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Biology Exam 1-3

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 30hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The model above represents an atom of what kind or element?

a)

Zirconium

b)

Phosphorous

c)

Magnesium

d)

Calcium

2.

What kind of bond is the atom above most likely to form with another atom?

a)

Ionic

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Nonpolar covalent

d)

Ayerogen

3.

The atomic mass of this atom Is ____ a.m.u

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

4.

If this atom gained a neutron, It would be considered _____.

a)

Scandium

b)

Potassium

c)

an ion or the same atom

d)

an isotope or the same atom

5.

Which of the following statements about prokarvotes is FALSE?

a)

They are obligate single-celled organisms

b)

Their DNA is not contained in a membrane-bound nucleus.

c)

The evolved before eukaryotes

d)

Prokaryotic cells do not contain ribosomes

6.

What kind of bond is formed when two atoms share electrons equally?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bond

b)

Polar covalent bond

c)

lonic bond

d)

Hydrogen bond

7.

Which of the following statements about water is NOT true?

a)

It is essential for life and the most abundant molecule on Earth.

b)

It has a high heat capacity and therefore helps stabilize Earth's temperature.

c)

Water molecules are bound together by hydrogen bonds which allows ice to be less dense than water.

d)

It is a polar molecule, which contributes to its high surface tension.

e)

All of the above are true

8.

When an atom gains one or more electrons, it becomes a(n)_____ with a ______ charge.

a)

anion; negative

b)

anion; positive

c)

cation; negative

d)

cation: positive

e)

None of the above, atoms can't gain electrons without changing their identity.

9.

Which of the following statements is true about the functional group pictured below?

a)

This is the polar hydroxyl group. It is hydrophilic.

b)

This is the acidic carboxyl group. It is hydrophilic.

c)

This is the basic carboxyl group. It is hydrophobic.

d)

This is the nonpolar amino group. It is basic.

10.

An atom has an atomic mass of 15 amu and 8 neutrons in the nucleus. What kind of

element is this?

a)

Oxygen because there are 8 neutrons in the nucleus.

b)

Phosphorous because the atomic number is 15.

c)

Nitrogen because there are 7 protons in the nucleus.

d)

Vanadium because 15 + 8 = 23.

11.

Which of the following might be an example of a theory?

a)

Scientists develop an equation that successfully predicts the size of a crater given the size of a meteor.

b)

Scientists publish a paper analyzing the elements that make up a sample of a meteor.

c)

Scientists develop an idea about why the frequency of meteor impacts varies in a consistent pattern over decades of observation.

d)

Scientists design a spacecraft that can land on a meteor and drill into it to sample its make-up.

12.

What kind of cell is pictured below?

a)

Prokaryotic cell

b)

Eukaryotic cell

c)

Bacterial cell

d)

Archaea cell

e)

Virus

13.

The primary purpose of peer review is to ______.

a)

ensure that a scientist's research is original, significant, logical and thorough.

b)

double check every detail of a scientist's research for accuracy.

c)

share research with other scientists so they can build off of it.

d)

prevent competing labs from publishing their work first.

14.

Which of the following questions falls) outside the realm of scientific inquiry?

a)

Are vaccines effective at preventing disease?

b)

Are ghosts real?

c)

Is medieval or modern architecture more beautiful?

d)

Is it possible for humans to hybridize with other species?

e)

B and C are both questions that science cannot answer.

15.

Which of the following is the most accurate about viruses?

a)

They are not alive because they cannot carry out all of the essential functions of living things on their own.

b)

They are living things because they use the same genetic code and can reproduce.

c)

They are not alive because they can be made of RNA instead of DNA.

d)

They evolve, therefore they are living organisms.

16.

Which of the following would NOT be considered an example of an emergent property?

a)

Pack hunting behavior in a population of wolves.

b)

Flight in birds, bats, insects etc.

c)

The ability of a multicellular organism to move.

d)

Polarity in molecules

17.

Which of the following puts the levels of biological organization in correct order from least to most complex?

a)

molecules, tissues, organelles, cells

b)

Cells, organelles, organs, tissues

c)

Organs, organ systems, organisms, organelles, populations

d)

Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism

18.

If you add a base to a solution, the pH or your solution should

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

stay the same

d)

get closer to neutral

19.

If a chlorine atom has an atomic mass of 36, how many neutrons does it have?

a)

17

b)

19

c)

36

d)

72

20.

