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Worksheets

Module 7 Revision Quiz

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 34hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following shows part of the polymer produced from Cl2C = CH2?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.

Select the correct comparison of forces between the polymer chains of PVC with polyethylene.

a)

PVC: dispersion

Polyethylene: dispersion

b)

PVC: dipole-dipole

Polyethylene: dispersion

c)

PVC: dispersion

Polyethylene: dipole-dipole

d)

PVC: dipole-dipole

Polyethylene: dipole-dipole

3.

What is the systematic name for the monomer that makes this polymer?

a)

Phenylbenzene

b)

Chloroethene

c)

Ethenylbenzene

d)

Styrene

4.

Which of the following only contains examples of synthetic condensation polymers?

a)

Polyesters and polyamides

b)

Polyesters and polyethylene

c)

Polysaccharides and proteins

d)

Polysaccharides and polyamides

5.

Which of the following polymers contains an ester linkage?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.

Esters are formed from the reaction between:

a)

an amine and a carboxylic acid.

b)

an alkene and an alcohol.

c)

an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.

d)

an alcohol and an aldehyde.

7.

Butanoic acid is added to ethanol to form the ester:

a)

ethanol butanoic acid.

b)

butyl ethanoate.

c)

ethyl butanoate.

d)

ethanol butanoate.

8.

Which of the following lists contains only isomers of ethyl butanoate?

a)

butyl ethanoate, hexanoic acid, propyl propanoate

b)

hexanoic acid, propyl propanoate, methyl hexanoate

c)

propyl propanoate, hexyl methanoate, hexanoic acid

d)

pentanoic acid, butyl ethanoate, propyl propanoate

9.

Esterification, or the formation of an ester, is an example of which type of reaction?

a)

hydrogenation

b)

substitution

c)

addition

d)

condensation

10.

Esterification requires the process of reflux, which is best defined as:

a)

separation of immiscible liquids using a separating funnel.

b)

extended heating of a mixture without any loss of reactants or products.

c)

extended heating to raise the rate of reaction.

d)

separation of liquids of different boiling points.

11.

Which of the following conditions is not required for esterification?

a)

reflux

b)

addition of concentrated sulfuric acid

c)

addition of one reagent in excess

d)

addition of a metal catalyst

12.

Purification of an ester requires three steps. Which option shows these three steps in the correct order?

a)

Washing to remove water soluble substances, addition of sodium carbonate, repeat washing

b)

Washing to remove water soluble substances, addition of sodium carbonate, distillation

c)

Addition of sodium carbonate, washing to remove water soluble substances, distillation

d)

Addition of sodium carbonate, distillation, washing to remove water soluble substances

13.

Examples of organic acids and organic bases include:

a)

Acids: aldehydes and ketones

Bases: amines

b)

Acids: carboxylic acids

Bases: hydroxides and oxides

c)

Acids: carboxylic acids

Bases: amines

d)

Acids: sulfuric and nitric acids

Bases: amines

14.

Organic acids tend not to have very low pH values because:

a)

they are weak acids that only partially ionise.

b)

their large size means they only partially ionise.

c)

most organic acids are unreactive.

d)

they behave differently to other acids and do not donate protons.

15.

Which of the following shows a balanced equation for the reaction between ethanoic acid and magnesium hydroxide?

a)

CH3COOH(aq) + Mg(OH)2(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + CH3COO-(aq) + 2H2O(l)

b)

2CH3COOH(aq) + Mg(OH)2(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2CH3COO-(aq) + 2H2O(l)

c)

CH3COOH(aq) + MgOH(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + CH3COO-(aq) + H2O(l)

d)

2CH3COOH(aq) + Mg(OH)2(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + 2CH3CO-(aq) + 2H2O(l)

16.

Hydrochloric acid is added to methanamine. The organic product of this reaction is:

a)

methyl aminechloride.

b)

ammonium chloride.

c)

methylammonium chloride.

d)

methanamine chloride.

17.

Which of the following is not a use of detergents?

a)

break down grease and oil

b)

increase the wettability of a liquid

c)

act as an emulsifier

d)

act as a surfactant to remove grease and oil

18.

Which of the following correctly describes the structure of a soap/detergent molecule?

a)

a hydrophilic hydrocarbon tail with a polar head

b)

a hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail with a non-polar hydrophobic head

c)

a hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail with a hydrophilic polar or ionic head

d)

a hydrophilic hydrocarbon tail with a hydrophilic polar or ionic head

19.

