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NUR112 Exam 3- Endocrine Disorders

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What Type of Diabetes is Preventable?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

2.

What type of diabetes requires insulin?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Both

d)

Neither

3.

The hormone produced by the pancreas is called (a)   .

4.

Addison's disease is caused by a decreased production of adrenal hormones. Symptoms include salt cravings (due to imbalance of sodium & potassium), hyperpigmentation and gastrointestinal distress. Which hormones would be involved in this disorder?

a)

Gastrin and thyroxine

b)

Prolactin and oxytocin

c)

Aldosterone and cortisol

d)

Adrenaline and Insulin

5.

Graves' disease impacts your metabolism. Symptoms include goiter, excessive sweating, intolerance to heat, anxiety, increased heart rate and bulging eyes. What endocrine gland is effected by it?

a)

Pituitary Gland

b)

Thyroid Gland

c)

Pineal Gland

d)

Adrenal Glands

6.

Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder where the body's own defenses attack the thyroid, causing hypothyroidism. What would be a side effect of Hashimoto's disease?

a)

An increase in the production of thyroid hormones

b)

A decrease in the production of thyroid hormones

c)

An increase in the production of parathyroid hormones

d)

A decrease in the production of parathyroid hormones

7.

Cushing's disease causes issues with blood pressure and blood sugar regulation and can cause obesity. This disease is caused by the excessive production of cortisol by the glands that are found on top of the kidneys. What are those glands called?

a)

Pineal Gland

b)

Thymus

c)

Pituitary Gland

d)

Adrenal Glands

8.
Dangerous complication of diabetes. Fats are burned, ketones build up and blood pH drops.
a)
Hashimoto's
b)
Cushing's
c)
Addisons
d)
ketoacidosis
9.
Swelling of the thyroid
a)
Acromegaly
b)
Gigantism
c)
Goiter
d)
Graves disease
10.
Masculinization of females
a)
Hirsutism
b)
Virilism
c)
Goiter
d)
Cushing's
11.
Presence of excessive facial hair in females
a)
virilism
b)
masculinization
c)
hirsutism
d)
myxedema
12.
Insulin not produced. body cannot metabolize sugar.
a)
Diabetes type II
b)
Diabetes insipidus
c)
Diabetes Type I
d)
Addisons
13.
Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex. Bronze skin, water and electrolyte problems.
a)
Cushing's 
b)
Addisons
c)
Graves
d)
Hashimoto's
14.
Insulin is being produced but cannot be used by the body. Sugar cannot be metabolized. Adult onset.
a)
Diabetes Type I
b)
Diabetes Insipidus
c)
Diabetes Type II
d)
Cushing's
15.
Autoimmune disease of the thyroid. Leads to hypothyroidism.
a)
Grave's
b)
Hashimoto's
c)
Cushing's
d)
Addison's
16.
Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones in an adult. Leads to high metabolism and bulging eyes.
a)
Addison's
b)
Cushing's
c)
Grave's
d)
Hashimoto's
17.
Bulging eyes.
a)
Cushing's
b)
Addison's
c)
virilism
d)
exopthalmos
18.
S/S: weight loss, nervousness, exopthalamus - caused by over secretion of thyroxine 
a)
Hyperthyroid
b)
Hypothyroid
c)
Hyperparathyroid
d)
Hypoparathyroid 
19.
S/S: darkening of skin, low BP, low blood sugar, weight loss - caused by under secretion of corticosteroids 
a)
Addison's Disease
b)
Cushing's 
c)
Steroid Abuse 
20.
S/S: weight gain (especially in face, midsection, and between shoulder blades), high blood pressure, high blood sugar - caused by over secretion of corticosteroids 
a)
Addison's Disease
b)
Cushing's Syndrome
c)
Steroid Abuse 
21.
•Symptoms: hyperglycemia, Polyuria (excessive urination), Polyphagia (excessive hunger), polydipsia (excessive thirst - caused by problem with insulin 
a)
Hyperthyroid
b)
Diabetes
c)
Hyperparathyroid
22.
which type of diabetes is usually diagnosed in obese people and can sometimes be treated with only weight loss and/or pills 
a)
Type 1
b)
Type 2 
23.
which type of diabetes is usually diagnosed as a child and requires treatment with insulin
a)
Type 1
b)
Type 2 
24.
a)
gigantism
b)
goiter
c)
Cushing's disease
d)
Addison's disease
25.
a)
Grave's
b)
Cushing's
c)
Addison's
d)
Goiter
26.
a)
too much cortisol
b)
not enough cortisol
c)
too much thyroxine (T4)
d)
too much calcitonin
27.

