wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Bugs and Drugs 1

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following consists of a thick peptidoglycan layer and lacks a cell membrane

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Gram negative bacteria

2.

Which of the following are beta hemolytic streptococcus?

a)

S. Canis

b)

S. equi

c)

S. Suis

d)

S. Uberis

3.

Which of the following is a spore forming aerobic bacteria?

a)

Bacillus sp.

b)

Clostridium sp.

c)

Listeria

d)

Mycobacterium spp.

4.

Which of the following is a spore forming anaerobic bacteria?

a)

Rhodococcus equi

b)

Nocardia

c)

Bacillus sp

d)

Clostridium sp

5.

What body site are campylobacter and enterobacteriales commonly found?

a)

GI

b)

Respiratory

c)

Urogential

6.

What body site are campylobacter, brucellosa spp and leptospira spp commonly found?

a)

Urogenital

b)

Respiratory

c)

GI

7.

Which of the following are examples of environmental gram negative bacteria?

a)

F. Tularensis

b)

P. Aeruginosa

c)

Acinetobacter spp

d)

Anaplasma spp

e)

Ehrlichia spp

8.

What are acceptable cultures for the lower respiratory tract?

a)

BAL

b)

TTW

c)

Tissues

d)

Swab

9.

The upper respiratory tract is lowly populated with bacteria:

a)

True

b)

False

10.

When do you need to take special consideration when sampling feces?

a)

Suspect campylobacter or anaerobes

b)

Suspect aerobes

c)

Every time

d)

Never

11.

When you suspect ____ in the urogenital system you must make special considerations:

a)

Campylobacteriosis

b)

Trichomoniasis

c)

Leptospirosis

d)

Taylor Ella equigenitalis

e)

E. Coli

12.

Swabs are okay for superficial pyoderma (pustule) and ears but nothing else for the integumentary system:

a)

True

b)

F

13.

When is it okay to swab internal organs or sterile body sites?

a)

Abscesses or when sample is very small

b)

Abscesses only

c)

Only when sample is small

d)

Any time

14.

What type of dilution does macro-broth dilution run?

a)

Single

b)

Triple

c)

Double

d)

No dilution

15.

What do you read on the gradient method AST test to determine MIC

a)

Apex of teardrop

b)

Base of teardrop

16.

What shape are prokaryotes?

a)

Round (cocci)

b)

Rod (bacilli)

c)

Spiral (spirilla)

d)

Hyphae

17.

Fungi are non-motile:

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Superficial Fungal infections are caused mostly by:

a)

Yeasts and dermatophytes

b)

dimorphic fungi

c)

aspergillosis

d)

mycetoma and candidiasis

19.

most systemic fungal infections originate from the:

a)

Lungs

b)

Skin

c)

GI tract

d)

oral

20.

What fungal infection are you likely to get in the tropics when walking barefoot?

a)

Dermatophytes

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Dimorphic fungi

d)

mycetoma

21.

Which of the following cause superficial fungal infections?

a)

Malassezia

b)

Dermatophytosis

c)

aspergillosis

d)

histoplasmosis

e)

coccidiomycosis

22.

Fungal pathogens are able to switch from hyphal cells to yeast cells in human hosts for survival:

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What pathogen can patients get due to ingested/inhaling soil contaminated by bird or bat droppings?

a)

Histoplasmosis

b)

Blastomycosis

24.

What fungal disease would you see most likely in the Midwest?

a)

histoplasmosis

b)

blastomycosis

c)

coccidioidomycosis

25.

what fungal disease would you likely see east of the mississippi river (Ohio river valley)

a)

histoplasmosis

b)

blastomycosis

c)

coccidioidomycosis

26.

what fungal disease would you likely see in the southwestern united states?

a)

Blastomycosis

b)

histoplasmosis

c)

coccidioidomycosis

27.

what are signs of acute coccidioidomycosis?

a)

Cough

b)

difficulty breathing

c)

weight loss

d)

seizures

e)

enlarged lymph nodes

28.

what are signs of chronic coccidioidomycosis?

a)

Enlarged lymph nodes

b)

seizures

c)

diarrhea

d)

skin lesions

29.

what are signs of histoplasmosis in a canine?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

bloody stool

c)

weight loss

d)

respiratory signs

30.

____ cell wall is made of predominately ergosterol

a)

Animals

b)

Fungi

31.

