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Final Exam Review

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
2.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
3.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
4.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
5.
Which threat to biodiversity is being displayed?
a)
overexploitation
b)
invasive species
c)
pollution
d)
habitat fragmentation
6.
Species that could become endangered in the near future are called
a)
unlucky
b)
extinct
c)
endangered
d)
threatened
7.
The sea otter is a(n) ___________ that influences the survival of many other species in its ecosystem.
a)
Cute furry creature
b)
endangered species
c)
keystone species
d)
important animal
8.
Which of these would NOT be true of a specialist species?
a)
They are more likely to go extinct during changes to an ecosystem. 
b)
They have a very narrow niche.
c)
They often lose in competition for resources to generalists. 
d)
They often feed on a very specific diet. 
9.
Introduced or invasive species are often difficult because:
a)
They contribute to habitat fragmentation
b)
They do not adapt well to new environments
c)
They increase biodiversity
d)
They often lack natural predators
10.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
11.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
12.
Represents the biotic potential of the species
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
13.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
14.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
15.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
16.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

17.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
18.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.

Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.

a)

Intraspecific Competition

b)

Mutualsim

c)

Predation

d)

Commensalism

e)

Interspecific Competition

20.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

21.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

22.

Population increases at a constant rate over time.

a)

Exponential Growth

b)

Logistic Growth

c)

Stable Growth

d)

Strategic Growth

23.

An island is any ____ habitat surrounded by ________

a)

suitable - unsuitable habitat

b)

land - water

c)

small lfragment land - water

d)

unsuitable - suitable habitat

24.

Generally, ______ islands have _______ number of species

a)

far - fewer

b)

far - more

c)

close - fewer

25.
Two savanna communities both contain 15 plant species. In community A, each of the 15 species is represented by 20 individuals. In community B, 10 of the species are each represented by 12 individuals; the remaining 5 species are each represented by 3 individuals. Which statement best describes the two communities?
a)
Community A has the same biodiversity as community B
b)
Both communities have the same species evenness
c)
Community B has a higher species richness
d)
Community A has higher species evenness
26.
Which is NOT a factor in the theory of island biogeography?
a)
Islands farther from the continent have more species due to increased speciation
b)
dispersing species are more likely to find a large habitat
c)
islands can also be isolated areas within a continent
d)
larger habitats contain a larger range of environmental conditions
27.

You are on a town committee formed to determine the borders for a new local nature park. You explain that according to the theory of island biogeography, if the committee wishes to promote species richness it should

a)

II only

b)

III only

c)

I and II

d)

I, II, and III

28.
Ecosystem services
a)
are the processes by which life-supporting resources are produced.
b)
indicate the current state of the environment.
c)
are valued for their beauty.
d)
refer to abiotic features of the environment.
29.

The aesthetic value of an ecosystem provides

a)

a supporting service.

b)

a regulating service.

c)

an intrinsic value.

d)

a cultural service.

30.

A(n) ______ in species diversity is associated with a(n) ________ in the functions an ecosystem provides.

a)

increase; decrease

b)

decrease; increase

c)

decrease; unobserved change

d)

decline; decline

31.

Which is NOT one of the five ecosystem services that are used to calculate instrumental value?

a)

species biodiversity

b)

resilience

c)

support systems

d)

regulating services

32.

Human waste is often dumped in the ocean. Microbial organisms in marine ecosystems can break down organic waste into less harmful components. This is an example of

a)

a cultural service.

b)

an ecosystem provision.

c)

a regulating service.

d)

an intrinsic value.

33.

Products obtained from nature that humans can use such as lumber, medicines and food crops are

a)

ecological benefits.

b)

provisions.

c)

supplies.

d)

services.

34.

What prediction is correct about island biogeography?

a)

Smaller islands have more resources, and will have more biodiversity

b)

Larger islands have more space for resources, but will have less biodiversity due to competition

c)

Islands closer to mainland will be more diverse due to more successful dispersal.

d)

There is more diversity far away from the mainland because some species fly.

35.

Which of the following is true about island biodiversity?

a)

Small islands are more likely to have more immigrated species

b)

Small islands have higher biodiversity than large islands

c)

Small islands have more resources and as a result may have more species

d)

Small islands have fewer resources and as a result may have fewer species

36.

The theory of island biogeography suggests that species richness is affected by which of the following factors?


I. island distance from mainland

II. how the island is formed

III. island size

a)

II only

b)

III only

c)

I and III

d)

II and III

37.

Various sources of pollution and energy have entered the biosphere as a result of human activities. Collectively, we call these _______________ sources.

a)

Anthropogenic

b)

Natural

c)

Industrial

d)

Gas-based

38.