Which of the following is caused by a lack of iodine:

a)

tetany

b)

goiter

c)

diabetes insipidus

d)

Parkinson's disease

28.

This hormone produced by your adrenal glands is responsible for your ability to react to long term stress.

a)

epinephrine

b)

cortisol

c)

prolactin

d)

aldosterone

29.

An increased level of thyroxine would cause which of the following:

a)

myxedema

b)

Grave's disease

c)

Addison's disease

d)

Cretinism

30.

A young patient begins to lose weight and complains of constantly being thirsty. When assessed, the nurse completes a blood glucose analysis with a glucometer. The result is 329 mg/dL (elevated):

a)

diabetes insipidus

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

Addison’s disease

d)

hyperaldosteronism

31.

A middle aged female presents with a rounded face and a diffuse fatty deposit located on her upper back. The change occurred over the past two years and she had stated that she had not changed her diet or decreased her activity at all.

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Cushing’s syndrome

c)

hyperaldosteronism

d)

Grave’s disease

32.

A middle aged male presents with a complaint of feeling “burnt out”. He states he no longer has motivation or energy and gets lightheaded at times. He has hyperpigmentation (see photo). While checking his blood pressure the nurse determines that the patient has hypotension (low blood pressure).

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

tetany

c)

diabetes insipidus

d)

cretinism

33.

Which of the following is a glucocorticoid:

a)

aldosterone

b)

cortisol

c)

PTH

d)

ADH

34.

The beta cells of the pancreas are stimulated during hyperglycemia to produce:

a)

glucagon

b)

insulin

c)

calcitonin

d)

PTH

35.

Which of the following terms means excessive hair growth:

a)

exophthalmos

b)

myxedema

c)

hirsutism

d)

diuresis

36.

Which of the following terms means to break down glycogen into glucose:

a)

glucosuria

b)

glucagon

c)

gluconeogenesis

d)

glycogenolysis

37.

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are symptoms of:

a)

Addisons disease

b)

microangiopathy

c)

ovarian tumor

d)

Diabetes Mellitus

38.

Graves Disease is also known as

a)

hyperthyroidism

b)

hypothyroidism

c)

Addisons disease

d)

calcitriol

39.

Type I diabetes is caused by:

a)

tumor on the adrenal gland

b)

increased parathyroid hormone

c)

decreased calcitonin

d)

autoimmune reaction

40.

Increased amounts of glucocorticoids will cause symptoms of:

a)

Microcephaly

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Cushings syndrome

d)

Addisons disease

41.

Moon face, trunkal obesity and a "buffalo hump" are signs of

a)

Cushings syndrome

b)

gestational diabetes

c)

gigantism

d)

syndrome of inapprpriate antidiuretic hormone

42.

The Nurse is interviewing a client during admission to the hospital and the client gives information that is unclear to the nurse. What statement made by the nurse best demonstrates "seeking clarification"?

a)

"I don't know what you are talking about."

b)

"What did you say?"

c)

"We can move on to something else."

d)

"Would you please explain what you meant?"

43.

The nurse is caring for a young child who appears frightened. What activity can the nurse perform with the child to determine what the child is feeling?

a)

play dominoes

b)

draw pictures

c)

read a story

d)

watch a movie

44.

The nurse is assessing a client at the healthcare facility. Which therapeutic communication technique helps to communicate to the client that the nurse has understood the client's problem?

a)

clarification

b)

reflection

c)

summarization

d)

paraphrasing

45.

What are the verbal barriers to communication?

Select all that apply

a)

offering empty reassurances

b)

changing the subject

c)

disapproving of or judging the client

d)

voicing personal experiences

46.

