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Anatomy & Physiology Midterm Practice Exam

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Anatomy is the study of the ________ of the body.

a)

Structure

b)

Function

c)

Color

d)

Height

2.

Which list shows the correct order of the levels of organization (smallest to largest)?

a)

Atom > Organelle > Organ

b)

Atom > Cell > Macromolecule

c)

Organelle > Organ > Tissue

d)

Macromolecule > Atom > Organism

3.

Which is the monomer of lipids?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Nucleotides

4.

What are the 4 nucleotides in DNA?

a)

A, L, K, P

b)

A, T, C, G

c)

A, U, C, G

d)

A, T, C, P

5.

What macromolecule is never broken down for energy?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

6.

Which of the following is an example of a protein?

a)

Steroids

b)

Glucose

c)

Enzymes

d)

Glycogen

7.

What is it called when an enzyme’s active site gets deformed and loses its shape?

a)

Denaturalization

b)

Decomposition

c)

Denaturation

d)

Decrease

8.

Lactase, an enzyme, functions to break down what?

a)

Glucose

b)

Lactose

c)

Galactose

d)

Fructose

9.

Which organelle is responsible for lipid synthesis?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

10.

Which aspect of the cell functions to increase the surface area to maximize absorption?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Microvilli

d)

Nucleus

11.

The Golgi apparatus interacts with proteins in all the following ways EXCEPT…

a)

Modification

b)

Packaging

c)

Transport

d)

Synthesis

12.

What is the function of lysosomes?

a)

The cell’s digestive system

b)

Cell motility

c)

Lipid synthesis

d)

Transport materials

13.

What phase in the cell cycle immediately follows telophase?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Anaphase

14.

Which phase of the cell cycle is the longest?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

15.

How are proteins shipped out of the cell after they are made?

a)

Through endocytosis using vesicles

b)

Through exocytosis using vesicles

c)

Through diffusion using vesicles

d)

They are not ever shipped out of the cell

16.

What is the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?

a)

DNA → RNA → Proteins

b)

RNA → DNA → Proteins

c)

Proteins → DNA → RNA

d)

Proteins → RNA → DNA

17.

Stem cells undergo a process called _______ where they specialize into different cells.

a)

Specialization

b)

Differentiation

c)

Stem Cell Change

d)

Transformation

18.

Muscle cells require a lot of energy, so they have many _________.

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Vesicles

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Microvilli

19.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the skeletal system?

a)

Ligaments

b)

Cartilage

c)

Tendons

d)

Smooth muscle

20.

If you put your hand on something hot, which system would process and respond to that sensory information?

a)

Skeletal System

b)

Immune System

c)

Nervous System

d)

Respiratory System

21.

If you have kidney failure, what process might your body have difficulty conducting?

a)

Movement

b)

Producing hormones

c)

Maintaining water balance

d)

Reproducing

22.

Which of the following is a part of the endocrine system?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Nerves

c)

Tendons

d)

Lymph nodes

23.

What order does a feedback loop function in primarily?

a)

Stimulus → Effector → Receptor → Response

b)

Stimulus → Receptor → Effector → Response

c)

Effector → Receptor → Stimulus → Response

d)

Effector → Stimulus → Response → Receptor

24.

Which step in the feedback loop causes the response to the change?

a)

Stimulus

b)

Effector

c)

Response

d)

Receptor

25.

Blood clotting is an example of what type of feedback loop?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

d)

Zero

26.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a negative feedback loop?

a)

Temperature

b)

Heart rate

c)

Glucose levels

d)

Birthing babies

27.

Which process uses a transport protein to help molecules pass through the membrane?

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Simple Diffusion

d)

Exocytosis

28.

What is it called when there is more solute outside vs. inside the cell and water moves out causing the cell to shrink?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Hydrotonic

29.

Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

a)

Protein Pump

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Exocytosis

30.

Neurons sending out neurotransmitters is an example of _________.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Osmosis

c)

Passive Transport

d)

Exocytosis

31.

In cell signaling, which step immediately follows signal transduction?

a)

Signal

b)

Receptor

c)

Response

d)

Signal Receiving

32.

Endocrine signalling occurs when…

a)

A cell signals itself

b)

A cell signals distant cells

c)

A cell signals nearby cells

d)

A cell signals no other cells

33.