The portion of a fundamental niche that is fully utilized by a species is a _______________.

a)

Vertical niche

b)

Realized niche

c)

Consumer niche

d)

Regulated niche

39.

Which of the following is true about island biodiversity?

a)

Small islands are more likely to have more immigrated species

b)

Small islands have more biodiversity

c)

Small islands have more species

d)

Small islands have less resources

40.

An optimum range is

a)

A threat to an organism

b)

An organism's niche

c)

An organism's comfort zone

d)

An organism's species richness

41.

Jay has 3 green marbles, 4 red skittles, and 5 twix. What is the species richness?

a)

3

b)

12

c)

1.5

d)

0.50

42.

What is genetic diversity?

a)

Diversity within a species

b)

# of species and abundance in the community

c)

How many different habitats are in a region

43.

What is habitat diversity?

a)

Diversity within a species

b)

# of species and abundance in the community

c)

How many different habitats are in a region

44.

What is species diversity?

a)

Diversity within a species

b)

# of species and abundance in the community

c)

How many different habitats are in a region

45.

Factors that limit a species from growing out of control.

a)

Environmental resistance

b)

Biotic potential

c)

Host Parasites

d)

Relationships

46.

What is a change brought about by a physical, chemical, or biological agent that impacts population size or community structure?

a)

resistance

b)

stability

c)

disturbance

d)

resilience

47.

What is the ability of an ecosystem to recover after it has undergone a disturbance?

a)

resistance

b)

stability

c)

disturbance

d)

resilience

48.

Which of the following are examples of natural disturbances? (Select ALL that apply!)

a)

tornado

b)

tsunami

c)

volcano

d)

earthquake

e)

urbanization

49.

what is a water shed

a)

an aquifer.

b)

water stored under ground used for drinking

c)

an area or ridge of land that separates waters flowing to different rivers, basins, or seas.

50.
Which is NOT true about disturbances?
a)
they are caused by natural events such as hurricanes
b)
they occur only on short time scales
c)
they can cause complete destruction of an ecosystem
d)
many result in no change in ecosystem productivity
51.

The intermediate disturbance hypothesis theory states that intermediate levels of disturbance will

a)

increase runoff

b)

increase ecosystem nutrient cycling

c)

decrease primary productivity

d)

increase species diversity

52.
Which is a measure of how much a disturbance can affect the flow of energy and matter in an ecosystem?
a)
Diversity
b)
Intensity
c)
Resistance
d)
Resilience
53.

Phylogenetic trees show...

a)

Evolutionary relationships between different species

b)

How one species has evolved through time

c)

Which species has evolved the most

d)

Which species have evolved from other species

54.

Human activities such as the ____ release large amounts of Carbon into our atmosphere.

a)

Burning of fossil fuels

b)

burning of wood

c)

use of synthetic fertilizers

d)

use of detergents

55.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles does not have an atmospheric phase?

a)

Hydrolic Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Sulfur Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

e)

Phosphorous Cycle

56.

Energy enters a system as sunlight and a producer is able to produce 10 kilograms of tissue. If eaten, the producer would produce about ___ kilograms of a consumer tissue that would provide about ____ kilograms of tissue for a secondary consumer

a)

100; 10

b)

10; 1

c)

100; 1

d)

1; 0.1

57.

Productivity in an ecosystem has to do with

a)

Efficiency of its primary producers

b)

The number of different species living in the ecosystem

c)

Its longevity

d)

Its rate of producing biomass

58.

An ecosystem consists of

a)

A physical environment within which a biological community lives

b)

The species with which a biological community interacts

c)

A biological community and its physical environment

d)

the primary producers within a biological community

59.

The length and complexity of a food web in the Arctic would be ____ when compared to one in the tropical rainforest.

a)

Short and less complex

b)

short and more complex

c)

long and less complex

d)

long and more complex

60.

Producers rely on _____ to release chemical energy and consumers rely on ____ to release chemical energy.

a)

Cellular Respiration; photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration; cellular respiration

c)

photosynthesis; cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis; photosynthesis

61.

Ecologists study....

a)

Living things and their genetic makeup

b)

Genetic Patterns and the chemistry in them

c)

The physical world and its processes

d)

Relationships between organisms and their environment

62.

In the Nitrogen cycle, what is one Natural way that Nitrogen gets into our soil?

a)

Fertilizers

b)

Human Waste through septic tanks

c)

Decomposing animals

d)

Industrial waste

63.

In the _____, there is no wet/dry season. But we do see more lower plants with a thicker epidermis..

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal

c)

Savanna

d)

Desert

e)

Taiga

64.

There are less nutrient rich soils in the Rain Forest due to the dense tree canopy and water runoff.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

We see saltier soils due to the evaporation rate in which biome?

a)

Forest

b)

Grasslands

c)

Tundras

d)

Deserts

66.