A saponification reaction involves:

a)

the hydrolysis of fatty acids to fatty acid anions.

b)

the addition of glycerol to fatty acids.

c)

the formation of fats and oils from fatty acids.

d)

the hydrolysis of fats to fatty acid anions.

20.

The operation of soaps can be broken into several steps shown below in the wrong order. What is the correct order of the steps below?

1. Soap molecules surround the grease forming a micelle.

2. Agitation causes the grease to lift off a surface.

3. Hydrophobic head of the soap ion forms ion-dipole bonds with water molecules.

4. Micelles repel each other and are washed away.

5. Hydrophobic tail of the soap ion forms dispersion forces with grease.

a)

4, 1, 2, 3, 5

b)

5, 3, 2, 1, 4

c)

5, 2, 3, 1, 4

d)

2, 3, 5, 4, 1

21.

Hard water:

a)

contains high levels of calcium and manganese ions.

b)

contains high levels of sodium and magnesium ions.

c)

contains high levels of calcium and magnesium ions.

d)

contains high levels of sodium and potassium ions.

22.

Which of the following equations correctly represents the action of hard water on soap ions?

a)

2RCOO-(s) + Ca2+(aq) → (RCOO)2Ca(s)

b)

RCOO(aq) + Ca2+(aq) → RCOOCa(s)

c)

2RCOO(aq) + Ca2+(aq) → (RCOO)2Ca(s)

d)

2RCOO(aq) + Ca2+(aq) → (RCOO)2Ca(aq)

23.

Which of the tests below will return a positive for only one type of functional group studied?

a)

oxidation with dichromate ions

b)

addition of bromine

c)

addition of sodium carbonate

d)

addition of water

24.

Which of the following shows an example of a multistep synthesis of an organic compound?

a)

ethene added to water to produce ethanol that is added to water to produce a dilute solution

b)

ethene added to water to produce ethanol that is oxidised to produce ethanoic acid

c)

ethene added to water to produce ethanol that is distilled to purify the ethanol

d)

ethene added to water to produce ethanol by fermentation

25.

Flow charts:

a)

show steps in the production of a chemical and how the chemicals move through a chemical process.

b)

only show the chemical reactions that occur in production of a particular chemical.

c)

does not need to include information about energy or special conditions.

d)

involve only chemistry and do not provide information about equipment or process.

26.

The balanced equation for the complete combustion of ethanol is:

a)

C2H5OH(l) + 2O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)

b)

C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)

c)

C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO(g) + 3H2O(l)

d)

2C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2(g)

27.

Enthalpy of combustion is:

a)

the heat energy released when 1.00 g of fuel is combusted in excess oxygen.

b)

the heat energy released when 1.00 mole of fuel is combusted with oxygen in the correct mole ratio.

c)

the heat energy released when 1.00 mole of fuel is combusted in excess oxygen.

d)

the heat energy released when 1.00 g of fuel is combusted with oxygen in the correct mole ratio.

28.

4.2 g of ethanol is combusted and used to heat 350 mL of water. During the combustion, the temperature of the water raised by 43°C. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion for this reaction.

a)

–8.28 kJ/mol

b)

–62909 kJ/mol

c)

14.98 kJ/mol

d)

–690 kJ/mol

29.

Which of the following does not contribute to a result significantly lower than the theoretical value during enthalpy of combustion investigations?

a)

Absorption of heat by equipment including the calorimeter, tripods and gauze mats

b)

Loss of heat to the air around the flame

c)

Evaporation of water from the container during combustion

d)

Incomplete combustion of the fuel during combustion

30.

Ethanol has an enthalpy of combustion of –1360 kJ/mol. What is the heat released per gram of ethanol?

a)

29.52 kJ/g

b)

–29.52 kJ/g

c)

62652 kJ/g

d)

–62652 kJ/g

31.

2-pentanol undergoes a dehydration reaction to form the products:

a)

1-pentene and water.

b)

2-pentene and water.

c)

1-pentene and hydrogen gas.

d)

2-pentene and hydrogen gas.

32.

2-propanol reacts with hydrogen bromide (HBr) to form the products:

a)

1-bromopropane and hydroxide ions.

b)

1-bromopropane and water.

c)

2-bromopropane and hydroxide ions.

d)

2-bromopropane and water.

33.

Alcohols can be oxidised by addition of acidified dichromate ions. These ions are used because:

a)

they are the only chemical that will oxidise primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.

b)

they undergo a distinct and observable colour change.

c)

they will cause tertiary alcohols to be oxidised.

d)

they are a chemical that can be used by students in a school laboratory.