On a phylogenetic tree, the organism that is the oldest, from which all of the other organisms evolved, can be found ______.

a)

at the base

b)

at the nodes

c)

along the branches

d)

at the branch tips

21.

One of the most important qualities of Carbon is that each atom can bind with up to ______ other atoms.

a)

Two

b)

Four

c)

Six

d)

Eight

22.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the periodic table?

a)

Electronegativity increases as you move from the bottom left to the top right.

b)

The period an element is in tells you the number of electron shells an atom has.

c)

The third electron shell holds 18 electrons.

d)

The group an element belongs to tells you the number of valence electrons.

e)

All of these statements are true.

23.

Which of these levels of biological organization is the most complex?

a)

Biosphere

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Community

d)

Population

24.

What kind of cells make up the organism pictured here?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

c)

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

d)

Neither prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells

25.

A suggested explanation for an observation that is both testable and falsifiable is called ____.

a)

theory

b)

variable

c)

control

d)

Hypothesis

26.

The type of logic that predicts specific results from a general premise is called_____

a)

inductive reasoning

b)

the scientific method

c)

applied science

d)

deductive reasoning

27.

Which of the following is FALSE about science?

a)

Science aims to explain phenomena in the natural world.

b)

Although it can take a long time, science is generally self-correcting.

c)

Scientific inquiries follow the same steps in a specific order, called the scientific method

d)

Nothing is ever really considered proven in science because new data can always cause conclusions to change

28.

Which type of weak chemical bond is responsible for holding together strands of DNA?

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Van der Waals interactions

d)

Hydrogen Bond

29.

A substance that increases the concentration or hydrogen ions in a solution Is called

a)

an acid

b)

a base

c)

nonpolar

d)

ionic

30.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the molecules below?

a)

Both molecules are hydrocarbons.

b)

These molecules are structural isomers of one another.

c)

The molecular formula for both is C4H10

d)

None. All of these statements are true.

31.

Prior to DNA sequencing technologies, taxonomists classified organisms into groups primarily based on

a)

physical characteristics

b)

behavioral observations

c)

Geography

d)

the scientists that discovered them

32.

Both the unitv and diversity of life can be explained by

a)

taxonomy

b)

evolution

c)

evolution

d)

the periodic table

33.

All of the following properties are shared by all living things EXCEPT:

a)

The ability to grow

b)

The ability to reproduce

c)

The ability to move about its environment

d)

The ability to consume and process energy

34.

Which bond(s) or interaction(s) would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?

a)

Covalent bonds between Carbon atoms

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

lonic and hydrogen bonds

d)

lonic bonds

35.

A solution with a pHi of 2 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pri of 5?

a)

10 times more

b)

30 times more

c)

1000 times more

d)

3000 times more

36.

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

a)

Carbon and amino groups

b)

Hvdroxvl and carboxyl groups

c)

Amino and hvdroxy groups

d)

Amino and carboxvl groups

37.

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen!

a)

2

b)

4

c)

1

d)

6

38.

An ion with 12 proions, 14 neutrons and a charge of 2+ has an alomic number of____.

a)

14

b)

12

c)

26

d)

2

39.

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a bicarbonate ion and a hydrogen ion (as pictured below).

If the pH of your blood drops, you would expect ______

a)

The bicarbonate to act as a base and remove excess H+

b)

The bicarbonate to act as an acid and remove excess H+

c)

An increase in bicarbonate ion concentration

d)

An increase in hydrogen ion concentration

40.

Thalidomide, a drug formerly used to relieve insomnia, and now used to treat cancer, exists as two enantiomers; that is, molecules that

a)

Differ in the arrangement of atoms around a double bond.

b)

Differ in the location of their double bonds

c)

Have identical molecular formulas but are mirror images of each other.

d)

Have identical molecular formulas but differ in the branching of their carbon skeletons.

41.

Which of the following are examples of dehydration synthesis reactions?

a)

Peptide bond formation

b)

Attaching fatty acids to a glycerol backbone

c)

Splitting polysaccharides into individual sugar molecules

d)

Dephosphorylation of ATP

e)

A and B are both examples or dehydration synthesis

42.

Glycolysis provides a cell with a NET gain of

a)

2 ATP molecules

b)

4 ATP molecules

c)

18 ATP molecules

d)

36 ATP molecules

43.