Which biome has the lowest average Temperature, and the lowest Precipitation?

a)

Tundra

b)

Savanna

c)

Rainforest

d)

Taiga

67.

Select the two characteristics that determine which type of biome an ecosystem is.

a)

Climate

b)

Temperature

c)

Elevation

d)

Precipitation

68.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a state factor for a biome?

a)

Human Interaction

b)

Forest Fires

c)

Topography

d)

Biomass

69.

Which is the only biogeochemical cycle that doesn't occur in our atmosphere?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon

70.

Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor?

a)

Temperature

b)

Light

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Population

e)

Water

71.

Intraspecific Competition is between the same species. true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Diurnal and Nocturnal creatures share their resources through the use of which of the following processes?

a)

Competition

b)

Resource Partitioning

c)

Different trophic levels

d)

Coevolution

73.

In a food pyramid, which organism can be found on the bottom?

a)

Primary Consumers

b)

producers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Herbivores

74.

One species benefits and the other is not affected is an example of which symbiotic relationship?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

75.

Human activities such as the ____ release large amounts of Carbon into our atmosphere.

a)

Burning of fossil fuels

b)

burning of wood

c)

use of synthetic fertilizers

d)

use of detergents

76.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles does not have an atmospheric phase?

a)

Hydrolic Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Sulfur Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

e)

Phosphorous Cycle

77.

Exemplified by bees consuming nectar and carrying pollen from one flower to another

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

e)

Competition

78.

Exemplified by starlings displacing bluebirds from nesting sites

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

e)

Competition

79.

Exemplified by ticks feeding on a deer

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

e)

Competition

80.

Exemplified by tree frogs using plants as protection with no benefit or harm coming to that plant.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

e)

Competition

81.

Which of the following best describes a symbiotic relationship?

a)

Striped bass and bluefish eat the same variety of mackerel.

b)

Intestinal bacteria inhabit the gut of humans.

c)

Mountain lions feed on white-tailed deer.

d)

Marsupial animals carry their young in a pouch

82.

The underlying subsoil of this biome is permafrost, which prevents both water draining through and deep-rooted plants from growing. Additionally, there is very little precipitation per year.

a)

Temperate grassland

b)

Taiga/Boreal Forest

c)

Tundra

d)

Tropical Rainforest

83.

Which of the following is a characteristic of tropical rain forests?

a)

They rarely receive more than 100 centimeters of rain per year.

b)

Their soils typically have a high pH

c)

They do not exhibit a great deal of species diversity

d)

Their soils are relatively poor in nutrients

84.

Which environment is characterized by the highest diversity of tree species?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

85.

Which environment is characterized by relatively even temperatures throughout the year and little rainfall?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

86.

Which environment is has permafrost as an underlying subsoil?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

87.

Looking at the graphs, how can you tell that C is in the southern hemisphere?

a)

It has a relatively even temperature throughout the year.

b)

It has a larger amount of precipitation that occurs in June and July

c)

The ratio of the temperature to precipitation indicated a southern climate.

d)

A larger amount of precipitation that occurs in January and December

88.

This biome is characterized by long dry seasons and is dominated by grasses, shrubs, and grazing animals.

a)

Savanna

b)

Boreal

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Grassland

89.

The location of the greatest remaining natural biodiversity

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

90.

This freshwater biome is characterized by fast-flowing water that can originate from underground springs or runoff, which carries sediment and organic material.

a)

Coral Reefs

b)

Rivers

c)

Freshwater Wetlands

d)

Open ocean

91.

This biome is considered to have the lowest primary productivity.

a)

Open ocean

b)

Wetlands

c)

Coral Reefs

d)

Rivers

92.

The two major processes involved in the nitrogen cycle are

a)

weathering and erosion

b)

erosion and deposition

c)

evaporation and transpiration

d)

photosynthesis and respiration

e)

fixation and denitrification

93.

Select the choice that best fits each statement.

Plant roots absorb ammonium ions and nitrate ions for use in making molecules such as DNA, amino acids, and proteins.

a)

Denitrification

b)

Assimilation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Nitrogen fixation

94.

What is the main difference between phosphorus and the other major cycles?

a)

Phosphorus exists in elemental form

b)

Phosphorus does not have an atmospheric component

c)

The phosphorus cycle occurs very rapidly

d)

Phosphorus is not needed for life

95.

Which letter correctly identifies a process of the hydrologic cycle in which the phase of water is changed from a liquid to a gas?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

96.

The process in the hydrologic cycle in which water vapor is released from leaves into the atmosphere is called

a)

Transpiration

b)

Precipitation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Condensation

97.

