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F2_Science_Chapter Test (C1-C13)

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is an endemic species?

a)

Species that can be found anywhere

b)

Animals that became endangered

c)

Organisms that can only be found in restricted habitat

d)

Plants that can undergo photosynthesis

2.

A __________________ is a method used by biologists to identify and classify organisms systematically

based on similarities and differences.

a)

dolphin key

b)

dicotyledon key

c)

dictionary key

d)

dichotomous key

3.

Biodiversity is a priceless treasure and a legacy of nature which should

be preserved. Choose two importance of biodiversity. (more than one correct answer)

a)

Recreational places

b)

To maintain the water level in the atmosphere

c)

Medical

d)

To classify organisms

4.

Why is biodiversity important to ecosystems?

a)

It helps populations adapt to ecological changes.

b)

It increases at each level of the food chain.

5.
How can humans best help an endangered species avoid extinction?
a)
they can feed the animals
b)
they can put the animals in a zoo
c)
they can protect the animal’s habitat
d)
they can take the animal to new habitats
6.

Choose the correct pair of the classification of animals given above.

a)

Salamander : Mammal

Turtle : Reptile

b)

Turtle : Reptile

Pangolin : Mammal

c)

Zebra : Mammal

Turtle : Amphibian

d)

Pangolin : Reptile

Salamander : Amphibian

7.

Plants are classified as non-flowering and flowering plants. Which of the following is flowering plant?

a)

Moss

b)

Fern

c)

Durian tree

d)

Conifer

8.

What is the characteristic of this plant ?

(more than one correct answer)

a)

Leaves with network-like veins

b)

Dicotyledons

c)

Wooden stem

d)

Fibrous root system

9.

Which of the following is the characteristics of animals above?

(more than one correct answer)

a)

Has three pairs of legs

b)

Has hard-outer shells

c)

Has segmented body

d)

Poikilothermic

10.

State the factors that threaten the extinction of the above animals.

(more than one correct answer)

a)

Illegal hunting and high demands for animal products

b)

The use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides excessively

to agricultural

c)

Uncontrolled logging activities

d)

The habitats of animals have been destroyed

11.

A ______________ is a group of organisms of the same species that live in the same habitat.

a)

ecosystem

b)

community

c)

niche

d)

population

12.
2 way relationship between organisms where both species are benefiting...
a)
symbiosis
b)
succession
c)
niche
d)
predator
13.

An organism that eats other organisms.

a)

host

b)

parasite

c)

consumer

d)

decomposer

14.

A consumer that eats only animals.

a)

scavenger

b)

carnivore

c)

herbivore

d)

omnivore

15.

An arrangement of interrelated food chains illustrating the flow of energy between interdependent organisms.

a)

predator

b)

food web

c)

ecosystem

d)

food chain

16.

An organism on which a parasite lives.

a)

consumer

b)

host

c)

prey

d)

decomposer

17.

Explain the flow of energy in this food chain (who passes energy to who).

a)

The hawk gives energy to the snake. The snake gives energy to the mouse. The mouse gives energy to the grasshopper who gives energy to the grass.

b)

The mouse gives energy to the hawk. The snake gives energy to the grasshopper. The grass gives energy to the snake.

c)

The grass gives energy to the grasshopper. The grasshopper gives energy to the mouse. The mouse gives energy to the snake who gives energy to the hawk.

18.

Estimate the number of hawk if the grasshopper is totally gone?

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

No change

d)

Extinct

19.

An organism that produces food by photosynthesis.

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Saprophytism

20.

The main source of energy for producers.

a)

The sun

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

Carbon dioxide

21.

What is the function of villus?

a)

Assimilation of food

b)

Break down food

c)

Absorption of digested food

d)

defecation

22.

A simple carbohydrate that serves as a major source of energy for your body is

a)

Glucose

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Fiber

d)

amino acids

23.

State the effect of deficiency of Vitamin K.

a)

Prolonged bleeding

b)

Night blindness

c)

Scurvy

d)

Beri beri

24.

Benedict's test is used to test the presence of __________

a)

Starch

b)

Glucose

c)

Fat

d)

Protein

25.

Gary eats 250 g of rice, 200 g of fried egg and 100g of apple. Calculate the calorific value of the boy's breakfast.

a)

4030kJ

b)

5810kJ

c)

5060kJ

d)

5725kJ

26.

..................... provide more than double the energy provided by carbohydrates or proteins in human body.

a)

Vitamins

b)

Fats

c)

Minerals

d)

Starch

27.

Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of .............

a)

vitamin B

b)

vitamin C

c)

vitamin D

d)

vitamin A

28.

Faiqah is diagnosed with anaemia when she was a baby. As a dietician, what would you suggest to help her with the symptoms?

a)

Eating food rich in fats

b)

Consume more suppliments

c)

Eating food rich in iron and vitamin B

d)

Exercise vigorously to get fit

29.

Grandpa Paul is having difficulties to breath normally due to his overweight condition. As a caretaker, what will you avoid from giving him to eat? (more than one correct answer)

a)

Ice cream and fried chicken

b)

Mixed salads and fruit juice

c)

Brown rice and low fat milk

d)

Steak and mineral water

30.

The alimentary canal starts from the mouth and ends at anus. Where does chemical digestion occurs?

a)

stomach, oesophagus, duodenum

b)

mouth, duodenum, small intestine

c)

mouth, stomach, large intestine

d)

stomach, small intestine, large intestine

31.

What is the meaning of disease

a)

An illness that cause by toxic chemical expose by our body.

b)

Abnormal condition on body and mind that cause discomfort.

c)

Normal condition by body react to certain foreign substance

32.

" The organisms that can cause disease' is called _______

a)

bacteria

b)

pathogen

c)

probiotic

d)

biosome

33.

Which of the following is an infectious diseases ?

a)

Cancer

b)

Diabetes

c)

Flu

d)

Asthma

34.

Sars-Cov2 virus that lead to Covid19 disease is example of (i)___________ disease that transmitted through (ii)_________ transmission.

a)

(i) waterborne (ii) water

b)

(i) touch (ii) parasite

c)

(i) airborne (ii) droplet

35.

Which are the first line of defence?

(more than one correct answer)

a)

Skin

b)

Mucus membrane

c)

Antibody

d)

White blood cells

36.

Preventive steps that can be taken to avoid contracting this disease are…

(more than one correct answer)

a)

Drink or eat food that is clean or thoroughly cooked

b)

Drink boiled water

c)

Receive injection of the cholera vaccine

d)

Store food and drinks properly so that houseflies cannot land on the food or drinks

e)

Before eating don’t wash hands

37.
What do antibodies attach to on the pathogen?
a)
Anti inflammatory
b)
Antigens
c)
Antiseptic
d)
Antibodies
38.
The picture below illustrates one internal part of the body’s immune system. What process is illustrated in the picture?  
a)
a skin cell destroying germs.
b)
inflammation near an opened wound
c)
a white blood cell destroying pathogens
d)
mucus in the lungs destroying pathogens
39.
__________ immunity is when the bodies makes its own antibodies.
a)
passive
b)
active
c)
cell mediated
d)
false
40.
Name this process
a)
eating
b)
phagocytosis
c)
destruction
d)
ingesting
41.

Give the meaning of solvent

a)

A homogenus mixture from two or more substances

b)

Substance that dissolves in other substances

c)

Solids that do not dissolve in liquids

d)

Substance that dissolves other substances

42.

Give the meaning of solute

a)

A homogenus mixture from two or more substances

b)

Substance that dissolves in other substances

c)

Solids that do not dissolve in liquids

d)

Substance that dissolves other substances

43.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
44.

In the above picture, a powder is about to be poured into the liquid. Which of the following should be done to make this powder dissolve faster?

a)

stir the powder in the liquid

b)

set the liquid at lower temperature

c)

replace the powder with same material but in cubes

d)

store the mixture in a dark place

45.

A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved.

a)

supersaturated

b)

saturated

c)

concentrated

d)

dilute

46.

Water is a universal solvent because it...

a)

It can be found anywhere

b)

Dissolves just a few substances

c)

Dissolves all substances

d)

Dissolves most substances

47.
Why can some insects walk on water?
a)
The water sticks to the insect.
b)
The insect is too light to break the surface tension.
c)
The insect has hydrophobic oils on its legs.
d)
Insects can't walk on water.
48.
What does chlorination do to the water?
a)
Removes microorganisms
b)
Cleans the water
c)
Makes the water taste nice
d)
Removes twigs and sediment
49.

what is added during coagulation process in water treatment plant

a)

alum and slaked lime

b)

florida

c)

chlorine

d)

calcium carbonate

50.