Which of the following statements describes a primary function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic

acid fermentation?

a)

hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + P

b)

oxidation of NADH to NAD+

c)

reduction of NAD* to NADH

d)

reduction of FAD to FADH2

44.

The figure above depicts the synthesis of inosine monophosphate (IMP), an important precursor in

nucleotide biosynthesis. The raw starting material for this pathway is ribose 5-phosphate, which is

converted to an intermediate, PRPP. IMP inhibits the formation of PRPP.

Based on the information above, which of the following is correct?

a)

ribose 5-phosphate is the substrate, ribose-phosphate diphosphokinase is the enzyme

b)

ribose-phosphate diphosphokinase is the substrate, PRPP is the enzyme

c)

IMP is the substrate, ribose-phosphate diphosphokinase is the product

d)

This represents a negative feedback loop where the final product is able to inhibit an enzyme earlier in the pathway to regulate Its own production

e)

A and D are both correct

45.

Compare A and B in the figure above. B represents

a)

the catalvsis or the substrate

b)

the induced fit of the active site

c)

noncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme

d)

competitive inhibition of an enzyme

46.

A glycosidic linkage between monosaccharides is analogous to which of the following?

a)

A peptide bond between amino acids

b)

An ester linkage between nucleotides

c)

An ester linkage between a fatty acid and glycerol

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

47.

Which, of the following statements is FALSE about the impact of DNA mutations on proteins?

a)

Mutations that result in an amino acid with very different characteristics than the original amino acid are more likely to be deleterious for protein function.

b)

Any change in the DNA will change the shape of the protein and therefore destroy its function.

c)

Not all changes in DNA sequence will result in changes in amino acid sequence

d)

The consequence of a DNA mutation for the protein depends on the specific change that is made and where the change occurs.

e)

None of these statements are false, all of the above are true.

48.

When people lack insulin, or are resistant to its activity, they develop diabetes, or chronic high blood sugar.

This is because

a)

Insulin promotes glucose absorption from the blood by increasing the number of glucose

transporters in the membrane.

b)

Insulin is an anabelic. hormone thgt promotes the conversion of small molecules into larger

c)

Insulin promotes the breakdown of glucose through cellular respiration.

d)

A and B are both correct

49.

As a general rule of thumb, phosphorylation tends to ______ molecules because phosphate bond________a lot of energy. Therefore, ATP is ________ reacive relative to ADP

a)

destabilize; capture; more

b)

destabilize: capture: less

c)

stabilize; release; less

d)

stabilize; release; more

50.

Which of the following conditions will increase the rate of diffusion across a membrane?

a)

Increased pressure

b)

Thicker membranes

c)

Colder temperatures

d)

Dehydration

51.

Use the image above to help you answer this question. In a metabolically active mitochondrion

a)

the matrix (B) will have a higher pH than the intermembrane space (A).

b)

the matrix (B) will have a lower pH than the intermembrane space (A)

c)

the matrix B) will have a higher concentration of H* than the intermembrane space (A).

d)

both B and C are correct.

52.

Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?

a)

Phosphate bonds in ATP

b)

Sodium ions moving across the membrane down their concentration gradient

c)

Water behind a dam

d)

Water flowing in a stream

e)

Both A and C are examples of potential energy

53.

What will the mRNA sequence be for the following DNA sequence?

a)

GACTACCTG

b)

GACUACCUG

c)

CUGAUGGAC

d)

CTGATGGAC

54.

For a protein to be an integral membrane protein, It would have to be _________.

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

c)

Exposed on only one surface of the membrane

d)

Amphipathic, with at least one stretch of sequence that is hydrophobic

55.

According to the fluid mosaic model, a plasma membrane _______

a)

is composed of a mosaic of fluid polysaccharides and amphipathic proteins, with lipids attached to both surfaces

b)

is composed primarily of a fluid bilayer of phospholipids,

with some embedded amphipathic proteins as well as both proteins and polysaccharides on both surfaces

c)

is composed of a fluid lipids between two layers of hydrophilic proteins

d)

is composed of a fluid bilayer of phospholipids between two layers of hydrophilic proteins

56.

