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Bio (Glial Cells, Excitable Cells & Synapses)

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 7hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The point where you muscles and nervous system meet is called...

a)

Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ)

b)

Neuron-Muscle Synapse (NMS)

c)

Lacerti's Synapse (LS)

d)

Somatotropic Junction (STJ)

2.

The human nervous system is compromised of what cells?

a)

Neurons and Glia

b)

Neurons

c)

Neurons and Somatic cells

d)

Neurons and Astrocytes

3.

How many neurons are found in the brain?

a)

100 million

b)

100 billion

c)

10 billion

d)

Too many to count

4.

Who discovered that the nervous system is made up of individual cells?

a)

Santiago Ramón y Cajal

b)

Camillo Golgi

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Karl Wernicke

5.

Which of these is NOT found in a neuron?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

These are all present in a neuron

6.

Which of these is true about neurons?

a)

Neurons do not undergo mitosis

b)

Neurons require a lot of oxygen and glucose

c)

Neurons can only synapse to one other nueron

d)

Neurons can synthesize protien

7.

What are the small protrusions found on neuronal dendrites?

a)

Dendritic tails

b)

Dendritic hooks

c)

Dendritic branches

d)

Dendritic spines

8.

Which of these brings information towards a structure?

a)

Afferent axons

b)

Efferent axons

c)

Interneurons

d)

Antiproximal Axons

9.

Where does a motor neuron keep its soma?

a)

In muscles and fibers

b)

In somatic ganglia

c)

In the spinal cord

d)

In peripheral nervous ganglia

10.

How many cells in the brain are glial cells?

a)

None

b)

Half

c)

Less than a quater

d)

Two thirds

11.

Which of these is a type of glial cell?

a)

Oligodendrocyte

b)

Endepindictimal Cells

c)

Swanson Cells

d)

Arachnocytes

12.

What does an Astrocyte do?

a)

Absorb and release neurotransmitters

b)

Structural support

c)

Surround blood vessels to form the blood-brain barrier

d)

Increase supply of oxygen and glucose

e)

Can scar to heal damaged area

13.

What forms the blood-brain barrier?

a)

Endothelial cells wrapped around blood vessels and supported by Astrocyte feet

b)

Apollophinal cells converging at Sanguine junctions to bond with Astrocyte fingers

c)

Sychonometric Epithellium dilluting the the membrane cleft

d)

Blood capillaries decussating at Glial junctions at the level of the Meninges

14.

What is the purpose for the blood-brain barrier?

a)

To protect the brain from bacteria and viruses while allowing transport of glucose and oxygen

b)

To block any and all non-neuronal entities from enering the brain

c)

To protect blood vessels from acidic cerebrospinal fluid

d)

To remove non-essential waste from the brain

15.

What does a Schwann cell do?

a)

Myelinate axons in the PNS

b)

Myelinate axons in the CNS

c)

Supports production of astrocytes

d)

Provides neurons with much needed nutrients

16.

What two glial cells are involved in Myelination?

a)

Microglia and Oligodendrocytes

b)

Astrocytes and Schwann cells

c)

Astrocytes and Oligodendrocytes

d)

Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells

17.

Please, for the love of all that is holy, what is a Microglia?

a)

A glial cell that removes waste and viruses in the CNS, can be rammified or amoeboid

b)

Any glial cell smaller than an astrocyte, can be ramenised or noodelated

c)

A glial cell involved in structure and support, can be hottified or dogginoid

d)

Any glial cell smaller than 2μm, can be spaginoid or bolognified

18.

Hey man, what is Saltatory Conduction?

a)

Conduction of sodium ions across unmyelinated neurons

b)

Conduction of electricity across neurons in the CNS

c)

Propagation of action potentials from one node of Ranvier to the next

19.

What two types of glial cells form the blood-brain barrier?

a)

Astrocytes and Endothelial cells

b)

Endothelial cells and Ependymal cells

c)

Ependymal cells and Microglia

d)

Microglia and Astrocytes

20.

What does an Ependymal cell do?

a)

Secrete CSF from the Choroid Plexus

b)

Support and structure neurons in the brain

c)

Form around blood vessels in the blood-brain barrier

d)

All of the above

21.

What cell is responsible for the secretion of Cerebrospinal Fluid?

a)

Introspinaglial cells

b)

Endothelial cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Radial glia

22.

