.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

97.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

98.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
99.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
100.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 
101.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
102.
Which is the electron configuration for an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p6
103.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
104.
How many valence electrons does Chlorine have?
a)
5
b)
2
c)
7
d)
5
105.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
106.
How many electrons can the d sublevel hold?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
2
d)
4
107.

Choose the correct shortcut configuration for iodine.

a)

[Ar]4s24d104p5

b)

[Kr]5s24d105p5

c)

[Xe]5s25d105p5

d)

none of the above

108.

Which area on the periodic table represents the electrons in the "d" sublevel (d orbitals)?

a)

representative elements

b)

columns 3-8

c)

rare earth elements

d)

transition elements

109.

What is incorrect about this orbital diagram?

a)

Both arrows in the 2p box should be pointing up

b)

There is nothing incorrect with this diagram

c)

In the 2p box there should only be 1 electron in the first 2p box and one in the 2nd 2p box pointing in the same direction.

d)

All the arrows should be pointing up.

110.
What's a valence electron?
a)
electrons in the second energy level
b)
electrons in the outermost energy level
c)
the atomic number
d)
electrons in the first level
111.

The vertical (up and down) columns in the Periodic Table are called

a)

groups

b)

towers

c)

periods

d)

atomic numbers

112.
The Modern Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
113.
The atoms along the staircase are called 
a)
metals
b)
nonmetals
c)
metalloids
d)
noble gases
114.
Which is an alkali metal?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Sodium
d)
Europium
115.
Which is a halogen?
a)
Helium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Oxygen
d)
Neptune
116.
Which of the following will have a larger radius than Zinc?
a)
Gallium
b)
Aluminum
c)
Magnesium
d)
Strontium
117.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
118.
Francium (Fr) has the lowest ionization energy in Group 1 because - 
a)
it has the smallest number of valence electrons
b)
it has the greatest atomic mass
c)
it has the greatest number of protons, so it attracts its electrons the strongest
d)
its 1 valence electron is very far from the nucleus, so little energy is needed to remove it
119.
Which of the following will have a lower ionization energy than Scandium (Sc)?
a)
Helium (He)
b)
Titanium (Ti)
c)
Calcium (Ca)
d)
Magnesium (Mg)
120.
Electronegativity is...
a)
the ability of an atom to attract/ accept electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
121.
Which has the greater Electronegativity: 
N or C?
a)
C
b)
N
122.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
123.
A negatively charged subatomic particle that exists in various energy levels outside the nucleus of an atom
a)
neutron
b)
electron
c)
proton
d)
subatomic particle
124.

Which of the following units provides the best measure for the amount of space that matter occupies (volume)?

a)

mL

b)

grams

c)

cm3

d)

Both mL and cm3

125.

Density =

a)

Mass x Volume

b)

Volume x Mass

c)

Mass / Volume

d)

Volume / Mass

126.
What is the density of water?
a)
1 mL
b)
1 gram
c)
1 g/cm3
d)
All of the above
127.

When a metal mailbox is rusting because of the weather, the rust is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

magnetism

d)

texture

128.

When a hammer breaks a large rock into smaller pieces, the broken rock is an example of

a)

a physical change

b)

a chemical change

c)

solubility

d)

density

129.

Properties of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the basic nature of the matter.

a)

Chemical properties

b)

property

c)

matter

d)

Physical properties

130.

A property of matter that can only be observed by changing the basic nature of the matter (e.g. combustibility)

a)

physical property

b)

physical change

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical property

131.
Where are electrons of an atom found?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Electron Cloud
c)
Some are in the nucleus and some in the electron cloud.
d)
They are moving everywhere.
132.
Which of the following is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Quark
133.
What carries no charge 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Electrons
c)
Protons
134.

Which is the smallest particle of an atom?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

neutron

135.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
136.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
137.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

138.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
139.

After mixing two substances you notice some bubbling has occurred. What can you infer about this interaction?

a)

It's a chemical reaction

b)

It's a physical reaction

c)

It's a magical reaction

d)

It's a physical change

140.

When moving a metal bar next to some iron shavings you notice that the iron shavings stick to the metal bar. This is an example of what property of matter?

a)

Magnetism

b)

Electricity

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Plasma

141.

Electricity was summarized in class by the _________ of electrons.

a)

Flow

b)

Waves

c)

Particles

d)

Field

142.

Light, electricity and magnetism are all part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

Which of the following statements is an observation. (Checkboxes mean there may be more than 1 correct answer)

a)

The light got brighter

b)

The light is powered by electricity

c)

The electrons are flowing through the light bulb.

d)

The light got dimmer

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