34.

When primary alcohols oxidise, they go through two stages of oxidation. The correct sequence of formation of chemicals is:

a)

primary alcohol → ketone → aldehyde.

b)

primary alcohol → ketone → carboxylic acid.

c)

primary alcohol → carboxylic acid → aldehyde.

d)

primary alcohol → aldehyde → carboxylic acid.

35.

When a primary alcohol oxidises, the intermediate product is not formed for very long, and it almost immediately oxidises to the final product. A method of collecting the intermediate product is:

a)

distilling the intermediate product as it forms so it does not further oxidise to the final product.

b)

adding less acidified dichromate ions to prevent oxidation to the final product.

c)

reducing the final product to reform the intermediate product.

d)

evaporating the final product, leaving behind the intermediate product.

36.

When 2-methyl-3-hexanol is oxidised with acidified dichromate ions, the organic product formed is:

a)

2-methyl-3-hexanone.

b)

3-hexanone.

c)

2-methylhexanal.

d)

2-methylhexanoic acid.

37.

Ethanol and 2-methyl-2-propanol were added to acidified dichromate ions and heated. What would have been observed?

a)

The ethanol would form ethanoic acid and 2-methyl-2-propanol would not react.

b)

The container with the ethanol would remain orange. The container with the 2-methyl-2-propanol will change colour from orange to green.

c)

The container with the ethanol would change colour from orange to green and ethanoic acid would form. The container with the 2-methyl-2-propanol will stay orange.

d)

The container with the ethanol would change colour from orange to green. The container with the 2-methyl-2-propanol will stay orange.

38.

Halogenated alkanes undergo substitution reactions to form alcohols more easily than non-halogenated alkanes. The reason for this is:

a)

alkanes are unreactive so will not react with water.

b)

halogens are more reactive than hydrogen.

c)

the carbon-halogen bond is easier to break than a carbon-hydrogen bond.

d)

the carbon-halogen bond is harder to break than a carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bond.

39.

The balanced equation for the fermentation of glucose is:

a)

C6H12O6(aq) → 2C2H5OH(aq) + 2CO2(g)

b)

C12H24O12(aq) → 4C2H5OH(aq) + 4CO2(g)

c)

C6H12O6(aq) → 2C2H6OH(aq) + 2CO2(g)

d)

2C6H12O6(aq) → 3C2H5OH(aq) + 3CO2(g)

40.

Which of the following describes the ideal conditions required for fermentation?

a)

Aerobic conditions, low temperatures, slightly acidic, dilute solution

b)

Anaerobic conditions, low temperatures, slightly basic, dilute solution

c)

Anaerobic conditions, high temperatures, slightly acidic, dilute solution

d)

Anaerobic conditions, low temperatures, slightly acidic, dilute solution

41.

The reason low temperatures are required for fermentation is:

a)

the ethanol develops an unpleasant flavour when fermented at higher temperatures.

b)

the enzymes will denature at high temperatures, stopping fermentation.

c)

the ethanol is converted to ethanoic acid (vinegar) at high temperatures.

d)

fermentation proceeds at an uncontrolled rate at high temperatures.

42.

Bioethanol is:

a)

produced from waste oils and food.

b)

produced as a by-product of crude oil waste products.

c)

used as a fuel in its pure form.

d)

used as an additive to petrol.

43.

Ethanol is considered a more environmentally friendly fuel than petrol produced from crude oil because:

a)

it produces around 10% of the carbon dioxide that petrol does when combusted.

b)

the carbon dioxide released during combustion does not result in a net addition of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

c)

it produces more energy per mole of fuel combusted than petrol.

d)

it has significantly better fuel economy than petrol.

44.

Which of the following statements about biodiesel is incorrect?

a)

Most biodiesel is produced from waste oil and food.

b)

Biodiesel is formed from the breakdown of triglycerides.

c)

A catalyst is used to speed up the reaction rate in biodiesel production.

d)

Vehicles can use 100% biodiesel without engine modification.

45.

How many structural isomers are there for C4H10?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

46.

When naming organic compounds:

a)

only the longest chain is included.

b)

the parent chain must be in a straight line in the diagram.

c)

the substituent groups are listed in numerical order.

d)

the substituent groups are listed in alphabetical order.

47.

What is the correct name for the following compound?

a)

3,4-dimethylheptane

b)

4-methyl-5-ethylhexane

c)

3-methyl-4-propylpentane

d)

4,5-dimethylheptane

48.