What does a Radial Glia do?

a)

Forms other glial cells within the brain

b)

Guides the migration and growth of axons during brain development

c)

Links with other Radial Glia to form support structures in the brain

d)

Serves as a intermediate messenger between neurons and Astrocytes

23.

Which is an Excitable cell?

a)

Any cell in the brain or heart

b)

Any cell capable of generating action potentials

c)

Myocytes (muscle cells) and Endocrine cells

d)

Any cell with a net negative charge

24.

Sodium, Potassium and Calcium are...

a)

Cations

b)

Anions

c)

Positrons

d)

Electrons

25.

With regards to neurons, Chloride is a/an...

a)

Anion found in Intracellular fluid

b)

Cation found in Intracellular fluid

c)

Anion found in Extracellular fluid

d)

Cation found in Intracellular fluid

26.

A neuron's resting membrane potential (Em) is....

a)

-60mV

b)

-50mV

c)

-70mV

d)

-80mV

27.

An ions membrane permeability increases with...

a)

High lipid solubility and small molecular size

b)

Low lipid solubility and large molecular size

c)

High membrane solubility and low molecular solubility

d)

High number of lipid solubles in a molecular membrane

28.

Channel proteins...

a)

Open to create a water filled pore

b)

Carry any molecule across a membrane

c)

Carry a specific molecule across a membrane

d)

Carry multiple specific molecules across a membrane at once

29.

What is love?

a)

Baby don't hurt me

b)

Don't hurt me

c)

No more

30.

Which transporter can exist in an open or closed state?

a)

Open channel

b)

Carrier protein

c)

Gated channel

d)

G-Protein coupled receptor

31.

Which Carrier Protein can only transport one substrate across a membrane?

a)

Uniport Carrier

b)

Single channel protein

c)

Antiport Carrier

d)

Single Port Carrier

32.

An Antiport Carrier...

a)

Carriers two kinds of substrate across a membrane

b)

Carries any kind of substrate across a membrane

c)

Carries substrates in opposite directions across a membrane

d)

Carries substrates out of the membrane

33.

A Voltage-gated channel's permeability...

a)

Depends on the potential difference across the membrane

b)

Depends on the presence of the ion it is permeable to

c)

Only increases when the membrane is hyperpolarized

34.

What does a Ligand do?

a)

Binds to a channel protein to open it

b)

Activates voltage gated cannels

c)

Binds to carrier proteins to inactivate them

d)

All of the above

35.

An negative ion passing through an open membrane channel into a positive cell is...

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Diffusion through phospholipid bilayer

c)

Active transport

d)

Passive transport

36.

What causes an electrical gradient?

a)

An unequal distribution of positive and negative ions inside and outside the cell

b)

An equal distribution of positive and negative ions inside and outside the cell

c)

An equal number of ions inside and outside the cell

37.

What causes a concentration gradient?

a)

Too many different ions inside the cell

b)

Not enough variation of ions outside the cell, compared to inside the cell

c)

A difference between the amount of a specific ion inside the cell verses outside the cell

d)

When all ions within the cell and outside the cell are the same

38.

If a cell has 50 Cl- ions inside and 100 Cl- ions outside, and an open channel is created, how many Chloride ions will enter the cell?

(a)  

39.

Theoretically: If a -10mV cell attracts Q+ inside it, through an open channel, but the Q+ doesn't flow inside the cell because there are already a lot of Q+ ions inside the cell, the Equilibrium Potential of Q+ must be...

a)

-10mV

b)

-100mV

c)

Positive

d)

+10mV

40.

Assuming a membrane is fully permeable to single ion, what can we use to calculate that ion's Equilibrium Potential?

a)

Nearnst Equation

b)

Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation

c)

Silverman-Hodgkin-Kuntz Equation

d)

Fearnst Equation

41.

What does the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation calculate?

a)

Equilibrium Potential of a single ion

b)

Equilibrium Potential of multiple ions

c)

Resting Potential of a cell permeable to one ion

d)

Resting Potential of a cell permeable to multiple ions

42.

What does an ATPase pump do?

a)

Mantains a cells K+ and Na+ concentration gradients

b)

Transports 3 K+ out of the cell and 2 Na+ into the cell

c)

Transports 2 K+ into the cell and 3 Na+ out of the cell

d)

Uses ATP

e)

Makes a cell more positive

43.

A cell's resting potential is -70mV due to...

a)

It being more permeable to positive K+ than other ions

b)

It being less permeable to positive K+ ions

c)

It being more permeable to positive Na+ ions

d)

It being impermeable to any positive ions

44.