Sally has a 3 month old baby who has developed a fever of 104F. When she calls the pediatrician she advises Sally to take the Daby to the emergency room immediately. She also recommends that Sallv do things to reduce the baby s body temperature quickly such as placing a cold rag on the head and back of the neck, removing the baby's clothing and sitting in front of an air conditioner. Which of the following best explains why the doctor is so concerned about getting the baby's body temperature down quickly?

a)

The doctor is just trying to avoid having to give the baby medicine.

b)

The doctor just wants to help Sally get the baby to stop crying.

c)

Proteins are critical for carrying out nearly all cellular functions. High temperatures can denature proteins, and this is sometimes irreversible

d)

The

doctor is trying to prevent the baby's DNA from being degraded

57.

The carbon dioxide that is released into the atmosphere when animals breathe is produced during which

stages of cellular respiration?

a)

Oxidation of pyruvate and citric acid cycle

b)

GlycolvsIs and citric acid cycle

c)

glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

e)

Every stage produces caroon dioxide

58.

Which of the following is NOT a correct match between a macromolecule and the monomer that builds It!

a)

Proteins - amino acids

b)

Nucleic acids - nitrogenous acids

c)

Lipids - fatty acids

d)

Carbohydrates - monosaccharides

e)

Nucleic acids - nucleotides

59.

Which Of the following are least likely to diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane?

a)

Small hydrophobic molecules

b)

Smal ions

c)

Large polar molecules

d)

Caron dioxide

e)

Water molecules

60.

After glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the electron transport chain, most of the energy from

glucose is stored

a)

in ATP

b)

In carbon dioxide

c)

In the electron carriers, NADH and FADH2

d)

in water that has been released

61.

Cholesterol acts as a buffer for membrane fluidity. When temperatures ______, cholesterol can form additional

Interactions with phospholipids to______ fluidity.

a)

Increase: Decrease

b)

increase: Increase

c)

decrease: Increase

d)

decrease: decrease

62.

Which of the following best describes the central dogma of molecular biology?

a)

Proteins are translated into RNA which is then transcribed into DNA

b)

Proteins are transcribed into RNA which is then translated into DNA

c)

DNA is translated into RNA. which is then transcribed into

proteins.

d)

DNA and RNA form a complex that is then translated into proteins.

e)

DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into proteins

63.

Which of the following conditions will make membranes more rigid?

a)

Short fatty acid tails, more unsaturated fatty acids, and colder temperatures

b)

Short fatty acid tails. more unsaturated fatty acids, and warmer temperatures

c)

Long fatty acid tails, more unsaturated fatty acids, and warmer temperatures

d)

Long fatty acid tails, more saturated fatty acids, and colder temperatures

e)

Long fatty acid tails, more saturated fatty acids, and warmer temperatures

64.

Which of the following statements is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics for a

living organism?

a)

Organisms grow by converting energy into organic matter.

b)

An organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment.

c)

The energy content of an organism is constant because energy is simply transformed

d)

The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.

65.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about differences between RNA and DNA?

a)

DNA is a double stranded helix, while RNA is typically single stranded

b)

DNA and RNA use all the same nucleotides so that RNA can easily be made from DNA

c)

Guanine and cytosine always pair together, regardless of whether they are in DNA or KNA

d)

DNA uses deoxyribose in the sugar-phosphate backbone, while RNA uses ribose.

e)

RNA is less stable than DNA

66.

Why is ATP an important molecule In

metabolism?

a)

Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two phosphate bonds

b)

Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases Tree energy that can be coupled with endergonic reactions.

c)

ATP hydrolysis provides the primary source of heat energy that maintains our body temperature

d)

Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions

67.

Based on the figure above, which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into a cell"

a)

adding a substance that makes the membrane more permeable to hydrogen ions

b)

decreasing cytoplasmic pH

c)

decreasing extracellular sucrose concentration

d)

decreasing extracellular pH

e)

Both B and D would cause more sucrose to enter the cell

68.

Which of the following statements about the reaction depicted is FALSE?

a)

This reaction summarizes multiple metabolic pathways that are collectively called cellular respiration

b)

C6H2O6, is oxidized and O2 is reduced

c)

Approximately 30-36 ATP will be produced, depending on the species

d)

CO, Is oxidized and HO is reduced.

e)

Only part of this reaction will proceed if oxygen is not present.

69.

How many RNA nucleotides are required to create a polypeptide that is 360 amino acids long?

a)

360 nucleotides

b)

120 nucleotides

c)

90 nucleotides

d)

36 nucleotides

e)

180 nucleotides

70.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

All anabolic reactions are endergonic, but they are not all dehydration synthesis reactions.

b)

All hydrolysis reactions are catabolic and exergonic

c)

All endergonic reactions are dehydration synthesis reactions

d)

All catabolic reactions are hydrolysis reactions.

e)

A and B are both true.