What type of signalling is occurring when you relax your muscles?

a)

Autocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Endocrine

d)

Muscarine

34.

Intracellular receptors often receive what type of signal?

a)

Nonpolar

b)

Polar

c)

Large

d)

They don’t receive any signals because they are inside the cell

35.

The axial part of the body includes all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Head

b)

Neck

c)

Limbs

d)

Trunk

36.

What is the opposite directional term of caudal?

a)

Inferior

b)

Superior

c)

Proximal

d)

Superficial

37.

Your hand being further away from your shoulder than your elbow can be described as your hand is ______ to your elbow.

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Medial

d)

Deep

38.

If someone gets a paper cut on their left thumb, which of the following would not be an accurate description of the injury?

a)

The injury is proximal to the elbow

b)

The injury is medial to the heart

c)

The injury is lateral to the stomach

d)

The injury is superior to the shoulders

39.

The ______ body plane divides the body into left and right sections.

a)

Frontal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Transverse

d)

Cross Section

40.

Which body plane can also be referred to as coronal?

a)

Frontal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Transverse

d)

Midsagittal

41.

What are "rooms" within the body that house organs?

a)

Body Planes

b)

Anatomical Positions

c)

Body Cavities

d)

Organelles

42.

Which body cavity is NOT included in the ventral cavity?

a)

Abdominal Cavity

b)

Pelvic Cavity

c)

Thoracic Cavity

d)

Dorsal Cavity

43.

In which body cavity would you find your lungs?

a)

Vertebral Cavity

b)

Dorsal Cavity

c)

Thoracic Cavity

d)

Abdominal Cavity

44.

Which of the following characterizes epithelial tissue?

a)

Regenerates easily

b)

Vascular

c)

Specialized to contract

d)

Contains neurons

45.

Where might simple columnar epithelium be found?

a)

Air sacs of lungs

b)

Kidney tubules

c)

Small intestine

d)

Trachea

46.

This image depicts which type of epithelial tissue?

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Simple cuboidal

c)

Simple columnar

d)

Pseudostratified columnar

47.

Which of the following is NOT a type of connective tissue?

a)

Bone

b)

Cartilage

c)

Smooth

d)

Loose

48.

What are the three types of cartilage we discussed?

a)

Loose areolar, loose adipose, hyaline

b)

Elastic, fibro, dense-fibrous

c)

Osseous, elastic, hyaline

d)

Fibro, elastic, hyaline

49.

What type of tissue is predominantly fat cells?

a)

Dense-Fibrous

b)

Elastic

c)

Osseous

d)

Loose Adipose

50.

Which type of connective tissue covers bone ends at joints?

a)

Loose Areolar

b)

Hyaline

c)

Elastic

d)

Blood

51.

Which tissue is also known as vascular tissue?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Blood tissue

c)

Bone tissue

d)

Loose Areolar tissue

52.

What tissue is characterized by being strong and rope-like?

a)

Bone

b)

Loose Areolar

c)

Cardiac

d)

Dense-Fibrous

53.

What is the function of loose areolar tissue?

a)

Hold internal organs together

b)

Withstand tension in one direction

c)

Cushion between vertebrae of the spinal column

d)

Form tendons

54.

Which type of muscle tissue has cells that are long, cylindrical, and multinucleate?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Rough

d)

Skeletal

55.

Muscle fibers can be found in which type of muscle tissue?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Rough

d)

Smooth

56.

Smooth muscle tissue can be found in all of the following places EXCEPT

a)

Stomach

b)

Heart wall

c)

Uterus

d)

Blood vessels

57.

Neurons transmit ________ impulses which transmit information throughout the nervous system.

a)

Electromagnetic

b)

Signal

c)

Electrochemical

d)

Nucleus

58.

The image depicts which type of tissue?

a)

Muscle tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

59.

How many bones do we have?

a)

200

b)

206

c)

190

d)

10

60.

The skeletal system functions in protection by…

a)

Guarding the body’s most vital organs

b)

Using bones as levers at joints

c)

Producing hormones such as osteocalcin

d)

Being a framework that hold up the entire body

61.

What is hematopoiesis?

a)

The process by which tendons are made

b)

The process by which bones are made

c)

The process by which nerves are made

d)

The process by which blood cells are made

62.

What color bone marrow is used to make blood cells?

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Green

63.