Who let the dogs out?

a)

Who

b)

Who

c)

Who-who-who

45.

Assuming a membrane is fully permeable to single ion, what can we use to calculate that ion's Equilibrium Potential?

a)

Nearnst Equation

b)

Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation

c)

Silverman-Hodgkin-Kuntz Equation

d)

Fearnst Equation

46.

Why do Sodium Potassium pumps require energy?

a)

Because all carrier proteins require energy

b)

Because it carriers Na+ against the electrical gradient

c)

Because it carries K+ into a positively charged cell

d)

Because it must find rare Na+ ions before it can carry them outside the cell

47.

Which of these has no role in deciding a cell membranes Resting Potential?

a)

Concentration gradients for K+, Na+ and Ca++ across the membrane

b)

The membrane's relative permeability to K+, Na+ and Ca++

c)

Ion pumps that add or remove K+, Na+ and Ca++ from the cell

d)

The the cell's cytoplasmic pH levels relative to the extracellular fluid

48.

When a cell goes from -70mV to -80mV it is being...

a)

Depolarized

b)

Hyperpolarized

c)

Unpolarized

d)

Polar bears

49.

At equilibrium...

a)

There is a constant flow of ions in/out of the cell, with no net changes in voltage

b)

There is a constant flow of ions in/out of the cell, with the voltage in constant fluctuation

c)

There is no flow of ions in/out of the cell and therefore no net changes in voltage

d)

There is no flow of ions in/out of the cell, with the voltage in constant fluctuation

50.

The speed of nerve impulses...

a)

Ranges from 1 m/s to 100 m/s

b)

Ranges from 1 mph to 100 mph

c)

Is constant, except between neurons in the brain

d)

Differs widely from person to person

51.

What is the Threshold of Excitation?

a)

The level depolarization must reach for an action potential to occur

b)

The level hyperpolarization much reach for an action potential to occur

c)

The voltage of a cell when not being stimulated

52.

The action potential threshold is the same for all cells

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken sandwich

53.

What is a neuron's Relative Refractory Period?

a)

The moment after an action potential fires when a neuron is hyperpolarized

b)

The moment before an action potential fires when a neuron is hyperpolarized

c)

The moment after an action potential fires when a neuron is depolarized

d)

The moment after an action potential fires when a neuron is depolarized

54.

A neuron cannot fire an action potential while in the Relative Refractory Period

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken sandwich

55.

A neuron can fire a new action potential during the Absolute Refractory Period if the stimulus is strong enough

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken sandwich

56.

Which happens first, the Relative Refractory Period or the Absolute Refractory Period?

a)

Absolute Refractory Period

b)

Relative Refractory Period

c)

They happen simultaneously

57.

After Depolarization, the cell returns to it's negative state when...

a)

K+ ions flow out of the cell

b)

Na+ ions flow out of the cell

c)

Cl- ions flow into the cell

d)

Chicken sandwich

58.

What restores a cell's original distribution of ions after an Action Potential?

a)

Sodium-Potassium pumps

b)

Potassium-Chloride pumps

c)

Chloride-Sodium pumps

d)

Potassium-Chloride pumps

59.

BONUS ROUND: ATP turns to ADP when...

a)

It looses a Phosphate

b)

It gains a Phosphate

c)

It looses a Calcium

d)

It gains a Calcium

60.

During leg surgery, what effect would a local anaesthetic drug have on neurons?

a)

Block sodium channels in neurons in the leg to prevent action potentials from occurring

b)

Halt the intake of K+ into neurons in the leg to prevent action potentials from occuring

c)

Block interneurons in the spinal cord from relaying with the brain so pain is not perceived

d)

Block interneurons in the brainstem from recognizing incoming pain signals

61.

Which part of a Motor/Inter Neuron contains the most voltage-gated ion channels?

a)

Node of Ranvier

b)

Dendrite branches

c)

Membrane of the soma

d)

Axon's Initial Segment

62.

Which part of a motor/inter Neuron is known as the "Trigger Zone"?

a)

The tip of the axon

b)

The axon's cell body

c)

The initial segment

d)

The post-synaptic membrane

63.

What is the function of Back Propagation?

a)

Long term potentiation and plasticity

b)

Increasing speed at which action potentials fire

c)

Maximising the neuron's efficiency

d)

It is an after-effect of a neuron firing and serves no function

64.