What are animal cell walls predominately made of?

a)

cholesterol

b)

Ergosterol

c)

Both

32.

what class of drugs are polyenes?

a)

Ergosterol inhibition

b)

beta gluten synthase inhibitor

c)

DNA/RNA synthesis inhibition

d)

Mitosis inhibition

33.

Which of the following are examples of ergosterol inhibitor classes?

a)

polyenes

b)

azoles

c)

imidazole azoles

d)

Triaozles azoles

e)

Allylamines

34.

What is the first class of anti fungal agents?

a)

Ergosterol inhibition - polyenes

b)

Ergosterol inhibition - azoles

c)

DNA/RNA synthesis inhibition - polyenes

d)

DNA/RNA synthesis inhibition - fluoropyrimidines

35.

What are example of polyene drugs?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Nystatin

c)

Imidazole

d)

triazole

e)

terbinafine

36.

what is the drug of choice for life-threatening systemic fungal infections and disseminated fungal infections?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Nystatin

c)

Itraconazole

d)

ketoconazole

37.

Azoles are fungicidal:

a)

True

b)

False

38.

what class of antifungals blocks ergosterol biosynthesis -> increased 14-alpha-dedmethylase -> increase in toxic sterols -> disrupt cell membrane -> cell lysis

a)

Azoles

b)

polyenes

c)

allylamines

d)

Echinocandins

39.

Which of the following are triazoles?

a)

Itraconazole

b)

Fluconazle

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Ketoconazole

40.

What is the preferred treatment for aspergillosis?

a)

Clotrimazole

b)

Miconazole

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Itraconazole

41.

What is the preferred treatment for malassezia dermatitis?

a)

Miconazole

b)

Clotrimazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Fluconazole

42.

Ketoconazole requires a(n) _____ pH for absorption?

a)

Acidic

b)

Basic

43.

Which of the following have minimal side effects due to lack of systemic absorption?

a)

Clotrimazole

b)

Miconazole

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Fluconazole

44.

Which of the following has high CYP-enzyme inhibition:

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Itraconazole

c)

Voriconazole

d)

Ketoconazole

45.

Which class of antifungals has the following MOA: blocks ergosterol biosynthesis -> inhibits squalene epoxidase -> increase in squalene -> toxicity, disrupts cell membrane -> cell lysis

a)

allylamines

b)

azoles

c)

polyenes

d)

Echinocandins

46.

Anything less than __ isolates in an antibiogram is inaccurate?

a)

30

b)

50

c)

70

d)

90

47.

Which of the following are classes of beta-lactams

a)

Penicillins

b)

Cephalosporins

c)

carbapenems

d)

monobactams

48.

Which class of beta lactams has the narrowest spectrum of activity? (gram - only)

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

penicillins

c)

monobactams

d)

carbapenems

49.

Beta lactams are time dependent:

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of the following are first generation cephalosporins?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

cefadroxil

c)

cefazolin

d)

cefpodoxime

e)

cefovecin

51.

Enterococci are intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Cefpodoxime is a _ generation cephalosporin

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

53.

Cefovecin is a _ generation cephalosporin

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

What is the first (oral) choice treatment for streptococcus and staphylococcus

a)

Cephalexin + cefadroxil

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Cefpodixime + cephalexin

d)

Cefazolin + cefadroxil

55.

what is the first choice treatment (parental) of 1st generation cephalosporins?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

cephalexin

c)

cefpodoxime

d)

cephapirin

56.

what is the first treatment choice for mastitis?

a)

Cephapirin

b)

Cephalexin

c)

cefpodoxime

d)

cefadroxil

57.

what is the 3rd generation cephalosporin drug of choice for skin/soft tissue infection

a)

Cefpodoxime

b)

cefovecin

c)

ceftiofur

d)

cefoxitin

58.

What is the 3rd generation drug of choice for UTIs, skin and soft tissue infections

a)

Cefovecin

b)

Cefpodoxime

c)

Ceftiofur

d)

Cefepime

59.

what is the 3rd generation drug of choice for cattle, pigs, and horses (especially respiratory tract infections)

a)

Ceftiofur

b)

Cefovecin

c)

Cefpodoxime

d)

Cefepime

60.

Imipenem and meropenem are examples of:

a)

Last resort antimicrobials

b)

First choice antimicrobials

c)

carbapenems

d)

1st generation cephalosporins

61.

MR staph is resistant to carbapenems:

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What are challenges of carbapenems:

a)

IV administration only

b)

carbapenamase-producing bacteria reported

c)

Nephrotoxic

d)

Short-shelf life

63.