What is the correct name for the following alkyne?

a)

butyne

b)

1-butyne

c)

2-butyne

d)

1-methyl-1-propyne

49.

What is the correct formula for octane?

a)

C8H18

b)

C8H16

c)

C8H14

d)

C8H20

50.

Which of the following is an isomer of 2,2-dimethylheptane?

a)

2,2,3-trimethylpentane

b)

2,2,3,3-tetramethylpentane

c)

Octane

d)

2-methyl-3-ethylpentane

51.

A haloalkane is best described as:

a)

an unsaturated compound with a halogen atom substituted for a hydrogen atom.

b)

a saturated compound with a halogen atom substituted for a carbon atom.

c)

a saturated compound with a halogen atom substituted for a hydrogen atom.

d)

an unsaturated compound with a halogen atom substituted for a carbon atom.

52.

What is the correct name for the following haloalkane?

a)

2-bromobutane

b)

2-bromo-methylpropane

c)

2-bromo-2,2-dimethylethane

d)

2-bromo-2-methylpropane

53.

Which of the following is correct about structural isomers?

a)

They have different molecular formulas.

b)

They must have any double or triple bonds in the same position.

c)

They can be either positional or chain isomers.

d)

They must have the same length main chain.

54.

An organic compound has molecular formula C6H13Br. Which of the following is one possible structure of this compound?

a)

2-bromo-pentane

b)

3-bromo-heptane

c)

3-bromo-3-methylhexane

d)

3-bromo-3-methylpentane

55.

The functional group of aldehydes is:

a)

R—OH.

b)

R—CO—R'

c)

R—CHO

d)

R—COOH

56.

What type of alcohol is the following?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

57.

What is the correct name of the molecule shown?

a)

2-methyl-2-propanone

b)

2-methyl-2-propanol

c)

2-butanol

d)

2-methylpropanol

58.

Which of the following lists contains only isomers of 3-pentanol?

a)

2-pentanol, 2-methyl-1-propanol, 1-pentanol

b)

2-pentanol, 2-methyl-1-butanol, 1-pentanol

c)

1-pentanol, 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol, 2-methyl-1-pentanol

d)

2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol, 2-methyl-1-propanol, 2-pentanol

59.

What are the correct names for the following aldehyde and ketone?

a)

aldehyde: 2,2-dimethylbutanal

ketone: 2-pentanone

b)

aldehyde: 2-methylpentanal

ketone: 2-pentanal

c)

aldehyde: 2,2-dimethylbutanal

ketone: pentanone

d)

aldehyde: dimethylbutanal

ketone: 2-pentanone

60.

Aldehydes and ketones like propanal and propanone are functional group isomers because:

a)

they have the same functional group.

b)

they have different functional groups but the same molecular formula.

c)

they have the same empirical formula but different structural formulas.

d)

they have the same number of carbons.

61.

Carboxylic acids:

a)

contain the carbonyl functional group.

b)

can have the functional group on a terminal carbon or in the middle of the carbon chain.

c)

have a COOH functional group.

d)

have lower boiling points than aldehydes and ketones of similar size.

62.

Amines:

a)

have the functional group —NH—CO—.

b)

have the general formula RNH2.

c)

can only have a primary and secondary form.

d)

have lower boiling points than alkanes of similar size.

63.

Propene is reacted with hydrogen in a hydrogenation reaction. Which of the following identifies the product and reaction conditions required?

a)

Product: propane

Reaction conditions: metal catalyst, heat and pressure

b)

Product: ethane and methane

Reaction conditions: metal catalyst, heat and pressure

c)

Product: ethane and methane

Reaction conditions: metal catalyst

d)

Product: propane

Reaction conditions: metal catalyst

64.

Which of the following equations shows a balanced equation for the complete combustion of hexane?

a)

C6H12(l) + 9O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

b)

C6H12(l) + 6O2(g) → 6CO(g) + 6H2O(l)

c)

2C6H14(l) + 19O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 14H2O(l)

d)

C6H14(l) + 19O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 7H2O(l)

65.

When bromine is added to 1-butene, the product is:

a)

1,2-dibromobutane.

b)

1,2-dibromobutene.

c)

1-bromobutane.

d)

2-bromobutane.

66.