Which of the following is an example of a long bone?

a)

Ankles

b)

Hip Bone

c)

Arm Bone

d)

Knee Cap

64.

The sesamoid bone is a special type of ______ bone that is shaped like a sesame seed.

a)

Long

b)

Flat

c)

Irregular

d)

Short

65.

What type of bone is characterized as being thin, flat, and often having a bit of a curve?

a)

Long bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Irregular bones

d)

Short bones

66.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of compact bones?

a)

Osteons

b)

Haversian canal

c)

Trabeculae

d)

Dense

67.

What is the type of bone marking that describes where muscles and ligaments attach?

a)

Surfaces

b)

Depressions

c)

Openings

d)

Projections

68.

Which of the following bone cells is responsible for building and constructing bones?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Macrophages

69.

What is it called when bone develops by replacing cartilage?

a)

Intramembranous ossification

b)

Hematopoiesis

c)

Endochondral ossification

d)

Glycolysis

70.

If your bone wasn’t constantly being remodeled, the calcium in our bones would crystalize and make the bones ________.

a)

Stronger

b)

More brittle

c)

More white in color

d)

Calcium has no effect on the bones

71.

What is a hematoma?

a)

Something that forms due to hemorrhaged blood clots

b)

The thing that keeps the bone stable so it has time to heal itself

c)

The realignment of the broken ends of the bone

d)

A process of bone remodeling

72.

What is the correct order of bone damage and repair?

a)

Repair → Treatment → Fracture

b)

Fracture → Repair → Treatment

c)

Fracture → Treatment → Repair

d)

Treatment → Fracture → Repair

73.

In the bone repair process, what is it called when osteoblasts begin forming spongy bone and replacing the cartilaginous callus?

a)

Fibrocartilaginous callus formation

b)

Hematoma formation

c)

Reduction

d)

Bony callus formation

74.

What is the meeting place between two or more bones called?

a)

Tendon

b)

Osteogenesis

c)

Joint

d)

Neuromuscular junction

75.

What is a slightly moving joint called? (its functional classification) 2.2 Movement & Joint Classification Quizlet

a)

Synarthroses joint

b)

Amphiarthrosis joint

c)

Diarthroses joint

d)

Synovial joint

76.

Which of the following classifications accurately describes your knee joint? 2.2 Movement & Joint Classification Quizlet

a)

Synarthroses & Synovial

b)

Amphiarthrosis & Cartilaginous

c)

Diathrosis & Synovial

d)

Synathroses & Fibrous

77.

Synchondrosis (ex. between the sternum and the rib) and symphysis (ex. between intervertebral discs) joints are sub-types of which type of joint? 2.2 Movement & Joint Classification Quizlet 9/24&25 Bellringer

a)

Fibrous joints

b)

Synovial joints

c)

Saddle joints

d)

Cartilaginous joints

78.

Which of the following is NOT a special feature of synovial joints? 2.2 Movement & Joint Classification Quizlet

a)

Joint cavity

b)

Joint capsule

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Sutures

79.

Your intercarpal joints (in wrists) and intertarsal joints (in ankle) are examples of which synovial joint configuration? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet

a)

Gliding

b)

Hinge

c)

Pivot

d)

Condylar

80.

When you are doing a bicep curl and you are bending your arm in a way that decreases the angle of your elbow joint, what are you doing? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet 2.2 Knowledge Check

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Supination

d)

Pronation

81.

What is abduction? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet 2.2 Knowledge Check

a)

Moving a limb towards the median plane, along the frontal plane

b)

Turning or twisting forward

c)

Extending beyond the anatomical position

d)

Moving a limb away from the median plane, along the frontal plane

82.

What is an example of a pivot joint? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet

a)

The wrist

b)

The thumb

c)

The elbow

d)

The hip

83.

Which of the following is NOT a synovial joint configuration we talked about? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet

a)

Gomphoses

b)

Saddle

c)

Ball and socket

d)

Pivot

84.

When you are shrugging your shoulders (lifting then lowering a body part superiorly), what type of movement are you doing? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet

a)

Protraction and retraction

b)

Elevation and depression

c)

Inversion and eversion

d)

Circumduction

85.