(a)   communication is that which stops the communication process or is perceived as a threat by the client.

47.

Is the one decodes the message.

a)

Sender

b)

Receiver

c)

Encoder

d)

Talker

48.

Is the one who delivers the message.

a)

Sender

b)

Receiver

c)

Decoder

d)

Listener

49.

Insulin is produced by the _________ in the ____________.

a)

alpha cells, pancreas

b)

beta cells, pancreas

c)

alpha cells, liver

d)

beta cells, liver

50.

[SELECT ALL THAT APPLY] Which of the following are examples of rapid acting insulin?

a)

Humalog

b)

Apidra

c)

Novolog

d)

Humulin NPH

e)

Humulin R

51.

Mixed insulins such as Humulin 70/30 contain which of the following ingredients?

a)

70% insulin, 30% protamine

b)

70% NPH, 30% regular

c)

70% regular, 30% NPH

d)

70% protamine, 30% insulin

52.

This insulin is cloudy in the vial. (Select all that apply.)

a)

NPH insulin

b)

Insulin glargine

c)

Insulin detemir

d)

Insulin degludec

53.

This is the mealtime (bolus) insulin with the longest onset time.

a)

Insulin Aspart

b)

Insulin Lispro

c)

Insulin Glulisine

d)

NPH insulin

e)

Regular human insulin

54.

The short acting human insulins have

a)

Onset of action in 30-60 mins

b)

Duration of action of 10-12 hours

c)

Onset of action in 60-90 mins

d)

Duration of action of 7-8 hours

55.

Normal fasting blood glucose levels are

a)

100 - 126 mg/dl

b)

70 - 100 mg/dl

c)

126 mg/dl and over

d)

less than 70 mg/dl

56.

First line treatment for diabetes with an A1C of less than 7.5 on diagnosis.

a)

Insulin

b)

Pioglitazone (Actos)

c)

Metformin

d)

Glimepiride (Micronase)

57.

A1C goal for treatment is

a)

6.5

b)

Under 7..

c)

8.0-8.5

d)

Under 9

58.

Which of the following has the longest duration of action?

a)

Humalog

b)

Novolog

c)

70/30

d)

Lantus (Glargine)

59.

The most common form of diabetes. It is a progressive condition in which the cells becomes resistant to normal function of insulin. Pancreas gradually loses the capacity to produce enough insulin.

a)

Type 1 Diabetes

b)

Type 2 Diabetes

60.

Which is/are the symptoms of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Blurred vision

b)

Being excessively thirsty

c)

Having cuts that heal slowly

d)

Always feel hungry

e)

All of the above

61.

............. reflects the average level of blood glucose over the previous 1-2 months

a)

Serum fructosamine

b)

Serum glycated hemoglobin

c)

Insulin

d)

Blood glucose level

62.

Late systemic complications of DM

a)

Hypoglyceima

b)

Ketoacidosis

c)

Nephropathy

d)

Hyperomolar nonketotic coma

63.
Type of cells that make insulin
a)
Beta cells 
b)
Alpha cells
c)
Omega cells 
d)
Insulin cells
64.
A protein hormone secreted by pancreatic endocrine cells that raises blood glucose levels; an antagonistic hormone to insulin.
a)
Glucagon
b)
Insulin
c)
Glucose
d)
Hormone
65.
Diabetes of a form that develops especially in adults and most often obese individuals and that is characterized by high blood glucose resulting from impaired insulin utilization coupled with the body’s inability to compensate with increased insulin production. 
a)
Positive Feedback
b)
Negative Feedback
c)
Type 1 Diabetes
d)
Type 2 Diabetes
66.
This organ stores glygogen
a)
Pancreas
b)
Liver
c)
Small Intestine
d)
Spleen
67.

Blood glucose comes mostly from the _________ that we eat

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

fats

d)

fibers

68.

Which of the following guidelines are NOT true for diabetic people?

a)

They must consume more simple carbohydrates than complex carbohydrates

b)

They should divide their carbohydrates throughout their meals

c)

They should eat carbohydrates as part of a complete meal

d)

They include exercise in their daily life

69.