When water is added to ethene:

a)

ethanol forms in the presence of a metal catalyst.

b)

ethane and hydroxide ions form as products in the presence of a dilute sulfuric acid catalyst.

c)

ethanol forms in the presence of a dilute sulfuric acid catalyst.

d)

ethanol forms, no catalyst is required due to the reactivity of the double bond.

67.

When HCl is added to ethyne, the product formed is:

a)

1,2-dichloroethane.

b)

chloroethane.

c)

chloroethene.

d)

1,2-dichloroethene.

68.

When methane is reacted with bromine, which of the following will occur?

a)

A series of four reactions eventually results in the formation of tetrabromomethane.

b)

Tetrabromomethane forms immediately if UV light is present.

c)

A series of four reactions eventually results in the formation of tetrabromomethane if UV light is present.

d)

Tetrabromomethane forms immediately without the need for UV light.

69.

Incomplete combustion:

a)

results in the production of more moles of carbon dioxide per mole of fuel combusted.

b)

results in less energy produced per mole of fuel combusted.

c)

results in more energy produced per mole of fuel combusted.

d)

results in the production of the harmless gas carbon monoxide.

70.

Crude oil is separated into its components in a process called:

a)

fractional distillation.

b)

catalytic cracking.

c)

thermal cracking.

d)

functional distillation.

71.

The purpose of catalytic cracking is to:

a)

split crude oil into the different components.

b)

break down large hydrocarbon molecules into smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

c)

add smaller hydrocarbon molecules to form larger hydrocarbon molecules.

d)

convert small hydrocarbon alkanes into alkenes.

72.

Which of the following is not a possible consequence of the mining, transport and use of crude oil?

a)

the enhanced greenhouse effect

b)

oil spills from transport tankers

c)

damage to the ozone layer

d)

environmental damage from mining operations

73.

The enhanced greenhouse effect:

a)

has resulted in lower overall average temperatures across the planet.

b)

is a natural part of the Earth's temperature regulation system.

c)

results in more heat energy being trapped in the Earth's atmosphere.

d)

is caused by increased heat energy from the Sun being let into the Earth's atmosphere.

74.

Which compound has the highest boiling point?

a)

ethane

b)

butane

c)

pentane

d)

2-methylbutane

75.

The main intermolecular force of attraction between hydrocarbons is:

a)

covalent bonds.

b)

hydrogen bonds.

c)

dipole–dipole forces.

d)

dispersion forces.

76.

When a carbon atom has four single bonds, the geometrical arrangement of atoms around it is described as:

a)

trigonal pyramid.

b)

tetrahedral.

c)

planar.

d)

linear.

77.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon?

a)

It does not give information on the structure of the molecule.

b)

It can be true for multiple structures.

c)

It is the simplest ratio of atoms present in the molecule.

d)

It only includes carbon and hydrogen atoms.

78.

Pentane has a higher boiling point than ethane because it forms:

a)

a stronger type of secondary force between molecules.

b)

the same number of dispersion forces between molecules, but the individual dispersion forces are stronger.

c)

stronger overall dispersion forces due to an increased number of electrons in the molecule.

d)

stronger overall dispersion forces due to an increased number of hydrogen atoms in the molecule.

79.

Alkanes have various uses related to their molecule size and state. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

a)

Longer chain molecules are used as lubricants and fuel oils.

b)

Ethene is used as a feedstock for polymers and other industrially produced chemicals.

c)

Hexane is the main component of petrol.

d)

Methane is the main component of natural gas.

80.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about SDS sheets?

a)

They contain the correct IUPAC name, common names and chemical formula of the substance.

b)

They contain precautions for safe use of the substance.

c)

They can only be accessed through chemical supply companies.

d)

They contain information on first aid procedures and consequences of misuse.

81.

General safety precautions for use of organic chemicals in laboratory classrooms should include:

a)

using chemicals on lab benches, with lab coats and safety glasses.

b)

using chemicals in a fume hood if available, so personal protective equipment is not required.

c)

using chemicals on lab benches, with lab coats, safety glasses and gloves.

d)

using chemicals in a fume hood if available, with lab coats, safety glasses and gloves.

82.

Which of the following describes methods of exposure to organic chemicals?

a)

Inhalation, being in the same room as chemicals, eating and drinking after using chemicals

b)

Inhalation of chemical vapours, absorption through the skin, ingestion

c)

Eating and drinking after using chemicals, handling containers containing organic chemicals

d)

Absorption through the skin, eating and drinking after using chemicals

83.