What can you combine carbapenamase with to prevent renal toxicity?

a)

Cilastatin

b)

Nothing will prevent it

c)

Does not cause renal toxicity

d)

meropenem

64.

Beta hemolytic strep is susceptible to all beta lactase

a)

True

b)

False

65.

MR staph is resistant to all beta lactams except:

a)

5th generation cephalosporins

b)

3rd generation cephalosporins

c)

They are not resistant to beta lactams

d)

they are resistant to all beta lactams

66.

What drug class' MOA is to inhibit beta (1,3) gluten synthase. Leads to depletion of beta (1,3) gluten in cell wall. Cell lysis and death.

a)

Beta gluten synthase inhibitions

b)

Allylamines

c)

Ergosterol inhibition

d)

azoles

67.

Beta-glucan synthase inhibitors are commonly used in vet med

a)

True

b)

False

68.

DNA/RNA synthesis inhibition only inhibits DNA synthesis:

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Fluoropyrimidines has little activity against:

a)

Clinically important yeast

b)

Molds

c)

dimorphic fungi

d)

Neoformans

70.

Which drug causes severe dose dependent bone marrow depression and cutaneous eruption:

a)

Flucytosine

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Echinocandins

d)

Terbinafine

71.

What drug blocks cell division in metaphase

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Flucytosine

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Echinocandins

72.

What are possible effects of viral infections?

a)

Oncogenic mutation

b)

cell destruction

c)

budding viruses

d)

dormant infection

73.

where do most drugs target viruses?

a)

Host attachment

b)

Viral translation

c)

viral transcription

d)

post translation modifications

74.

Amantadine and Oseltamivir are used to treat:

a)

Influenza

b)

Herpes

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Bacterial infections

75.

What was the first useful herpes drug?

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Valacyclovir

c)

Famciclover

d)

ganciclover

76.

Which of the following are deoxygeuanosine derivatives?

a)

Famciclover

b)

Valacyvlovir

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Ganciclover

77.

Which of the following are examples of deoxythymidine derivatives

a)

Trifluridine

b)

Idoxuridine

c)

acyclovir

d)

famciclovir

78.

Topical toxicities ocur in:

a)

Deoxythymididine derivatives

b)

deoxyguanosine derivatives

79.

Famciclovir is given to treat:

a)

Feline herpes

b)

Influenza

c)

Blastomycosis

d)

FIP

80.

Treatment of feline herpes is limited to the actively replicating phase:

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Interferon can be used to treat:

a)

FeLV

b)

FIV

c)

FIP

d)

Influenza

82.

Although there is no evidence of efficacy ____ is used to treat FIP

a)

Interferon

b)

famciclovir

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Penciclovir

83.

which of the following is true of L-Lysine:

a)

May be effective in suppressing FHV-1

b)

May lessen viral shedding

c)

Shown effective in reducing upper respiratory tract infections caused by FHV-1

d)

Treatment used in acute infections

e)

Treatment used in chronic infections

84.

Which of the following is true regarding chlorampenicol:

a)

Highly lipid soluble - crosses BBB

b)

Long half lives

c)

Poor protein binding - more availablity

d)

pH does not influence distribution

e)

distributes well to extracellular fluids

85.

True or false: chloramphenicol is a good choice for brain or eye infections

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Phenicols:

a)

Bind 50s subunit and inhibit peptidyl transferase

b)

Binds 30s subunit and inhibit peptidyl transferase

c)

only inhibits peptidyl transferase

d)

only binds 50s subunit

87.

Chloramphenicol has activity against:

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

c)

Anaerobes

d)

some intracellular

88.

True or False: resistance to one chloramphenicol derivative predicts resistance to the others

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Which is the drug of choice for food animal medicine

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Florfenicol

90.

You should not use florfenicol in ___ due to it causing high bilirubin and diarrhea

a)

Horses

b)

Cattle

c)

Swine

d)

Sheep

91.

Chloramphenicol and florfenicol cause dose dependent bone marrow suppression

a)

True

b)

False

92.

A side effect of ___ is aplastic anemia

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

florfenicol

c)

Beta lactams

d)

Polyenes

93.

True or False: Clindimycin does not penetrate the BBB

a)

False

b)

True

94.

True or false: clinidmycin is resistant to all aerobes

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Cross resistance commonly occurs between:

a)

Lincosamides

b)

Streptogramin group B

c)

Macrolids

d)

Beta lactams

96.