True or False: Artificial sweeteners (like aspartame & sucralose) increase blood sugar

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which of the following is NOT a source of complex carbohydrates?

a)

Pasta

b)

Rice

c)

Potato

d)

Banana

71.

True or False: Hypoglycaemia can happen in diabetics if they exercise too hard

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Blood glucose levels respond to food, particularly carbohydrates. What other factors can affect blood glucose levels?

a)

Physical activity

b)

Illness

c)

Stress

d)

All of the above

73.

Which is/are the symptoms of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Blurred vision

b)

Being excessively thirsty

c)

Having cuts that heal slowly

d)

Always feel hungry

e)

All of the above

74.

All people that have diabetes are overweight

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Which of the following is an injectable medication for type 2 diabetes?

a)

Exenatide (Byetta)

b)

Sitagliptin (Januvia)

c)

Dapagliflozin (Farxiga)

d)

Glimepiride (Amaryl)

76.

What medication is used to treat pregnant women with diabetes?

a)

Regular Insulin

b)

Lantus

c)

Exenatide (Byetta)

d)

Sitagliptin (Januvia)

77.

Which of the following has the longest duration of action?

a)

Humalog

b)

Novolog

c)

70/30

d)

Lantus (Glargine)

78.

Metformin works by

a)

Improving insulin sensitivity

b)

Help pancreas to release more insulin

c)

Slow digestion and release glucose slowly

d)

Prevent kidneys from reabsorbing sugar

79.

Sulfonylurea works by

a)

Improving insulin sensitivity

b)

Help pancreas to release more insulin

c)

Slow digestion and release glucose slowly

d)

Prevent kidneys from reabsorbing sugar

80.

GLP-1 receptor agonists works by

a)

Improving insulin sensitivity

b)

Help pancreas to release more insulin

c)

Slow digestion and release glucose slowly

d)

Prevent kidneys from reabsorbing sugar

81.

SGLT2 inhibitors work by

a)

Improving insulin sensitivity

b)

Help pancreas to release more insulin

c)

Slow digestion and release glucose slowly

d)

Prevent kidneys from reabsorbing sugar

82.

Pre-diabetes patients are classified as having a HgbA1c of

a)

4.9 - 5.6%

b)

5.7-6.4%

c)

6.5-7.5%

83.

Patients who are meeting treatment goals should be tested

a)

Every 3 months

b)

Quarterly

c)

Once per year

d)

2 times per year

84.

What is the preferred treatment for unconscious hypoglycemic patients

a)

Glucose tablets

b)

4oz regular soda

c)

Hard Candies

d)

Glucagon

85.

Glucagon can be administered IM or IN in what dose?

a)

1g

b)

1mEq

c)

1mg

d)

1L

86.

DKA patients ultimately need

a)

multiple fluid bolus

b)

antibiotic

c)

no treatment

d)

insulin therapy and often require an insulin drip

87.

Which of the following acid base abnormality is seen in DKA?

a)

Respiratory Alkalosis

b)

Respiratory Acidosis

c)

Metabolic Acidosis

d)

Metabolic Alkalosis

88.

Which of the following tests are needed to confirm a diagnosis of DKA

a)

Blood gas analysis

b)

Serum or capillary ketones

c)

Blood sugar level

d)

All of above

89.

Treatment of DKA involves:

a)

Insulin infusion

b)

Fluids

c)

Potassium replacement

d)

All of above

90.

Risk factors for Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Being overweight/ obese

b)

Prediabetes condition

c)

Gestational diabetes (Diabetes semasa mengandung)

d)

Family history with diabetes

e)

Always consume sweet food

91.

Choose foods that contain simple carbohydrate

a)

Traditional kuih

b)

Bakery and pastry

c)

Dessert

d)

Wholegrain bread

92.