71.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

4 electrons are transferred: 2 from NADH and 2 from FADH,

b)

8 H+ are pumped out into the mitochondrial intermembrane space. This sets up the H+ concentration gradient that is used to fuel AlP synthase.

c)

Oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor.

d)

2 water molecules are generated

e)

All of the above are true.

72.

Use the following information to answer the question below

Which curves on the graphs may represent the temperature and ph profiles of an enzyme taken from Natronomonas pharaonis, a species of bacterium that lives in alkaline (basic) lakes at temperatures ranging between 20-28 degrees Celsius?

a)

cures 3 and 5

b)

cures 1 and 4

c)

cures 2 and 4

d)

curves 1 and 5

73.

Which of the following statements is TRUE for endergonic reactions?

a)

Endergonic reactions are catabolic

b)

The products nave

more total enerav than the reactants, so G > 0

c)

A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed

d)

The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.

e)

B and C are both true for endergonic reactions

74.

How many molecules of water are used during the hydrolysis of a 16 monomer-long cellulose

a)

16

b)

15

c)

32

d)

8

75.

ATP provides the phosphate groups for substrate-level phosphorylation

a)

In the citric acid cvcle

b)

during oxidative phosphorylation

c)

In glycolysis

d)

In both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

76.

In the figure above. the solute cannot pass through the membrane, but water can. In this case, which direction will the water move?

a)

The water will not move as the volume is equal on both sides.

b)

The net movement of water will be from side A to side B.

c)

The net movement of water will be from side B to side A

d)

The water will move constantly between sides, but at the same rate so there is no net movement.

77.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the relationship between area A and area B in the figure

above?

a)

Side B has a higher osmolarity than side A

b)

Side A has a higher osmolarity than side B

c)

Side B is hypertonic relative to side A

d)

Both A and C are true.

e)

None of the above are true

78.

Which of the following statements about the sodium -potassium pump is FALSE?

a)

This pump is an example of a symporter because it moves two different things.

b)

It pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell for each cycle.

c)

It is an example of primarv active transport. which means it requires energy from ATP hydroysis

d)

It is electrogenic because it establishes a charge imbalance between the inside and outside of the cell

e)

It Is critical for establishing and maintaining the resting membrane potential. Neurons in particular would not unction without It.

79.

H+ ions falling down their concentration gradient to power ATP synthase Is

a)

Called chemiosmosis

b)

An example of kinetic energy

c)

The final steo in cellular respiration

d)

All Of the above are true.

e)

None of the above are true

80.

Which of the following statements about active transport is FALSE?

a)

This is the process cells use to move molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.

b)

The resting membrane potential is estaolished this wav

c)

Facilitated diffusion is an example of active transport.

d)

Bulk transport is always an active process, regardless of what is being transported or whether it is coming in or out of the cell

e)

It requires an expenditure of energy by the Cell

81.

Which of the mutations depicted above represents a nonsense mutation?

a)

Mutation #1

b)

Mutation #2

c)

Mutation #3

d)

Mutation #4

82.

Which of the mutations shown above supports the notion of redundancy in the genetic Code?

a)

Mutation #1

b)

Mutation #2

c)

Mutation #3

d)

Mutation #4

83.

The region upstream of a gene that contains the TATA box is known as the_____.

a)

enhancer

b)

Promoter

c)

consensus sequence

d)

transcription start site

84.

Although they both contain the same DNA, cells in the human heart do not look or behave the same as cells in the human bladder. This is because of_____.

a)

differences in cell division and therefore DNA replication

b)

differences In mutation rates

c)

differential gene expression

d)

differences in enzyme Kinetics

85.

In most plants, water carred up from the roots through the______while glucose is carried down through the_____.

a)

xylem; phloem

b)

phloem; xylem

c)

xylem; stomata

d)

phloem; stomata

86.

Which of the following best explains why a deletion of 1 bp is likely to be more deleterious than a deletion of 3 bp?

a)

A single base pair deletion will not be more deleterious because the larger the deletion, the more likely it is to be deleterious.

b)

Since mRNA codons are "read" in groups of 3, deleting only 1 base pair will shift the reading frame for everything downstream and lead to a nonfunctional protein.

c)

Deleting 3 base pairs will only remove one amino acid as long as the 3 bp are in-frame

d)

Both B and C are true.