All action potentials are equal in intensity and speed within a given neuron

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken sandwich

65.

Where is the "Trigger Zone" of a Sensory Neuron located?

a)

At the axon hillock

b)

In the cell body

c)

Where the receptor joins the axon

66.

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

A disease in which the myelin sheathe is destroyed

b)

A disease in which the Meninges of the brain becomes inflamed

c)

A disease in which the brain itself becomes infected

d)

A disease in which a neuron's synapses are damaged or destroyed

67.

Local neurons...

a)

Have no axons and can only exchange information with close neighbors

b)

Produce only graded potentials

c)

Are difficult to study due to their small size

d)

Help! I'm in the wrong question!

68.

Here's one: What do you call a neuron with no axon?

a)

Local neuron

b)

Non-axonal neuron

c)

Intermediate neuron

d)

I don't know, what do you call a neuron with no axon?

69.

What's unique about Graded Potentials when compared to Action Potentials?

a)

Their amplitude is proportional to the stimulus

b)

They can sum together

c)

They only travel in one direction

d)

They are unaffected by the intensity of the stimulus

70.

For a single Graded Potential to cause an Action Potential it must...

a)

Be strong enough to reach the trigger zone and depolarise it beyond it's threshold

b)

Be quick enough to reach the other end of the Axon before it dissipates

c)

Be accurate enough to repropagate itself by reverberating on the membrane walls

d)

Be powerful enough to arrive at the axon hillock and hyperpolarize it beyond it's threshold

71.

_______ is the combined effect of quickly repeated stimulation at a single synapse

a)

Temporal Summation

b)

Spatial Summation

c)

Chicken sandwich

72.

Spatial summation. What that is?

a)

The summation of concurrent stimulations at several synapses onto one neuron

b)

The combination of quickly repeated stimuli at a single synapse

c)

The summation of simultaneous graded potentials onto multiple neurons

d)

The summation of multiple synapses firing simultaneously unto multiple neurons

73.

What's the main character from Avatar called?

a)

Jake Sully

b)

Bill Rover

c)

Tom Hook

d)

James Colt

74.

Who discovered synapses?

a)

Charles Scott Sherington

b)

Ramon Cajal

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Carl Wernicke

75.

What led to the discovery of the synapse?

a)

A frog's heart communicating with another frog's heart in a solution

b)

Observations of reflexes and their speed

c)

Invention of a dye that allowed scientists to observe the branching nature of neurons

d)

The cross breeding of various species of pea

76.

Why is a reflex slower than conduction across a single axon?

a)

Synaptic delay

b)

Reflexive pause

c)

Spinal relay

d)

Neurotransmitter release

77.

What is an EPSP?

a)

A graded potential that can sum to trigger an AP in the post synaptic cell

b)

A graded potential that can sum to trigger an AP in the pre synaptic cell

c)

An action potential that can trigger further APs in the pre synaptic cell

d)

An action potential that can trigger further APs in the post synaptic cell

78.

What can hyperpolarise a cell to make it less sensitive to incoming stimulus?

a)

Inhibitory post synaptic potentials

b)

Excitatory post synaptic potentials

c)

Excitatory action potentials

d)

Inhibitory action potentials

79.

What serves as a "break" to supress neuron excitation?

a)

IPSPs

b)

EPSPs

c)

ISPSs

d)

ESPSs

80.

A neuron may produce action potentials even when there is no stimulus

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken sandwich

81.

IPSPs may decrease a neuron's Spontaneous Firing Rate

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Sautéed mushrooms

82.

Which of these is not a real variety of synapse?

a)

Axoaxonic synapse

b)

Axodendritic synapse

c)

Axocytoplasmic synapse

d)

Axosomatic synapse

e)

Axosecretory synapse

83.

Label Synapse B

a)

Axoaxonic synapse

b)

Axosomatic synapse

c)

Axodendritic synapse

d)

Axosynaptic synapse

84.

Kindly label Synapse B

a)

Axosecretory Synapse

b)

Axodendritic Synapse

c)

Axoextracellular Synapse

d)

Axoaxonic Synapse

85.

Synapse A, what that is?

a)

Axodendritic Synapse

b)

Axoaxonic Synapse

c)

Dendrodendritic Synapse

d)

Axosecretory Synapse

86.

