WorksheetsUnits 4 and 5 Test
Total questions: 94
Worksheet time: 47mins
Phase of mitosis where nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear, chromosomes condense, centrioles migrate to poles and the spindle begins to form
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Phase of mitosis where chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate in the center of the cell and attached to the spindle fibers.
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Phase of mitosis where nucleolus and nuclear envelope reappear, chromosomes decondense, the spindle breaks down, cytokinesis begins
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Phase of mitosis where sister chromatids (copies of the same chromosome) separate and are pulled to opposite poles by shortening spindle fibers.
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Process that includes a single nuclear division and yields two identical nuclei in daughter cells
mitosis
meiosis
apoptosis
cirrhosis
period of non division where a cell is preparing to divide
interphase
mitosis
cytokinesis
M phase
Correct order of cell cycle phases
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
Mitosis, G1, S, G2, Cytokinesis
S, G1, G2, Cytokinesis, Mitosis
Phase of interphase where the DNA is replicated
S phase
G1 phase
G2 phase
cytokinesis
phase that cells typically spend the most amount of time in
interphase
mitosis
cytokinesis
When a cell emits a signaling molecule meant for itself
autocrine
juxtacrine
paracrine
endocrine
When a cell emits a signaling molecule meant for a cell it is in direct contact with
autocrine
juxtacrine
paracrine
endocrine
When a cell emits a signaling molecule meant for another cell that is only a short distance away
autocrine
juxtacrine
paracrine
endocrine
When a cell emits a signaling molecule meant for another cell that is a long distance away, uses hormones as signaling molecules and bloodstream for transport
autocrine
juxtacrine
paracrine
endocrine
What is the correct order for the events in a signaling pathway?
reception, transduction, cellular response
reception, cellular response, transduction
transduction, reception, cellular response
transduction, cellular response, reception
Which of the following describes how bacteria are able to determine the density of the bacterial population around them through signaling molecules in an attempt to coordinate their activities
quorum sensing
apoptosis
synergism
negative feedback
This is a protein hormone produced by the pancreas that acts a ligand to decrease blood glucose by binding receptors on cell surfaces, triggering glucose uptake by the cells
insulin
acetylcholine
aldosterone
thyroxine
This is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal gland that acts a ligand to increase blood volume by binding receptors in kidney cells, triggering water and sodium retention
insulin
acetylcholine
aldosterone
thyroxine
This is a neurotransmitter that triggers muscle contraction. It is usually quickly broken down by acetylcholinesterase.
acetylcholine
aldosterone
insulin
epinephrine
Which of the following produce proteins that would normally act to inhibit cell cycle progression if DNA were to be damaged?
tumor suppressor genes
protooncogenes
oncogenes
SRY genes
Which of the following produce proteins that would normally act to stimulate cell cycle progression ?
tumor suppressor genes
protooncogenes
p53
SRY genes
Which of the following is an example of a tumor suppressor gene that is commonly mutated in individuals with cancer?
p53
SRY
TSH
Which of the following is defined as uncontrolled cell growth and division?
cancer
apoptosis
mitosis
endometriosis
Cells produced by mitosis are
haploid
diploid
triploid
polyploid
What happens to the amount of DNA in the parent cell after replication occurs during the S phase of interphase?
it doubles
it is reduced by half
it remains the same
What would be the result if cytokinesis failed?
a single cell with two identical nuclei
two cells with identical nuclei
two cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the original cell
a single cell with one large nucleus and 2 times the number of chromosomes
What would be the result if the cell cycle proceeded even if not all of the chromosomes were attached to spindle fibers?
daughter nuclei would have extra or missing chromosomes
daughter nuclei would be identical
only one large nucleus would form
the mitotic spindle would not break down
If a cell is healthy and it cannot correct DNA damage, what will occur?
the cell will undergo apoptosis
the cell will continue to divide
Which is true of cyclins?
cyclins are always present at the same concentration inside a cell
cyclins are produced and degraded to control progression through the cell cycle
Which is true of cyclin-dependent kinases (cdks)?
they are always present inside of the cell in the same concentrations, but are only active when bound to their respective cyclins
they are produced and degraded to control progression through the cell cycle
Nerve cells use neurotransmitters to send signals to other nearby nerve cells
paracrine
endocrine
juxtacrine
autocrine
Which signaling molecules are most likely to have receptors in the cytoplasm or on the nuclear membrane?
steroid hormones
protein hormones
large polar molecules
charged ions
Which signaling molecules are most likely to have receptors in the cytoplasm or on the nuclear membrane?
small nonpolar molecules
protein hormones
large polar molecules
charged ions
Which signaling molecules are most likely to have receptors on the cell membrane surface?
small nonpolar molecules
protein hormones
steroid hormones
Which signaling molecules are most likely to have receptors on the cell membrane surface?
small nonpolar molecules
large polar molecules
steroid hormones
Which of the following is the function of mitosis in unicellular eukaryotes, like an amoeba?
asexual reproduction
tissue repair
organisms growth
Which of the following is the function of mitosis in multicellular eukaryotes?