What is an example of dorsiflexion and plantar flexion? 2.2 Joint Configurations Quizlet

a)

Sticking your jaw out (to make an underbite) and back in

b)

Turning your foot inward (to be pigeon toed) and outward

c)

Lifting your foot up and down at the ankle

d)

Moving your arm in a circle

86.

What type of muscle contraction causes a change in the length of the muscles? 2.2 Muscle Contractions Quizlet 2.2 Knowledge Check

a)

Isotonic

b)

Insertion

c)

Isometric

d)

Origin

87.

What is the origin point of a muscle contraction? 2.2 Muscle Contractions Quizlet

a)

Where the muscle connects to the bone that moves a lot

b)

Where the muscle connects to the bone that moves very little or not at all

c)

Where the muscle connects to another muscle

88.

Muscles always ________ and never ________.

a)

Push ; Pull

b)

Relax ; Contract

c)

Rebuild ; Breakdown

d)

Pull ; Push

89.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?

a)

Movement

b)

Maintaining posture

c)

Destabilizing joints

d)

Generating heat

90.

What is another word that means the same thing as agonists?

a)

Antagonists

b)

Synergists

c)

Fixators

d)

Prime movers

91.

Muscles that oppose or do the reverse of a certain movement are called what?

a)

Antagonists

b)

Fixators

c)

Agonists

d)

Prime movers

92.

Muscles that immobilize the muscle’s origin bone to increase the prime mover’s effectiveness are called what?

a)

Antagonists

b)

Fixators

c)

Agonists

d)

Prime movers

93.

What muscle tissue is primarily found attached to bones?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Rough

d)

Skeletal

94.

Myofibrils are subdivided lengthwise into __________, which are the contractile unit of the muscle.

a)

Muscle fibers

b)

Fascicles

c)

Sarcomeres

d)

Sarcolemma

95.

What is the correct order of the part of skeletal muscle from biggest to smallest?

a)

Fascicles > muscle fibers > myofibril > actin

b)

Muscle > myofibril > fascicles > muscle fibers

c)

Myofibril > fascicles > actin > muscle

d)

Actin > muscle > fascicles > muscle fibers

96.

What is the type of connective tissue that wraps around the entire outside of the muscle?

a)

Perimysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Endomysium

d)

Fascicles

97.

Each sarcomere is separated by ________ borders on each end.

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Muscle fibers

d)

Z disc

98.

What is it called when muscles contract because myofilaments slide past one another?

a)

Sliding filament model

b)

Shortening filament model

c)

Sliding striated model

d)

There’s no official name for this process

99.

Myosin needs what two things to grab onto actin and cause muscle contraction?

a)

Access and tropomyosin

b)

Energy and ATP

c)

Energy and access

d)

Calcium and access

100.

What is the regulatory protein that is acting like a “stop sign” blocking actin called?

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Phosphate

d)

Calcium

101.

What ion that we talked about is involved in granting myosin access to actin?

a)

Phosphate ( PO43−PO_4^{3-} )

b)

Calcium ( Ca2+Ca^{2+} )

c)

Chloride ( Cl−Cl^{-} )

d)

Nitrate ( NO3−NO_3^{-} )

102.

To get energy, myosin breaks ATP down into ______ and phosphate.

a)

AGP

b)

ACT

c)

ALP

d)

ADP

103.

The neurotransmitter that motor neurons use in muscle contraction is called what?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Endorphins

104.

Which of the following bones is NOT a part of the skull?

a)

Temporal

b)

Frontal

c)

Radius

d)

Mandible

105.

The femur is a part of which group of bones?

a)

Skull

b)

Ribs

c)

Vertebrae

d)

Lower limbs

106.

Which of the following bones is found in the upper limbs?

a)

Ulna

b)

Patella

c)

Tibia

d)

Sternum

107.

Your quadriceps are in what section of your body?

a)

Face

b)

Upper limbs

c)

Lower limbs

d)

Chest

108.

Which of the following muscles is NOT found in your upper limbs?

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Triceps brachii

d)

Brachialis

109.

What system is known as the ultimate control center of the body?

a)

Endocrine System

b)

Circulatory System

c)

Nervous System

d)

Reproductive System

110.

What is the correct order of how stimuli are received by the body and then processed to cause a response?

a)

Sensory Input → Integration → Motor Output

b)

Integration → Sensory Input → Motor Output

c)

Motor Output → Integration → Sensory Input

d)

Integration → Motor Output → Sensory Input

111.