How were neurotransmitters discovered?

a)

Otto Loewi's vagus nerve to heart experiment

b)

Gregor Mendel's pea pods experiment

c)

Charles S. Sherrington's dog reflex arc experiment

d)

Dick Kuntz's crocodile heartbreak experiment

87.

All synapses transmit chemicals known as neurotransmitters to each other

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Kanye West in a slice of wholewheat bread

88.

Which of these is true about Electrical Synapses?

a)

They are slower than chemical synapses

b)

They rely on gap junctions and direct contact with the other cell membrane

c)

Depolarisation occurs in one cell first, followed by the other

d)

Depolarisation occurs in both cells simultaneously

89.

Kindly label A.

a)

Synaptic cleft

b)

Axodendritic synapse

c)

Electrical synapse

d)

Gap Junction Channel

90.

If Electrical Synapses are faster, why do Chemical Synapses exist?

a)

Chemical synapses have a function in brain plasticity

b)

Chemical synapses have a function in regulation

c)

Chemical synapses allow two cells to depolarize at the same time, acting as one

91.

Electrical Synapses rely on G-Protein Coupled Receptors (GPCRs) to send a message from one cell to the other

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Pizza hat

92.

Most synapses in mammals are...

a)

Chemical

b)

Electrical

c)

Synaptical

d)

Imaginary

93.

What is this illustration an example of?

a)

Tripartite synapse

b)

Astrodendritic synapse

c)

Quadpartite synapse

d)

Synaptic triplet

94.

What does this picture depict?

a)

Quad-partite synapse

b)

Tri-partite synapse

c)

Viruses infecting a synapse

d)

None of the these

95.

In an Anterograde synaptic transmission, the information will be transmitted...

a)

From the post-synaptic membrane to the pre-synaptic membrane

b)

From the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane

96.

Where are neurotransmitters synthesised?

a)

Axon terminal

b)

Cell body

c)

Along the axon

d)

They are found, not synthesised

97.

What is the function of Calmodulin in a synapse?

a)

It binds with Ca++ to create a complex which triggers synaptic vesicles to release neurotransmitter

b)

It increases the sensitivity of the axon terminal

c)

It binds to receptor proteins in the post-synaptic membrane

d)

It synthesises neurotransmitter in the pre-synaptic terminal

98.

G-Protein Coupled Receptors (GPCRs) are examples of....

a)

Ionotropic receptors

b)

Metabotropic receptors

c)

Metamorphic receptors

d)

Dendronic receptors

99.

What is an Autoreceptor?

a)

A receptor on the presynaptic membrane that responds to the transmitter that the neuron releases

b)

A receptor on the postsynaptic membrane that responds to any neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft

c)

A receptor on an astrocyte that responds to a transmitter released by the pre-synaptic neuron

100.

What is the amount of neurotransmitter released by a single vessicle?

a)

10μg

b)

100μg

c)

1 quantum

d)

1 decem

101.

In West Philadelphia...

a)

Born and raised

b)

On a playground

c)

Is where I spent

d)

Most of my days

102.

What are 4 ways a neurotransmitter can be inactivated?

a)

Diffusion, degradation, reuptake, astrocyte uptake

b)

Dispersion, destruction, inactivation, astrocyte transmission

c)

Dilution, demonstration, reintegration, astrocyte respiration

d)

Confusion, elation, resignation, astrocyte celebration

103.

_____ is the process in which the presynaptic neuron absorbs most of the neurotransmitter molecules and reuses them

a)

Reuptake

b)

Recycling

c)

Reintake

d)

Reintegration

104.

What is the process in which enzymes break up neurotransmitter into it's fundamental parts

a)

Degradation

b)

Difusion

c)

Destruction

d)

Decussation

105.

What is the effect of cocaine and amphetamine?

a)

Increasing the release of dopamine from the presynaptic terminal

b)

Decreasing the release of dopamine from the presynaptic terminal

c)

Decreasing the reuptake of dopamine from the postsynaptic terminal

d)

Increasing the reuptake of dopamine from the postsynaptic terminal

106.

How does a synapse accomplish negative feedback?

a)

Auto-receptors detect the amount of transmitter released and inhibit further release

b)

After stimulation, the postsynaptic terminal releases chemicals that travel to receptors in the pre-synapse and inhibit further release

c)

Before stimulation, the presynaptic terminal decides how much transmitter to release and only releases that amount

d)

The postsynaptic terminal sends a signal to the CNS, which is relayed back to the presynaptic terminal to inhibit further release

107.