asexual reproduction
growth and tissue repair
Which correctly describes mitosis in multicellular eukaryotes?
occurs in somatic cells to produce two identical diploid cells
occurs in somatic cells to produce four identical diploid cells
occurs in gonadal cells to produce two identical diploid cells
occurs in gonadal cells to produce four identical diploid cells
The M checkpoint looks for...
attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers prior to anaphase
correct and complete replication of chromosomes prior to mitosis
cell size, nutrient availability, growth factors and DNA damage prior to S phase
The G1 checkpoint looks for...
attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers prior to anaphase
correct and complete replication of chromosomes prior to mitosis
cell size, nutrient availability, growth factors and DNA damage prior to S phase
The G2 checkpoint looks for...
attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers prior to anaphase
correct and complete replication of chromosomes prior to mitosis
cell size, nutrient availability, growth factors and DNA damage prior to S phase
The function of a kinase is ...
to phosphorylate a molecule (often the next enzyme in a transduction pathway, which alters its shape, activating it)
to dephosphorylate a molecule (often the next enzyme in a transduction pathway, which alters its shape, deactivating it)
to bind ligand-gated ion channel receptors, allowing ion flow
to bind ligand-gated ion channels, preventing ion flow
Which term describes the asexual reproduction of unicellular organisms, which involves mitosis in eukaryotes (amoeba, paramecium, etc)?
binary fission
reception
synthesis
propogation
Which describes cytokinesis?
division of the cytoplasm between daughter cells at the end of the cell cycle
separation of sister chromatids during anaphase
the condensation of chromosomes during prophase
programmed cell death in response to DNA damage
Which describes an exit from the cell cycle, where the cell no longer divides unless stimulated to do so?
G0
G1
G2
S
epinephrine is a protein hormone produced by the adrenal gland, upon binding its receptor, it triggers the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for cellular respiration to produce ATP. This is a form of...
endocrine signaling
paracrine signaling
autocrine signaling
juxtacrine signaling
Cyclic AMP, or cAMP, is a secondary messenger that is used in many transduction pathways. Secondary messengers are important when...
ligands cannot enter the cell and have cell surface receptors
ligands can enter the cell and have intracellular receptors
There are two different sexes of yeast cells, they release signaling molecules that bind to receptors on the cell surface of the opposite sex. The binding of the ligand to the receptor eventually leads to which cellular response?
genes for mating to be turned on
genes for lactose breakdown to be turned on
the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream
the release of epinephrine neurotransmitters
Morphogens are chemical signals released during embryonic development, they emanate from a restricted region of a tissue and spread away from their source to form a concentration gradient that will determine the fate of each cell. Because the embryo is small, these cells are located short distances from each other. This is an example of ...
paracrine signaling
endocrine signaling
juxtacrine signaling
autocrine signaling
The activation of which gene leads to the production of testosterone and development of male genitalia during fetal development?
SRY
X
G
p53
This is a protein hormone responsible for the breakdown of glycogen in cells to prepare for fight or flight response.
acetylcholine
aldosterone
insulin
epinephrine
Plasmodesmata are channels that connect the cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells, allowing the passage of small molecules. This is an example of..
autocrine signaling
paracrine signaling
endocrine signaling
juxtacrine signaling
Amplification of a signal describes...
termination after the cellular response occurs
an increased number of molecules being activated at each step in the transduction pathway
the binding of a ligand to its receptor
steroid hormones binding intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm
Which disease results in limited or no production of insulin, leaving individuals unable to regulate blood glucose levels?
type I diabetes
hypthyroidism
cystic fibrosis
alzheimers
The nerve gas sarin acts as a noncompetitive inhibitor for the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. How does this affect acetylcholine that triggers muscle contraction?
acetylcholinesterase will be unable to breakdown acetylcholine, and the muscles will continue to contract
there will be no change in the function of acetylcholinesterase
positive feedback describes...
when a perturbance causes the system to move further from the set point in the direction of the perturbance until system change is achieved, homeostasis is not restored
when the system moves back to the set point in response to the perturbance, homeostasis is restored
negative feedback describes...
when a perturbance causes the system to move further from the set point in the direction of the perturbance until system change is achieved, homeostasis is not restored
when the system moves back to the set point in response to perturbance, homeostasis is restored
Many signaling molecules, receptors and pathways are similar in all living organisms. This suggests...
the organisms all share a common ancestor that passed down effective signaling mechanisms
all organisms evolved their own signaling pathways separately
the pathways that were passed down are highly conserved because they were not effective
The image above shows...
crossing over that occurs during prophase I
crossing over that occurs during prophase II
independent assortment during metaphase I
segregation of chromosomes during anaphase I
what is the expected phenotypic ratio from a cross between two individuals heterozygous for a single trait?
3:1
1:1
1:3
4:0
what phenotypic ratio is expected from a cross between two individuals heterozygous for two traits?