Choose another name of sugar in the food label

a)

Maltose

b)

Dextrose

c)

Mannitol

d)

High Fructose Corn Syrup

e)

Tamarind

93.
All of the following are diabetic complications related to the eyes EXCEPT
a)
Cataracts
b)
Retinopathy
c)
Conjunctivitis
d)
Glaucoma
94.
Which of these condition/s are associated with OR can result from neuropathy ?
I      Dry Skin
II     Foot Ulcers
III    Gangrene
IV   Nerve Damage
a)
I, II, III
b)
II, III, IV
c)
IV only
d)
I, III, IV
95.

The nurse is caring for a 54–year–old client who is hospitalized with diabetes mellitus. Which laboratory test results would provide info related to the client’s past glucose control?

a)

Prealbumin level

b)

Urine ketone level

c)

Fasting glucose level

d)

Glycosylated hemoglobin level

96.

The nurse is evaluating a client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following symptoms reported by the client is considered one of the classic clinical manifestations of diabetes?

a)

Excessive thirst

b)

Gradual weight gain

c)

Overwhelming fatigue

d)

Recurrent blurred vision

97.

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes mellitus who has a glucose level of 21.1 mmol/L and a moderate level of ketones in the urine. As the nurse assesses for signs of ketoacidosis, which of the following respiratory patterns would the nurse expect to find?

a)

Central apnea

b)

Hypoventilation

c)

Kussmaul’s respirations

d)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

98.

The nurse has taught a client admitted with diabetes, cellulitis, and osteomyelitis about the principles of foot care. The nurse evaluates that the client understands the principles of foot care if the client makes which of the following statements?

a)

“I should walk barefoot only in nice dry weather.”

b)

“I should look at the condition of my feet every day.”

c)

“I am lucky my shoes fit so nice and tight because they give me firm support.”

d)

“When I am allowed up out of bed, I should check the shower water with my toes.”

99.

An extreme fear of being in an open, public place is called what?

a)

Acrophobia

b)

Claustrophobia

c)

Monophobia

d)

Agoraphobia

100.

A person who has generalized anxiety disorder would have which of the following?

a)

Vague feeling of being in danger

b)

Muscle tension

c)

Poor appetite

d)

Difficulty sleeping

101.

Apprehension of danger and dread accompanied by restlessness, tension, tachycardia, and dyspnea unattached to a clearly identifiable stimulus.

a)

phobia

b)

fear

c)

anxiety

d)

frustration

102.

This anxiety disorder Includes short, sudden attacks of fear, fear of losing control, or terrors.

a)

generalized anxiety disorder

b)

social anxiety disorder

c)

agoraphobia

d)

panic disorder

103.

This anxiety disorder is characterized by Irrational fears that lead individuals often to avoid certain objects and specific situations all together.Irrational fears that lead individuals often to avoid certain objects and specific situations all together.

a)

general anxiety disorder

b)

agoraphobia

c)

phobia

d)

social anxiety disorder

104.

This anxiety disorder is diagnosed if an individual l has excessive worry and anxiety which occurs more often than not for at least 6 months.

a)

generalized anxiety disorder

b)

phobia

c)

panic disorder

d)

social anxiety disorder

105.

What is anxiety?

a)

a) When a person is happy and excited

b)

b) Is your body's natural response to stress

c)

c) when you speak to your friend

d)

d) a time period that we have when we start to cry

106.

1. A type of anxiety disorder wherein the individual worries too much, and unable to control this focus on worry, with clinical manifestations such as, uneasiness, fatigue, irritability and restlessness.

a)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b)

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

c)

Panic Disorder

d)

Phobic Disorder

107.

2. Composed of discrete episodes of attack, that is rapid, intense, escalating anxiety in which the person experiences great emotional fear as well as physiologic discomfort.

a)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b)

Obsessive-compulsive Disorder

c)

Panic Disorder

d)

Phobic Disorder

108.

3. It is an illogical, intense, and persistent fear of a specific object or a social situation that causes extreme distress and interferes with normal functioning.

a)

Generalized Anxiety disorder

b)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

Panic Disorder

d)

Phobic Disorder

109.

what happens when a person suffers from a panic attack?

a)

They feel suffocating

b)

They can dye

c)

They drink coffee

d)

They might experience chest pains

e)

They have a headache

110.

anxiolytics (antianxiety)

a)

ibuprofen

b)

linsinopril

c)

clonidine

d)

lorazepam

111.