87.

When a protein is tagged with ubiquitin, it will be degraded by the proteosome.Therefore, ubiquitination is an example of______regulation.

a)

post-transcriptional

b)

post-translational

c)

epigenetic

d)

translational

88.

Control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells ocours at which level(s)?

a)

Only the transcriptional level

b)

Epigenetic, transcriptional, and translational levels

c)

Epigenetic and transcriptional levels

d)

Epigenetic, transcriptional, post-transcriptional, translational, and post-translational levels

89.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about light energy?

a)

It comes from the sun in the form of photons

b)

Higher energy light has shorter wavelengths

c)

Approximately 400-700nm is the visible light spectrum

d)

Photosynthetic organisms rely primarily on ultraviolet light

90.

Which of the following scientific questions was answered by Meselson and Stahl's experiments with heavy and light nitrogen?

a)

Which macromolecule transmits heritable information: DNA or proteins?

b)

What is the structure of DNA?

c)

Is DNA replication conservative, semi-conservative or dispersive?

d)

How are telomeres maintained during DNA replication?

e)

Which macromolecule is capable of transforming bacteria?

91.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between an autotroph and a heterotroph?

a)

Autotrophs consume their food, while heterotrophs make their own food

b)

Autotrophs make their own food. while heterotrophs have to consume their food

c)

Autotrophs use sunlight to make food, while heterotrophs use chemicals to make their own food

d)

Heterotrophs eat lots of different foods while autotrophs only eat one kind of food

92.

A mature mRNA sequence that is 240 nucleotides long will yield a protein composed of

now many amino acids?

a)

80

b)

120

c)

240

d)

480

93.

According to Chargaff's Rule, if DNA of a particular species was analyzed and it was found to contain 27% adenine, what would be the percentage of cytosine?

a)

27%

b)

54%

c)

46%

d)

23%

94.

When glucose is absent and lactose is present, the lac operon can be activated

Similarly, when glucose Is present, the lac operon can be repressed. Since it is responsive to the needs of the cell, the lac operon is considered_______

a)

reproducible

b)

Inducible

c)

suppressible

d)

enhanceable

95.

Which of the following experiments showed that DNA is the heritable material in cells?

a)

Hershey and Chase's bacteriophage blender experiments

b)

Rosalind Franklin's photo 51

c)

Griffith. Oswald. Mcleod, and Avery's experiments with different macromolecules from a dead bacterial strain injected with a non-pathogenic strain

d)

Meselson and Stahl's experiments with heavy and light nitrogen

96.

Which of the following molecular equations summarizes the reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

97.

______is the enzyme that separates the two parent strands of DNA to form a replication fork

a)

Helicase

b)

Telomerase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

DNA Polymerase

e)

Primase

98.

The final electron acceptor of the light reaction its ______.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

NAD+

d)

NADPH

e)

NADP+

99.

What is the process being depicted in the figure above?

a)

Splicing

b)

Maturing

c)

Excising

d)

Slicing

100.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about cinlorophyll?

a)

Chlorophyll a and b are the primary pigments in chloroplasts

b)

Most plants are green because chlorophyll absorbs blue and red light and reflects green light

c)

Chlorophyll extract will fluoresce red when exposed to blue light because red light is higher energy than blue light

d)

Chlorophyll molecules are found primarily in photosystems I and II in the thylakoid membranes

101.

In eukaryotic cells, transcription occurs in the______ while translation happens in the______.

a)

nucleus; cytoplasm

b)

cytoplasm; nucleus

c)

nucleus: endoplasmic reticulum

d)

mitochondria; cytoplasm

102.

How many molecules of carbon dioxide are required to produce a single molecule or glucose during photosynthesis?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

1

103.

_______trees are broad leafy trees that drop their leaves in the winter, so they have to store all of their glucose during warmer months. However,______ trees don't drop

leaves so they are able to photosynthesize year-round, although they arent quite as

a)

Deciduous; conterous

b)

Coniferous; deciduous

c)

Tropical; northern

d)

Deciduous: desert

e)

Evergreen; desert

104.

Which of the following is associated with decreased mRNA stability?

a)

The 5' cap

b)

The poly-A tail

c)

microRNAs

d)

RNA binding proteins on the UTRs

105.