Lincosamides have an additive effect when used with:

a)

Aminoglycoside

b)

Fluoroquinoline

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Itraconazole

97.

Lincosamides have an antagonist effect when used with:

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Macrolides

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Metronidazole

98.

Licosamide causes fatal diarrhea in:

a)

Horses

b)

Rabbits

c)

other herbivores

d)

Cats

e)

dogs

99.

True or false: lincosamides cause esophageal strictures in cats:

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Pirlimycin is used to commonly treat

a)

Mastitis

b)

Skin infections

c)

dental infections

d)

osteomyelitis

101.

Lincomycin is commonly used to treat:

a)

Dysentery

b)

Mycoplasma

c)

Erysipelas

d)

Streptococcal infections

e)

Controlling necrotic enteritis

102.

Clindamycin is commonly used to treat:

a)

Skin infections

b)

Prostate

c)

Dental infections

d)

Anaerobic infections

e)

osteomyelitis

103.

The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is defined as:

a)

The highest concentration of antimicrobial drug that kills the inoculum of bacteria

b)

The lowest concentration of antimicrobial drug that inhibits visible growth of bacteria

c)

The lowest concentration of antimicrobial drug that is used in a two fold dilution series

d)

the highest concentration of antimicrobial drug that is used I a dilution series to treat a patient

104.

True or False: It is recommended to perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing if topical antimicrobials are going to be used in a patient

a)

True

b)

False

105.

A cat is presented to you with a history of non healing abscess. The owner said it has been more than one month, but cannot remember the antibiotics the previous vet described. At the exam, you find that the abscess is caseous. How would you proceed?

a)

I will collect a surgical biopsy and request histopathology, aerobic, anaerobic, mycobacterium and fungal culture

b)

I would clean and rinse, and I will use a new round of antimicrobials using clindamycin

c)

At this point these is no reason to perform culture, I will use a broad spectrum antimicrobial

d)

I will collect a surgical biopsy for histopathology and a swab for aerobic culture

106.

Which of the following anti fungal drugs would be the first choice in treating disseminated blastomycosis?

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Itraconazole

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Flucytosine

107.

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the adverse effects of amphotericin B?

a)

It inhibits mammalian P450 enzymes

b)

It binds cholesterol in the membranes of renal tubular epithelial cells

c)

It concentrates in keratin

d)

It increased gastric acid secretion

108.

Which of the following drugs' mechanisms of action does not target ergosterol or ergosterol synthesis?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Itraconazole

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Griseofulvin

109.

Antiviral drugs such as idoxuridine alter the structure of viral DNA, but do not affect host cell DNA

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which of the following has protection status at OSU VMC?

a)

Vancomycin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

Cloramphenicol

d)

Pradoflaxacin

111.

Which of the following is the best definition of antibiogram

a)

a technique to masure the diameter of disk diffusion test

b)

a periodic summary of antimicrobial susceptibilities of local bacterial isolates submitted to the hospitals clinical microbiology laboratory

c)

a periodic summary of antimicrobial resistance of local bacterial isolates submitted to the hospitals clinical microbiology laboratory

d)

a periodic summary of antimicrobial prescriptions submitted to the hospitals pharmacy

112.

Which of the following is illegal to use in cattle

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Florfenicol

c)

Cephapirin

113.

Which of the following is not an important side effect of chloramphenicol

a)

aplastic anemia in humans

b)

peripheral neuropathy

c)

retinopathy in cats

d)

severe GI disturbances

114.

The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol and florfenicol is inhibition of the bacteria cell wall

a)

True

b)

False

Similar Resources on Wayground

Honors Bio EOC Review

116 questions

Honors Bio EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Human Physiology Final Review Sem 2

119 questions

Human Physiology Final Review Sem 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

BIOL 1215 Test 3 Review

118 questions

BIOL 1215 Test 3 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

CHAPTER 14: BIO

113 questions

CHAPTER 14: BIO

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

BIOCHEM FINAL TEST

110 questions

BIOCHEM FINAL TEST

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

The Nervous System Lecture

111 questions

The Nervous System Lecture

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

NAFT - Tema 1 - Puente y Bulbo Raquídeo

111 questions

NAFT - Tema 1 - Puente y Bulbo Raquídeo

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

BIO160 A&P Chapter 4-6 Study Guide

110 questions

BIO160 A&P Chapter 4-6 Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

University