The correct order of water purification in water treatment plant are:

a)

filtration, coagulation, sedimentation, oxidation, chlorination and fluoridation

b)

filtration,oxidation, coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, chlorination and fluoridation

c)

Filtration, coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, chlorination and fluoridation

d)

Filtration,oxidation, coagulation, sedimentation, chlorination and fluoridation

51.

what is the name of this tool?

a)

insulator

b)

dosimeter

c)

electroscope

d)

microscope

52.

p is positively- charged.

what charge is Q?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

53.

what is the energy change for a burning candle?

a)

chemical energy → light energy

b)

chemical energy → heat energy + kinetic energy

c)

light energy → heat energy + chemical energy

d)

chemical energy → light energy + heat energy

54.
What is the purpose of a generator?
a)
to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy
b)
to convert chemical energy to electrical energy
c)
to convert mechanical energy to electrical energy
d)
to convert mechanical energy to heat energy
55.

A temporary magnet that only works when electricity is passed through wires surrounding an iron core is called:

a)

electromagnet

b)

galvanometer

c)

induction

d)

super conductor magnet

56.

Voltage is

a)

the potential electrical energy or push that makes electrons flow

b)

causes a short circuit with electrical energy

c)

is the term used for rate of charge flow

d)

Wastes energy by allowing current to flow

57.

A laptop is plugged into a 120 V outlet and uses 60 ohm's of resistance. How much current is running though it?

a)

120 Amps

b)

60 Amps

c)

2 Amps

d)

20 Amps

58.

You can increase the strength of an electromagnet are increasing the current, adding iron to the core, and .....

a)

increasing the number of coils on the magnet

b)

Decreasing the number of coils on the magnet

c)

Dividing the number of coil

59.
Surrounding every magnet is a __________  __________.
a)
magnetic field
b)
electrical current
c)
another magnet
d)
an enemy
60.
A device that uses a free-moving magnetic needle to show direction is a:
a)
Ruler
b)
magnet
c)
compass
d)
magnetic field
61.
What is the standard unit force is measured in?
a)
Newtons
b)
pounds
c)
grams
d)
meters
62.

Which type of lever is this?

a)

First Class Lever

b)

Second Class Lever

c)

Third Class Lever

63.
a)
1st Class
b)
2nd Class
c)
3rd Class
d)
It is not a lever
64.
If you want to decrease the effort force when using a lever, where will you move the fulcrum? 
a)
Closer to the object you want to move
b)
Farther away from the object you want to move
c)
You don't move the fulcrum, you move the effort force
d)
None of these answers 
65.

If these boys are pulling with the same amount of force. What will happen?

a)

The boy in blue will win.

b)

They will not move at all.

c)

The boy in red will win.

d)

Both will fall down.

66.

Which of the following force is acting on the book?

a)

magnetic force

b)

frictional force

c)

gravitational force

d)

elastic spring force

67.

______________ is the thrust force acting on an object that is floating on the surface of a fluid.

a)

Frictional force

b)

Buoyant force

c)

Weight

d)

Normal force

68.

The weight of a stone is 20 N. When it is immersed in water, its weight is 15 N. What is the buoyant force acting on the stone?

a)

2 N

b)

3 N

c)

4 N

d)

5 N

69.

What is the unit of moment of force?

a)

N

b)

m

c)

Nm

d)

N/cm

70.

Atmospheric pressure depends on .......

a)

mass

b)

density

c)

altitude

d)

magnitude

71.

The sun transfers heat to the earth through ___________.

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

72.

In the fire alarm, the bimetallic strip __________ when heated.

a)

breaks

b)

bends

c)

expands

d)

contracts

73.

dark colour ___________ heat and light colour ___________ heat.

a)

absorbs, reflects

b)

reflects, absorbs

74.

the measurement of the degree of hotness or coldness of an object.

a)

Temperature

b)

Heat

75.

take place in solid, heat is transferred through the vibrating particles that are in contact.

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

76.

Which of the following uses the principle of expansion of matter?

a)

Air conditioner

b)

Mercury in thermometer

c)

The handle of a pan is made of plastic

d)

Wall of houses are painted white

77.

Diagram above shows air holes J,K,L,M,N,O,P and Q in a building.

Which of the following shows the correct flow of hot air and cold air through air holes?

a)

Hot air : K,L,P,O

Cold air : J,MQ,N

b)

Hot air : J,M,Q,N

Cold air : K,L,P,O

c)

Hot air : N,O,P,Q

Cold air : J,K,L,M

d)

Hot air : J,K,L,M

Cold air : N,O,P,Q

78.

Diagram shows an apparatus set-up to study the rate of heat flow. Thumbtack K,L,M and N are made of copper.