In which compartment of the plant cell do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place?

a)

Mesophyll

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Stroma

d)

Thylakoid

106.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the pH in different compartments of a Chloroplast activtly undergoina photosynthesis?

a)

The pH of the stroma should be about the same as that of the thvlakoid lumen

b)

The pH in the thylakoid lumen should be higher than in the stroma

c)

The pt in the thylakoid lumen should be lower than that of the stroma

d)

The pH of the stroma should be higher than the oH of the stomata

107.

Genes such as p53, that normallv function to restrict cell growth and that cause cancer when mutated, are referred to as

a)

tumor suppressors

b)

transtormation genes

c)

tumor promoters

d)

oncogenes

108.

Which of the following is TRUE about the Human Genome Project?

a)

It was a huge international effort to sequence the entire human genome.

b)

They used multiple individuals, so the reference genome is actually a mosaic.

c)

It became a big showdown between the private and public research sectors.

d)

The first draft was published in 2001, but the human genome was not officially declared complete until May 2021

e)

All of the above statements are true about the HGP

109.

The ends of linear chromosomes are

maintained of________ in normal cells.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

Topoisomerase

d)

Telomerase

110.

Which of the following is TRUE about next generation sequencing techniques?

a)

They have dramatically reduced the cost of sequencing genomes.

b)

They are helping scientists understand how and where humans evolved.

c)

They are at the heart of the personalized medicine revolution.

d)

They utilize very similar methods to older sequencing techniques, but have been automated to do things in "massive parallel*

e)

All of the above statements are true about next-gen sequencing

111.

In the gel electrophoresis experiment depicted above, which lane contains the shortest

DNA fragment?

a)

Lane 1

b)

Lane 2

c)

Lane 3

d)

Lane 4

112.

Histone acetylation is an epigenetic modification that_____.

a)

makes DNA more accessible by causing nucleosomes to become less compact.

b)

makes DNA less accessible by causing nudieosornes to becone nore compact.

c)

tends to increase transcription of the genes in that region.

d)

tends to decrease transcription of the genes in that region.

e)

Both A and C are true

113.

Transcription is typically terminated by the formation or a(n)_____ while translation is terminated when the ribosome encounters a(n)_______

a)

Hairpin loop; STOP codon

b)

STOP codon; hairpin loop

c)

Hairoin loop: START codon

d)

START codon; hairpin loop

e)

STOP codon: STOP codon

114.

Which of the following describes what happens to a protein after it is released from the ribosome?

a)

It stays in the cytoplasm to begin carrying out its normal functions.

b)

It heads to the mitochondria to get phosphorylated by ATP.

c)

It is translocated to the endoplasmic reticulum for further modification and folding.

d)

It returns to the nucleus for further modification and folding.

115.

Who are the scientists that proposed what we now know to be the structure of DNA?

a)

Meselson and Sta

b)

Hershey and Chase

c)

Avery, Oswald, and McLeod

d)

Watson and Crick

116.

On a hot, dry day, plants will close their stomata to conserve water. What impact will this

have on photosvnthesis?

a)

It will not have any impact on photosynthesis since there Is still sunlight available

to provide energy for the reactions.

b)

Photosynthesis will decrease significantly since there is no way to bring in carbon dioxide or release the oxygen waste.

c)

Since extra water cannot escape, photosynthesis will actually speed up

d)

Photosynthesis will continue as normal for a while, but eventually the plant will build up too much carbon dioxide waste and then photosynthesis will stop

117.

_______catalyze(s) DNA replication,_________catalyze(s) transcription :and _______catalyzes) translation.

a)

DNA polymerase; RNA polymerase; ribosomes

b)

Ribosomes: DNA polymerase: RNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase: ribosomes: DNA polymerase

d)

Helicase: Primase: Telomerase

118.

Of the following amino acids, which is likely to be the most common in protein sequences?

a)

Leucine (Leu, L)

b)

Methionine (Met, M)

c)

Proline (Pro, P)

d)

Cysteine (Cys, C)

119.

Which of the following is a possible anticodon for Histidine (His, H)?

a)

CAC

b)

CAU

c)

GUG

d)

GGC

120.

Use the image above to translate the followina mRNA sequence: AUGUCAGGCACGUGA

a)

Cys-GIn-Ala-Arg-lle

b)

Met-Ser-Gly-Thr-STOP

c)

Met-GIn-Ala-Val-STOP

d)

Val-Arg-His-STOP