Correct disposal of organic chemicals involves:

a)

washing down the sink with large volumes of water.

b)

placing into plastic bags and into a rubbish bin.

c)

collection into a waste container for professional disposal.

d)

collection into a waste container for lab staff or teachers to wash down the sink.

84.

Crude oil is separated into its components in a process called:

a)

fractional distillation.

b)

catalytic cracking.

c)

thermal cracking.

d)

functional distillation.

85.

The purpose of catalytic cracking is to:

a)

split crude oil into the different components.

b)

break down large hydrocarbon molecules into smaller hydrocarbon molecules.

c)

add smaller hydrocarbon molecules to form larger hydrocarbon molecules.

d)

convert small hydrocarbon alkanes into alkenes.

86.

Which of the following is not a possible consequence of the mining, transport and use of crude oil?

a)

the enhanced greenhouse effect

b)

oil spills from transport tankers

c)

damage to the ozone layer

d)

environmental damage from mining operations

87.

The enhanced greenhouse effect:

a)

has resulted in lower overall average temperatures across the planet.

b)

is a natural part of the Earth's temperature regulation system.

c)

results in more heat energy being trapped in the Earth's atmosphere.

d)

is caused by increased heat energy from the Sun being let into the Earth's atmosphere.

88.

Which of the following is not a consequence of the enhanced greenhouse effect?

a)

ocean acidification and loss of coral reefs

b)

higher average yearly temperatures

c)

shrinkage of permanent ice and resulting increase in sea levels

d)

more ice forming in the Arctic due to extreme winter weather events

89.

Which of the following is in use to try and reduce carbon dioxide emissions?

a)

collection and storage of all gases from power stations

b)

storage of carbon dioxide underground in a process called sequestration

c)

incomplete combustion of coal in power stations

d)

development of synthetic coal that releases less carbon dioxide per kilogram of coal combusted

90.

Butan-1-ol burns in oxygen according to the following equation:

C4H9OH (l) + 6O2 (g)  4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l)C_4H_9OH\ \left(l\right)\ +\ 6O_2\ \left(g\right)\ \rightarrow\ 4CO_2\ \left(g\right)\ +\ 5H_2O\ \left(l\right)  

How many moles of carbon dioxide would form if two moles of butan-1-ol were burnt in excess oxygen?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

10

91.

The table shows the enthalpy for four compounds.

Which of these compounds would produce the greatest amount of energy if 1.00g of each is burnt?

a)

CO

b)

CH4

c)

C2H2

d)

C2H6

92.

Which of the following industrial processes is used to produce ethanol from ethylene?

a)

Hydration

b)

Dehydration

c)

Addition polymerisation

d)

Condensation polymerisation

93.

Which of the following shows two products that result from fermentation of glucose?

a)

Cellulose and water

b)

Ethanol and oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide and water

d)

Ethanol and carbon dioxide

94.

Which property would be most useful in distinguishing between butan-1-ol and propan-1-ol?

a)

Boiling point

b)

Colour

c)

Conductivity

d)

Density

95.

What is the systematic name for the molecule shown?

a)

butyl butanoate

b)

propyl butanoate

c)

butyl propanoate

d)

propyl propanoate

96.

What is the correct IUPAC name for the following compound?

a)

2-chloro-3-fluorobutane

b)

2-fluoro-3-chlorobutane

c)

3-fluoro-2-chlorobutane

d)

3-chloro-2-fluorobutane

97.

A portion of resin made from acrylic acid (CH2=CHCOOH) is shown.

Which type of reaction results in the formation of this polymer?

a)

Addition

b)

Condensation

c)

Dehydration

d)

Esterification

98.

Which of the following is an isomer of 1-butanol?

a)

1,2-butanediol

b)

butanone

c)

2-methyl-1-propanol

d)

butanal

99.

The enthalpy of combustion of propan-1-ol is 2021 kJ/mol. Combustion takes place according to the equation:

2C3H7OH (l) + 9O2 (g)  6CO2 (g) + 8H2O (l)2C_3H_7OH\ \left(l\right)\ +\ 9O_2\ \left(g\right)\ \rightarrow\ 6CO_2\ \left(g\right)\ +\ 8H_2O\ \left(l\right)  

What mass of water is formed when 1530kJ of energy is released?

a)

3.4g

b)

14g

c)

55g

d)

144g

100.

Which of the following substances can be oxidised to produce propanoic acid?

a)

2-propanol

b)

propanone

c)

1-butanol

d)

1-butene

101.

2-butanol is heated under reflux with acidified potassium dichromate solution.