True or False: Psychopharmacology is the use of drugs to control or relieve the symptoms of psychological disorders

a)

True

b)

False

112.

These drugs are minor tranquilizers such as Xanax, Ativan, and Valium. They have a sedative effect, and a potential for addiction and abuse.

a)

Antianxiety

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Antipsychotic

d)

Mood Stabilizers

113.

Which nursing statement is a good example of the therapeutic communication technique of focusing?

a)

“I’m having a difficult time understanding what you mean.”

b)

“Describe one of the best things that happened to you this week.”

c)

“You mentioned your relationship with your father. Let’s discuss that further.”

d)

“Your counseling session is in 30 minutes. I’ll stay with you until then.”

114.

After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, “You are incompetent!” Which is the nurse’s best response?

a)

“Do you believe that I was the cause of your blood test being canceled?”

b)

“I see that you are upset, but I feel uncomfortable when you swear at me.”

c)

“I'll give you some space. Let me know if you need anything.”

d)

“Have you ever thought about ways to express anger appropriately?”

115.

A client on an inpatient psychiatric unit tells the nurse, “I should have died because I am totally worthless.” In order to encourage the client to continue talking about feelings, which should be the nurse’s initial response?

a)

“You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?”

b)

“You feel worthless now, but that can change with time.”

c)

“How would your family feel if you died?”

d)

“It is great that you have come in for help.”

116.

A client states, “You won’t believe what my husband said to me during visiting hours. He has no right treating me that way.” Which nursing response would best assess the situation that occurred?

a)

“Describe what happened during your time with your husband.”

b)

“Why do you think he behaved like that?”

c)

“What do you think is your role in this relationship?”

d)

“Does your husband treat you like this very often?”

117.

Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations?

a)

“I wouldn't worry about these voices. The medication will make them disappear.”

b)

“My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices.”

c)

“I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices.”

d)

“Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted.”

118.

The basis for a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship begins with the nurses

a)

acceptance of others.

b)

sincere desire to help others.

c)

self-awareness and understanding.

d)

sound knowledge of psychiatric nursing

119.

Which is a NON-therapeutic technique?

a)

Using silence

b)

Restating

c)

Presenting reality

d)

Agreeing

120.

Which is a therapeutic technique?

a)

Probing

b)

Reflecting

c)

Rejecting

d)

Defending

121.

In which phase of the nurse-patient relationship is active listening the most important?

a)

During the termination phase

b)

During the working phase

c)

During the orientation phase/1

d)

During the planning phase

122.

It is the nurse's responsibility to establish a therapeutic relationship with the client. Which of the following is the appropriate body position for therapeutic communication?

a)

Legs crossed

b)

hands of the side of the body/2

c)

Lack of eye intact

d)

Eye rolling

123.

When interviewing a client, which nonverbal behavior should a nurse employ?

a)

Maintaining indirect eye contact with the client

b)

Providing space by leaning back away from the client

c)

Sitting squarely, facing the client/3

d)

Maintaining open posture with arms and legs crossed

124.

Communication is defined as...

a)

Exchanging information, thought or ideas in written

b)

Exchanging information, thought or ideas by phone

c)

Exchanging information, thought or ideas using speech

d)

Exchanging information, thought or idea using speech, writing or using body languages.

125.

purpose of communication is to...

a)

Develop rapport with client

b)

Explain the procedure

c)

Initiate intervention for plan of care

d)

All above

126.

Goals of effectives communication EXCEPT

a)

Develop trust

b)

Personal interest

c)

Facilitate client understanding

d)

encourage acceptance of responsibility

127.

A parent tells the pediatric nurse practitioner, “I’ve never told anyone this information about my son. ” This is an example of:

a)

Revealing

b)

Building trust

c)

Clarifying roles

d)

Identifying problems and goals

128.

Which of the following actions would the nurse take when using the communication technique of active learning? SATA

a)

Use an open posture

b)

write down what the client says to avoid missing anything

c)

establish and maintain eye contact

d)

nod in agreement with the client the entire time

e)

respond positively when giving feedback