9:3:3:1
1:1:1:1
2:2:2:6
1:2:3:6
Where do males inherit x-linked traits from?
mother
father
sister
aunt
What caused the chromosomal anomaly in the karyotype?
nondisjunction during meiosis
mutation during meiosis
error in replication during interphase
incomplete cytokinesis
Which best explains the inheritance of mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA?
they are both inherited from the ovule in plants
they are both inherited from the pollen and plants
the mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA in offspring are a combination of DNA from the ovule and pollen
What type of inheritance is shown in the pedigree?
autosomal recessive
x-linked recessive
autosomal dominant
mitochondrial
What type of inheritance is shown by the pedigree?
x-linked recessive
autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant
mitochondrial
What type of inheritance is shown by the pedigree?
x-linked recessive
autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant
mitochondrial
What type of inheritance is shown by the pedigree?
x-linked dominant
autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant
mitochondrial
What type of inheritance is shown by the pedigree?
x-linked dominant
autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant
mitochondrial
Looking at the image, which answer correctly describes the chromosome number throughout meiosis?
2n, 2n, 2n, n
n, 2n, n, 1/2 n
n, 2n, n, n
2n, 2n, n, n
If you want to know the probability of event A AND event B occurring at the same time...
multiply the probability of event A and event B
divide the probability of event A and event B
subtract the probability of event A and event B
add the probability of event A and event B
If you want to know the probability of event A OR event B occurring ...
multiply the probability of event A and event B
divide the probability of event A and event B
subtract the probability of event A and event B
add the probability of event A and event B
What degrees of freedom would you use for the following chi-square set up?
3
2
1
4
If your chi-square value is less than the critical value...
fail to reject null
reject null
If your chi-square value is greater than the critical value...
fail to reject null
reject null
Which offspring are recombinant?
gray normal, black vestigial
gray normal, gray vestigial
gray vestigial, black normal
black vestigial, black normal
How many map units are between the genes for body color and wing type?
17
34
9
16
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
A and G
W and E
A and W
E and G
What is the correct order of the genes on the chromosome?
g and c 9% recombination frequency
g and l 17% recombination frequency
l and c 9.5% recombination frequency
gcl
lgc
clg
clc
What is the probability that offspring will have the genotype AaGgcc when parental cross is AAGgcc x AaGgcc?
1/4
1/8
1
0
In hydrangeas, flower color can be altered by the pH of the soil. This is an example of...
environment affecting gene expression
synapsis
polygenic inheritance
independent assortment
Why are males more likely to inherit x-linked recessive traits?
They only have one copy of every gene on their X chromosome, their other sex chromosome is s Y
They have two X chromosomes, which masks the dominant allele
They have no X chromosomes
part of their X chromosome is deleted during embryonic development
What inheritance pattern does the white-eyed trait display in fruit flies?
x-linked recessive
autosomal dominant
autosomal recessive
mitochondrial
What is the end result of meiosis?
4 haploid (n) gametes
2 diploid (2n) somatic cells
4 diploid (2n) gametes
2 haploid (n) somatic cells
What is the end result of meiosis?
the daughter cells produced have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
the daughter cells produced have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell
the daughter cells produced have double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
Which is unique to meiosis and does not occur in mitosis?
homologous chromosomes separate
sister chromatids separate
errors can occur
DNA replication prior to division
Which occurs in both mitosis and meiosis?
homologous chromosomes separate
sister chromatids separate
crossing over
the number of chromosomes is halved
If a diploid cell (2n) in an organism has 56 chromosomes, how many in a sex cell (n) in the same organism?
56
112
28
14
Huntington's is a dominant autosomal disorder. If one parent is heterozygous and has Huntington's and the other parent does not have Huntington's what is the probability that their first and second child will both not have the disorder?
1/4
1/8
1/64
1
In pea plants, purple flower color (P) is dominant to white flower color (p) and Round seed shape (R) is dominant to wrinkled seed shape (r).
A cross between two parents yields a 9:3:3:1 ratio of purple/round, purple/wrinkled, white/round, and white/wrinkled plants
What were the parental genotypes?
PPRr x ppRr
PpRr x PpRr
PpRR x Pprr
ppRr x PpRr
If two parents with the dominant phenotype produce a child with the recessive phenotype, what are their genotypes?
heterozygous
homozygous dominant
homozygous recessive
hemizygous dominant
In order for a child to inherit a dominant trait, what must be true?
both parents must have at least one dominant allele
one parent must have at least one dominant allele
both parents are heterozygous
the parents have no dominant alleles
If a child inherits a mitochondrial disorder, what must be true?
the mother also has the disorder
the father also has the disorder
none of their siblings will inherit the disorder
only males will inherit the disorder
If recombination occurs with low frequency between two genes, what is the most likely reason?
the genes are linked and located close together on the same chromosome
the genes are unlinked and located close together on the same chromosome
the genes are linked and located on separate chromosomes
the genes are unlinked and located on separate chromosomes
If a chi-square analysis reveals that ratios predicted by Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment are not significantly different from observed values, what can be concluded?
the genes are linked and located on separate chromosomes
the genes are unlinked and located on separate chromosomes
the genes are linked and located close together on the same chromosome
the genes are unlinked and located close together on the same chromosome