Which thumbtack will fall first?

a)

K

b)

L

c)

M

d)

N

79.

The following diagram shows the position of a metal ball when passed through a ring before and after heating the metal ball.

Which of the following statement explains the phenomenon shown correctly?

a)

The size of particles in metal ball increases.

b)

The space between particles in metal ball increases.

c)

The number of particles in metal ball decreases.

d)

The volume of particles in metal ball decreases.

80.

Diagram shows a coastal area during the night. Which of the following gives the correct flow of air at the moment shown in the diagram?

a)

T → V

b)

T → S

c)

S → U

d)

U → V

81.
What does pitch depend on?
a)
amplitude 
b)
frequency
c)
intensity 
d)
volume of sound
82.
If the distance represented by the letter A were increased, how would it change the way the sound was heard?
a)
The sound would be higher. 
b)
The sound would be lower. 
c)
The sound would be softer. 
d)
The sound would be louder. 
83.
When a sound is louder what measurement gets bigger?
a)
Frequency 
b)
Amplitude 
c)
Wavelength 
d)
Crest
84.
Sound is produced by
a)
music
b)
vibrations of molecules
c)
Electromagnetic Waves 
d)
Transverse Waves 
85.
If distance C on the diagram increased, what would happen to the pitch? 
a)
The pitch would be louder. 
b)
The pitch would be softer. 
c)
The pitch would be higher. 
d)
The pitch would be lower. 
86.
Sound is a form of _________________ that travels as waves through a ________________.
a)
light/ transparency
b)
energy/ vibration
c)
energy/ medium
d)
frequency/ medium
87.

Characteristics of good sound absorbers

a)

Soft

b)

Hard

c)

Rough

d)

Smooth

88.

What is doppler effect?

a)

Apparent change in frequency, caused by the relative movement of sound sources

b)

Apparent change in amplitude, caused by the relative movement of sound sources

89.
Sound waves travel the FASTEST through _____________.
a)
gases
b)
liquids
c)
solids
90.
The reflection of sound waves off of a hard surface can create ______.
a)
A wave
b)
An echo 
91.

ACID will change blue litmus paper to

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

yellow

d)

green

92.
Which of the following is NOT a property of an acid?
a)
Tastes sour
b)
Corrosive
c)
Changes the colour of blue litmus paper to red
d)
Has a pH value higher than 7
93.
What gas is released when an acid reacts with an reactive metal?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Helium
d)
Bromine
94.

Blue and red litmus paper are added into a container containing a solid substance. After 5 minutes no changes occur to the blue litmus paper and red litmus paper. Which of the following is the reason for these results?

a)

The substance is alkali

b)

The substance is acidic

c)

The substance is neutral

d)

Acid and alkali shows their properties only in the presence of water.

95.

Which of the following is not an indicator?

a)

colour paper

b)

phenolphthalein

c)

universal indicator

d)

red litmus paper

96.

Complete the word equation for neuralisation reaction.


Acid + Alkali --> _______ + _________

a)

sugar.....water

b)

salt......water

c)

salt......vinegar

d)

vinegar.....salt

97.

Hydrochloric acid + Potassium hydroxide --> _______ + Water

a)

Calcium Sulphate

b)

Sodium Chloride

c)

Potassium Chloride

d)

Sodium Hydroxide

98.

Toothpaste contains ___________ which neutralises ________ in the mouth due to the action of bacteria to prevent tooth decay.

a)

acid.......alkali

b)

acid....acid

c)

alkali....acid

d)

alkali....alkali

99.

Name the method used to carry out neutralisation reaction

a)

Titration

b)

Condensation

c)

Transpiration

d)

Distillation

100.

What is the colour change of phenolphthalein during titration?

a)

colourless (in alkali) to pink (in neutral)

b)

pink (in alkali) to colourless (in neutral)

c)

blue (in alkali) to green(in neutral)

d)

green (in alkali) to yellow (in neutral)

101.
What are galaxies mostly made of?
a)
stars, planets, and animals
b)
stars, dust, and gas
c)
asteroids, planets, and comets
d)
people, animals, and plants
102.

What is galaxy?

a)

a set of bodies that consist many types of solar systems

b)

a set of bodies consisting of millions of stars with gas and dust particles

c)

a set of bodies that able to sustain life

d)

a set of bodies which capable to produce bright light

103.

what is a supernova?

a)

an explosion, and produce a very bright light

b)

an explosion that occurs on the surface of the sun

c)

a type of energy released when two planets collide with each other

d)

explosion that happened when black hole absorbs a sun

104.
The Milky Way Galaxy is most likely 
a)
an irregular galaxy
b)
a spiral galaxy
c)
an elliptical galaxy
d)
a nebula
105.