What are Cannabinoids? (link the 2 correct statements)

a)

Neurotransmitters released from the Postsynaptic terminal that bind to receptors on the Presynaptic terminal...

b)

Neurotransmitters released from the Presynaptic terminal that bind to receptors on the Postsynaptic terminal...

c)

...in order to promote the release of GABA and Glutamate

d)

...in order to inhibit the release of GABA and Glutamate

108.

Cannabinoids can inhibit...

a)

Excitatory signals

b)

Inhibitory signals

c)

Both

d)

Wait...what was the question ?

109.

Amino Acids, Monoamines, Neuropeptides, Purines, Gasses and Fatty Acids are examples of...

a)

Protein channels

b)

Transporters

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Polypeptides

110.

Monoamines can be spit into...

a)

Indoleamines and Cathecolamines

b)

Indianamines and Jonesamines

c)

Rickamines and Mortimines

d)

Pizellamines and Ricottamines

111.

Neurons 1.)______ neurotransmitters from substances 2.)_______

a)

1. Find

b)

1. Synthesize

c)

2. Naturally found in the body

d)

2. Provided by the diet

112.

Tryptophan is a precursor for...

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Adrenaline (Epinephrine)

d)

Acetylcholine

113.

Which is a precursor for Adrenaline (Epinephrine)?

a)

Dopa

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Phenylalanine

d)

Choline

e)

Tryptophan

114.

Neuropeptides effect which kind of receptor?

a)

Metabotropic

b)

Ionotropic

c)

Deceptaconic

d)

Autobotic

115.

Which of these statements is true of Neuropeptides

a)

Release requires repeated stimulation

b)

They are diffused to various parts of the brain

c)

They are synthesised in the cell body

d)

Their effects can last a long time

e)

They are synthesised in the axon terminal

116.

Which of these is a Lipid Transmitter?

a)

Endocannabinoids

b)

Anandamide and 2-AG

c)

Endorphin

d)

Acetylcholine

117.

Gaseous transmitters are made in advance and stored in synaptic vesicles

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken noodle soup

118.

Zinc can be classified as a Neurotransmitter

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken and rice

119.

The effect of a neurotransmitter depends on...

a)

Its receptor on the postsynaptic cell

b)

The amount of transmitter released

c)

The speed at which the transmitter crosses the synaptic cleft

d)

The amount of enzymes in the synaptic cleft

120.

Neurotransmitter receptors are...

a)

Chemically regulated channels

b)

Mechanically regulated channels

c)

Voltage regulated channels

121.

Where are Heteroreceptors and Autoreceptors found?

a)

Pre-Synaptic Terminal

b)

Post-Synaptic Terminal

c)

Both

122.

G-Protein Coupled Receptors are...

a)

Ionotropic Receptors

b)

Metabotropic Receptors

c)

Massimotropic Receptors

123.

What is another word for Down Regulation?

a)

Desensitization

b)

Supersensitivity

c)

Up Regulation

124.

GPCR may use cAMP as a second messenger for what purpose?

a)

Making the membrane more positive to increase excitability

b)

Immediately firing an Action Potential

c)

Transducing a stimulus into an Action Potential as quickly as possible

125.

Depending on the G-protein, the same neurotransmitter can elicit different responses

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Eggs benedict with chives

126.

What occurs when a neurotransmitter attaches to receptors and immediately opens ion channels?

a)

Metabotropic effects

b)

Ionotropic effects

c)

Catecholamine effects

d)

Indoleamine effects

127.

Which of these behaviours is caused by a Metabotropic receptor?

a)

Hunger

b)

Taste

c)

Smell

d)

Pain

128.

What is a G-Protein Coupled Receptor coupled with?

a)

GDP when inactive and GTP when activated

b)

GTP when inactive and GDP when activated

c)

GPS when inactive GWS when activated

d)

GMO when inactive GMT when activated

129.

What transmitter binds to Adrenergic receptors?

a)

Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

GABA

d)

2-AG

130.

What 2 receptors can Acetylcholine bind to?

a)

Muscarinic receptors

b)

Nicotinic receptors

c)

Adrenergic receptors

d)

Serotonergic receptors

131.

What receptors can Cannabinoids bind to?

a)

CB1 and CB2

b)

1 CR and 2 CR

c)

Muscarinic and Nicotinic

d)

Cheechic and Chongic