Of the following organisms, which occupies the lowest trophic level?

a)

Deer

b)

Spider

c)

Lion

d)

Snake

98.

In a given ecosystem, producers convert solar energy into 15,000kcal of chemical energy stored in organic compounds. Which of the following is the most likely amount of energy available to primary consumers?

a)

1.5 Kcal

b)

150 kcal

c)

1,500 kcal

d)

13,500 kcal

99.

Select the choice that best fits each statement.

An energy transformation occurs and results in increased disorder.

a)

Potential energy

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

First Law of Thermodynamics

d)

Second Law of Thermodynamics

100.

Which of the following best describes the net primary productivity of an ecosystem?

a)

Net primary productivity is the amount of energy captured by producers through photosynthesis over time.

b)

Net primary productivity is the amount of energy lost by producers through respiration over time.

c)

Net primary productivity is the amount of energy lost through respiration by producers subtracted from the gross primary productivity of an ecosystem.

101.

The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are

a)

weathering and erosion

b)

erosion and deposition

c)

evaporation and transpiration

d)

photosynthesis and respiration

e)

fixation and denitrification

102.

Exponential population growth can be described as

a)

growth when resources are limited

b)

a j-shaped curve

c)

a s-shaped curve

d)

growth that reaches carrying capacity

103.

Logistic population growth can be described as

a)

growth when resources are limited

b)

a s-shaped curve

c)

reaching carrying capacity

d)

all of the above

104.

Which country will have the most rapid population growth?

a)

Sweeden

b)

United States

c)

Mexico

d)

None

105.

Density-independent limiting factors to population growth includes

a)

stress from overcrowding

b)

parasitism

c)

competition

d)

natural disasters

106.

Exponential Growth occurs when-

a)

populations have plenty of food/space

b)

home to keystone species

c)

have few evasive species in a habitat

d)

have little to no competition or predators

107.

At what population was carrying capacity met?

a)

250

b)

1000

c)

400

d)

720

108.

What limits Population Growth?

a)

birth rates increasing

b)

resources being used up

c)

natural selection taking place

d)

none of the above

109.

As resources become less available the growth of a population

a)

slows or stops

b)

decreases or increases

c)

up or down

d)

in or out

110.

What is a condition that halts population growth?

a)

limiting factors

b)

renewable resources

c)

climate

d)

conservation

111.

What could cause exponential growth in population in a community?

a)

people lifting heavy stuff

b)

a community leaving

c)

someone spreading a plague

d)

people moving to the community/unlimited resources

112.

What is a population ?

a)

Disturbance has removed vegetation but left soil intact.

b)

The natural birth, growth and development of ecosystem.

c)

All organisms of a species that live in the same area.

d)

A community of interacting organisms and their environment.

113.

occurs when population slows or stops following a period of exponential growth.

a)

no growth

b)

population growth

c)

logistic growth

d)

exponential growth

114.

Causes of death in a population may be-

a)

density dependent & density independent

b)

dispersion independent

c)

density independent

d)

independent density

115.

Three factors can affect population size

a)

births, deaths,leaves or enters population

b)

deaths, birth, buildings

c)

photosynthesis, weather, deaths

d)

houses, weather, heath

116.

Factor that causes population growth to decrease.

a)

growth factor

b)

limiting factor

c)

density factor

d)

environmental factor

117.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
118.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
119.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
120.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
121.
Which threat to biodiversity is being displayed?
a)
overexploitation
b)
invasive species
c)
pollution
d)
habitat fragmentation
122.
Species that could become endangered in the near future are called
a)
unlucky
b)
extinct
c)
endangered
d)
threatened
123.
The sea otter is a(n) ___________ that influences the survival of many other species in its ecosystem.
a)
Cute furry creature
b)
endangered species
c)
keystone species
d)
important animal
124.
Which of these would NOT be true of a specialist species?
a)
They are more likely to go extinct during changes to an ecosystem. 
b)
They have a very narrow niche.
c)
They often lose in competition for resources to generalists. 
d)
They often feed on a very specific diet. 
125.
Introduced or invasive species are often difficult because:
a)
They contribute to habitat fragmentation
b)
They do not adapt well to new environments
c)
They increase biodiversity
d)
They often lack natural predators
126.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
127.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
128.
Represents the biotic potential of the species
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
129.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
130.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
131.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
132.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

133.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
134.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

135.

Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.

a)

Intraspecific Competition

b)

Mutualsim

c)

Predation

d)

Commensalism

e)

Interspecific Competition

136.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

137.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

138.

Population increases at a constant rate over time.

a)

Exponential Growth

b)

Logistic Growth

c)

Stable Growth

d)

Strategic Growth

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