What is the major organic product?

a)

butanal

b)

butyl butanoate

c)

butanone

d)

butanoic acid

102.

Which of these groups of organic substances is listed in decreasing order for melting and boiling points?

a)

Ethanol, ethanoic acid, fluoroethane, ethane

b)

Ethanoic acid, ethanol, fluoroethane, ethane

c)

Ethanoic acid, ethanol, ethane, fluoroethane

d)

Ethane, fluoroethane, ethanol, ethanoic acid

103.

Which compound can form when bromine reacts with propene?

a)

1-bromopropane

b)

2-bromopropane

c)

1,1-dibromopropane

d)

1,2-dibromopropane

104.

How many isomers are there for C3H6BrCl?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

105.

The enthalpy of combustion of pentan-1-ol is 2800 kJ/mol. A quantity of pentan-1-ol was combusted, generating 108kJ of heat. What mass of pentan-1-ol was combusted?

a)

2.29g

b)

2.86g

c)

3.32g

d)

3.40g

106.

Ethene may be converted into poly(ethene). What type of reaction is this?

a)

Condensation

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Oxidation/reduction

d)

Polymerisation

107.

The diagram shows the structural formula of a gas with the molecular formula C2H3F3.

How many isomers are there with this molecular formula?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

108.

The diagram shows a section of a polymer.

What is the systematic name of monomer?

a)

Polybenzene

b)

Benzylethene

c)

Ethylbenzene

d)

Ethenylbenzene

109.

The molar enthalpy of combustion of ethanol is 1367 kJ/mol.

What quantity of ethanol must be combusted to raise the temperature of 1.0kg water from 50°C to boiling point at sea level (assuming no less of heat to the surroundings)?

a)

6.5g

b)

7.0g

c)

209g

d)

300g

110.

Water is released during a polymerisation reaction.

Which monomer is likely to have been involved in the reaction?

a)

Ethene

b)

Glucose

c)

Styrene

d)

Vinyl chloride

111.

What is the IUPAC systematic name for the compound whose structure is given?

a)

1-chloro-2,3-dimethylbutane

b)

1-chloro-2-methyl-3-ethylbutane

c)

1-chloro-2-ethyl-3-methylpentane

d)

1-chloro-2,3-dimethylpentane

112.

Polymer pollution:

a)

is not an issue as most polymers are biodegradable.

b)

is not an issue as most polymers break down within a few years.

c)

is an issue as we do not recycle any form of polymer.

d)

is an issue as we do not recycle all forms of polymers.

113.

A student completed an experiment to determine the amount of energy absorbed by a volume of water.

The following data were recorded.

What was the initial temperature of the water?

a)

15°C

b)

25°C

c)

29°C

d)

42°C

114.

An organic liquid, when reacted with concentrated sulphuric acid, produces a compound that decolourises bromine water. What is the formula of the organic liquid?

a)

C6H12

b)

C6H14

c)

C6H11OH

d)

C5H11COOH

115.

The apparatus shown is used in a first-hand investigation to determine and compare the heat of combustion of three different liquid alkaniols.

What is the independent variable?

a)

Type of alcohol used

b)

Amount of water used

c)

Amount of alcohol used

d)

Temperature change in the water

116.

Why is ethanol used in preference to water as the main ingredient of perfume?

a)

Ethanol is cheaper to produce.

b)

Ethanol has no detectable odour.

c)

Ethanol dissolves esters more readily.

d)

Ethanol has a significantly lower density.

117.

Bromine, Br2, dissolves in unsaturated hydrocarbons and reacts immediately. Which of the following is the best description of this process?

a)

Bromine is polar and reacts by adding bromine atoms across the double bond.

b)

Bromine is polar and reacts by substituting hydrogen atoms with bromine atoms.

c)

Bromine is non-polar and reacts by substituting hydrogen atoms with bromine atoms.

d)

Bromine is non-polar and reacts by adding bromine atoms across the double bond.

118.

Which of the following is the main organic product resulting from the reaction of butanoic acid and pentanol?

a)
b)
c)
d)
119.

What mass of ethanol is obtained when 5.68g of carbon dioxide is produced during fermentation, at 25°C and 100kPa?

a)

2.95g

b)

5.95g

c)

33.6g

d)

147.2g

120.

In a fermentation experiment 6.50g of glucose was completely converted to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

What is the mass of carbon dioxide produced?

a)

1.59g

b)

3.18g

c)

9.53g

d)

13.0g

121.