The step in the nervous system process that activates effector organs to cause a response is called what?

a)

Sensory Input

b)

Motor Output

c)

Integration

d)

There is no step that activated effector organs to cause a response

112.

Neurons are also called what?

a)

Soma

b)

Myelin Sheath

c)

Nerve Cells

d)

Glands

113.

Dendrites and axon can be categorized as what?

a)

Processes

b)

Ganglion

c)

Nodes of Ranvier

d)

Neuroglia

114.

What part of the neuron releases neurotransmitters and is also known as the secretory region?

a)

Ganglion

b)

Myelin Sheath

c)

Soma

d)

Axon Terminal

115.

Which of the following is a structural classification of neurons?

a)

Bipolar Neurons

b)

Sensory Neurons

c)

Efferent Neurons

d)

Interneurons

116.

What classification are 99% of neurons?

a)

Bipolar

b)

Multipolar

c)

Unipolar

d)

99% of neurons cannot be accurately classified under a single classification

117.

Which of the following accurately describes interneurons?

a)

Transmit information from sensory receptors to the CNS

b)

Transport information from the CNS to the rest of the body

c)

Transport information between the sensory and motor neurons

d)

Most are structurally unipolar

118.

What does PNS stand for?

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Partner Nervous System

d)

Pluripotent Nervous System

119.

What are the two sub systems found in the motor division of the nervous system?

a)

Sensory Nervous System and Somatic Nervous System

b)

Autonomic Nervous System and Central Nervous System

c)

Autonomic Nervous System and Somatic Nervous System

d)

Sensory Nervous System and Central Nervous System

120.

In the CNS, the brain is protected by all of the following EXCEPT what?

a)

Skull

b)

Meninges

c)

Cerebrospinal Fluid

d)

Vertebrae

121.

What is the largest part of the brain?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brainstem

d)

All the parts of the brain are equal in size

122.

Which part of the brain includes the medulla oblongata, midbrain, and pons?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Cerebral Cortex

123.

Which of the following is attributed to the cerebellum?

a)

Made of left and right hemispheres

b)

Coordinates automatic functions such as respiration, circulation, and sleep

c)

Maintains posture and balance

d)

Functions in learning, speech, emotion, reasoning, vision, and hearing

124.

Which part of the brain is the arrow in the image pointing to?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Vertebrae

125.

The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released in order to stimulate muscle contractions. Which area of the nervous system is responsible for releasing acetylcholine in addition to using somatic motor nerve fibers to control other movements in the body?

a)

Autonomic Nervous System

b)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

c)

Sympathetic Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

126.

Which of the following options is the correct pairing of the type of nerve and the system it is most commonly found in?

a)

Parasympathetic & Craniosacral Nerves

b)

Motor Division & Sensory Nerve Fibers

c)

Sensory Division & Thoracolumbar Nerves

d)

Sympathetic & Craniosacral Nerves

127.

Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of the sympathetic system?

a)

The “fight or flight” division

b)

Amps you up

c)

Maintains your body and conserves energy for later

d)

Ganglia are found in the spinal cord and send signals far distances to effector organs

128.

Which of the following receptors senses pain?

a)

Thermoreceptors

b)

Photoreceptors

c)

Chemoreceptors

129.

What is a reflex?

a)

The site of a stimulus

b)

An automatic reaction to stimuli

c)

A type of receptor

d)

A part of the neuron structure

130.

Lifting your foot up when you step on something sharp is an example of what type of reflex?

a)

Innate

b)

Learned

c)

Acquired

d)

It is not a reflex

131.

In a reflex arc, what step decodes the signal at a synapse or multiple synapses?

a)

Receptor

b)

Sensory Neuron

c)

Integration Center

d)

Motor Neuron

132.

Which of the following descriptions regarding nerves is correct?

a)

Cranial nerves arise in the spinal cord

b)

Cranial nerves arise in the brain

c)

Spinal nerves arise in the brain

d)

There are 12 pairs of spinal nerves

133.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

a)

31

b)

12

c)

18

d)

206

134.

Which of the following senses can be classified as a general (somatic) sense?

a)

Vision

b)

Smell

c)

Touch

d)

Hearing

135.

What is the dominant sense in humans?

a)

Vision

b)

Hearing

c)

Smell

d)

Touch

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