Which galaxy is a spiral shape galaxy?

a)

the Milky Way

b)

Ursa Major

c)

Andromeda

d)

Magellanic Cloud

106.

What causes the nebulae dense and form into a star?

a)

strong gravitational pull and nuclear reaction

b)

collision between planets

c)

exposure to high heat

107.

What is the final life cycle of a super large star

a)

supernova

b)

black hole

c)

white dwarf

108.

what colour of the sun is the hottest

a)

blue

b)

white

c)

red

d)

orange

109.

what factors determine the brightness of a star

a)

size and colour

b)

colour and distance

c)

size and distance

d)

temperature and colour

110.

Nuclear reaction in the sun converts the hydrogen gas into

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

helium

d)

water

111.
Which choice shows the correct order of the planets?
a)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
d)
Saturn, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Neptune Mercury, Uranus
112.
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are what type of planets?
a)
Gas Giants
b)
Ice Giants
c)
Terrestrial Planets
d)
Exterior Planets
113.
Planets that are closer to the sun
a)
take more time to orbit
b)
take less time to orbit
114.
What is the name of the star closest to the Earth?
a)
Sun
b)
North Star
c)
South Star
d)
Orion
115.
The moon is a natural  ______ of Earth.
a)
comet
b)
axis
c)
satellite
d)
space probe
116.
What holds the planets in their orbits around the sun?
a)
gravity
b)
speed
c)
string
d)
air currents
117.
Almost Earth’s twin in size and mass, this planet has very thick atmosphere.
a)
Venus
b)
Mars
c)
Mercury
d)
Neptune
118.

The orbital speeds of planets closer to the Sun will be faster than planets farther away because.....

a)

The gravity decreases as the distance between the objects increase.

b)

The gravity increases as the distance between the objects decrease.

c)

The gravity increases as the mass of the object increases.

d)

The gravity between the objects decrease as the objects warm up.

119.

Which to things affect the strength of gravitational pull?

a)

Distance and Weight

b)

Heat and Density

c)

Mass and Distance

d)

Gas and Dust

120.
As mass increases, gravity ________________.
a)
Increases 
b)
Decreases 
c)
Stays the same 
121.

what makes a meteoroid, meteor, and a meteorite different? (best answer)

a)

color

b)

size

c)

location

d)

texture

122.

choose the best description for a meteor

a)

-still in space

b)

-burns up in earths atmosphere

c)

-hits earth surface

123.

which planet is the asteroid belt close to?

a)

neptune

b)

jupiter

c)

earth

124.

choose the best description for a comet

a)

icy small body with a tail

b)

chunky rock

c)

rock moving body

125.
Asteroids "hang out" in our solar system in a place called:
a)
The Kupier Belt
b)
The Oort Cloud
c)
The Planetary Rings
d)
The Asteroid Belt
126.
Which space object is larger?
a)
Asteroid
b)
Meteor
c)
Meteorite
127.

What is the definition of an Asteroid?

a)

A small rocky body orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter

b)

A celestial body with a nucleus of ice and dust, has a tail

c)

A small body or object that enters Earth’s atmosphere

d)

A small rocky body that reaches Earth’s surface

128.

What's the difference between meteoroid, meteor, and meteorite?

a)

Meteoroids are sand size, meteors are streaks of light in the sky, and a meteorite is the meteors that has landed

b)

Meteoroids are huge, Meteors are the pieces that land, and Meteorites are shooting stars

c)

There are no differences

d)

Meteoroids are small, Meteors are another name for comets, and Meteorites are shooting stars

129.

What causes Meteoroids to burst into flames upon entering the Earth's Atmosphere?

a)

They are made out of flammable materials

b)

They cannot handle the pressure of Earth

c)

They do not burst into flames, they only reflect the Sun's light

d)

Friction from the Earths atmosphere

130.
The tail of a comet usually faces
a)
toward the sun
b)
toward the Earth
c)
away from the Sun
d)
away from the Earth

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127 questions

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131 questions

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129 questions

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128 questions

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Worksheet

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134 questions

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Worksheet

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130 questions

Botany Semester 2 Final Review

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125 questions

SCIENCE STAAR REVIEW

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Worksheet

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