In which of the following alternatives are the three compounds listed in order of increasing boiling point?

a)

pentane, butan-1-ol, propanoic acid

b)

propanoic acid, butan-1-ol, pentane

c)

propanoic acid, pentane, butan-1-ol

d)

butan-1-ol, propanoic acid, pentane

122.

What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?

a)

hexan-3-ol

b)

hexan-4-ol

c)

heptan-3-ol

d)

heptan-5-ol

123.

How many isomers are there for C3H6Cl2?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

124.

A student used the apparatus shown to determine the molar enthalpy of combustion of ethanol.

What is the molar enthalpy of combustion calculated from this data?

a)

22.4 kJ mol-1

b)

25.7 kJ mol-1

c)

1030 kJ mol-1

d)

1180 kJ mol-1

125.

The enthalpy of combustion of butan-1-ol is 2676 kJ mol-1. What is the value of the enthalpy of combustion in kJ g-1?

a)

30.41

b)

36.10

c)

44.60

d)

47.79

126.

Terylene (polyester) is a condensation polymer. Part of the structure of the polymer is shown.

What are the two monomers that form this polymer?

a)
b)
c)
d)
127.

What is the name of the following compound?

a)

1,2-difluoro-1-chloroethane

b)

1,2-difluoro-2-chloroethane

c)

1-chloro-1,2-difluoroethane

d)

2-chloro-1,2-difluoroethane

128.

Ethanol can be reacted with ethnic acid to produce ethyl ethanoate. What type of reaction is this?

a)

esterification

b)

hydration

c)

polymerisation

d)

reduction

129.

What is the name of the compound shown?

a)

1-chloro-1,2-difluoropropane

b)

3-chloro-2,3-difluoropropane

c)

1,2-difluoro-1-chloropropane

d)

1-chloro-1,2-difluoropentane

130.

The IUPAC systematic name for the compound whose structure is given below is:

a)

2-bromo-4-chlorohexanal

b)

3-chloro-3-methyl-5-bromo-hexanal

c)

5-bromo-3-chloro-3-methylhexanal

d)

2-bromo-4-choro-4-methylhexanal

131.

The following list of steps refers to an experimental plan for making an ester in a flask. Some of the steps in the list may NOT be required for this experiment. The steps are NOT in the correct sequence.

1. Heat the mixture under reflux.

2. Add three drops of concentrated sulphuric acid.

3. Add 1mL of ethanol.

4. Add 1mL of ethene.

5. Add 1mL of ethnic acid.

6. Distil the mixture.

7. Add three drops of phenolphthalein indicator.

Which alternative is the best sequence for making an ester?

a)

3, 5, 7, 1

b)

4, 3, 7, 6

c)

5, 4, 2, 6

d)

5, 3, 2, 1

132.

Which equation represents esterification?

a)
b)
c)
d)
133.

The graph shows some boiling points for carboxylic acids, alcohols and alkanes.

Which of these statements correctly describes a trend shown in this graph?

a)

The boiling points of each group increase with increasing molecular mass due to increasing strength of dispersion forces.

b)

The boiling points of each group increase as molecular mass increases due to there being less dispersion forces between the molecules.

c)

The boiling points of each group increase with molecular mass as less energy is needed to separate the molecules.

d)

The boiling points of each group decrease with increasing molecular mass due to increasing carbon chain length.

134.

The graph shows some boiling points for carboxylic acids, alcohols and alkanes.

Which of these statements correctly describes the difference in the boiling points for carboxylic acids, alcohols and alkanes?

a)

Alkanes have the lowest boiling points due to strong hydrogen bonding.

b)

Carboxylic acids have the highest boiling point due to both hydrogen bonding and C=O bonds.

c)

Alcohols have higher boiling points than alkanes due to the hydrogen bonding in alkanes.

d)

Only carboxylic acids have dispersion forces and so have the highest boiling points.

135.

Which of the following solutions has the lowest pH?

a)

0.1M ethanoic acid

b)

0.1M hydrochloric acid

c)

0.2M sodium hydroxide

d)

0.2M nitric acid

136.

The dehydration of an alcohol produces an alkene and water. What is the catalyst for the conversion of ethanol to ethene?

a)

NaOH

b)

H2SO4

c)

HNO3

d)

Pt

137.

The formula for an ester with a strawberry fragrance is shown.

The alcohol and carboxylic acid used to make this ester were:

a)

propanol and propanoic acid.

b)

ethanol and butanoic acid.

c)

butanol and ethanoic acid.

d)

butanol and butanoic acid.