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Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is the ability of a drug to exist in two or more crystalline form:

a)

Chirality

b)

Polymorphism

c)

Stereoisomerism

d)

None of these

2.

Arrange the following dosage forms from highest to lowest dissolution rate:

I. Solution II. Capsule III. Suspension IV. Tablet

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

I, III, II, IV

c)

IV, III, II, I

d)

IV, II, III, I

3.

All of the following statements are true regarding particle size of a drug, EXCEPT:

a)

Reducing the particle size can decrease the surface are the molecule exposed to the solvent.

b)

Reduction of particle size can be achieved by micronisation using jet mill, spray drying and air attrition

methods.

c)

The dissolution of some drugs available in the market has been improved by reducing the particle

size.

d)

Reducing the particle size of a drug may increase drug absorption.

4.

Which of the following may increase the drug dissolution rate?

I. Too much binder

II. Insoluble diluents

III. High amount of lubricants

a)

I only

b)

I and II

c)

II and III

d)

I, II, and III

e)

None of these

5.

Which of the following is not true regarding the purpose of tablet coating?

a)

Improves palatability

b)

Improve aesthetic value of tablet

c)

Improve stability

d)

Improve in-vivo degradation

6.

A surface-active agent that facilitates the absorption of lipophilic drugs or water-insoluble drugs

a)

Bile

b)

Albumin

c)

Renin

d)

Gastric Acid

7.

Phase 2 metabolism that protects the body against chemically reactive metabolites

a)

Sulfate conjugation

b)

Glutathione conjugation

c)

Methylation

d)

Acetylation

e)

Glycine conjugation

8.

All of the following listed below are processes of drug excretion, EXCEPT:

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active secretion

c)

Tubular secretion

d)

Tubular reabsorption

e)

None of these

9.

It is the basic functional unit of the kidney

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Nephron

d)

Collecting tubule

10.

Creatinine clearance of a patient with kidney failure

a)

60-89 mL

b)

30-59 mL

c)

15-29 mL

d)

<15ml

11.

Which of the following drugs listed below will increase its clearance at alkaline urine?

I. Amphetamine

II. Imipramine

III. Barbiturates

IV. Salicylic acid

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

II and III

d)

All of these

12.

Which of the following correctly describes ion trapping

a)

Changing the pH of urine used to facilitate the elimination of drug that proved to be toxic to a patient

or has been taken in overdosed amount

b)

Administration of acidic drug to neutralize am alkaline poison in the stomach

c)

Alkalinizing the urine to facilitate excretion of weakly basic drugs

d)

None of these

13.

Discipline that applies Pharmacokinetic concepts and principles in humans in order to design individualized dosage regimens that optimize the therapeutic response of medication while minimizing the chance of an adverse drug reaction

a)

Clinical toxicology

b)

Clinical pharmacy

c)

Clinical Pharmacokinetics

d)

Pharmacotherapeutics

14.

Chemical conversion of the drug molecule, usually by an enzymatically mediated reaction, into another chemical entity referred to as a metabolite

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism

d)

Excretion

15.

Volume of serum or blood completely cleared of the drug per unit time

a)

Volume of distribution

b)

Clearance

c)

Elimination

d)

Plasma concentration

16.

Hypothetical volume that relates drug serum concentrations to the amount of drug in the body

a)

Volume of distribution

b)

Clearance

c)

Drug Elimination

d)

Plasma concentration

17.

All of the following factors affects the volume of distribution of drug, EXCEPT

a)

Volume of blood

b)

Size of various organs and tissue in the body

c)

Protein binding

d)

Physicochemical properties of drug

e)

None of these

18.

The fraction of administered dose that is delivered to the systemic circulation is known as the

a)

Loading Dose

b)

Maintenance Dose

c)

Bioavailability

d)

Active Dose

19.

Below is an example of

a)

Dose response curve

b)

Plasma level time curve

c)

Quantal dose response curve

d)

none of these

20.

All of the following are true regarding the rate of drug distribution, EXCEPT:

a)

The rate of drug distribution will be faster in highly perfuse tissues

b)

The blood brain barrier(BBB) prevents the distribution of many polar compounds in the blood to the

brain tissues

c)

Only the lipophilic compounds can distribute across BBB by passive diffusion

d)

The equilibrium between the drug in the blood and the drug in highly perfused tissues is achieved

slower than the equilibrium between the drug in blood and the poorly perfused tissues

e)

none of these

21.

Which of the following factors affect drug distribution?

1. Blood perfusion

2. Tissue composition

3. Plasma protein binding

4 Physicochemical properties of drug

a)

1 only

b)

1 & 2

c)

2 & 3

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

e)

none of these

22.

Technique in the determination of drug plasma protein binding that utilizes a special dialysis chamber that is separated into two halves by a semipermeable membrane that allows the transfer of the free drug molecule but not the drug bound to protein.

a)

Ultrafiltration

b)

Equilibrium dialysis

c)

Hemodialysis

d)

None of these

23.

Which of the following statements are true regarding volume of distribution (Vd) ?

a)

Relates the amount of absorbed drug with the amount of eliminated drug

b)

Total volume of the drug absorbed

c)

Drugs that are highly distributed

into the tissues have low Vd

d)

Drugs that are highly bound to plasma protein have low Vd

e)

all of these

24.

Elimination of a drug refers to:

I. Excretion of unchanged drug in the urine

II. Renal excretion of drug

III. Uptake of a drug from the blood into the liver

IV. Metabolism of drugs in the liver

V. Distribution of drug into fat

a)

I & II

b)

II & III

c)

II & IV

d)

III & IV

25.

The loading dose of a drug is determined by:

I. Drug clearance

II. Elimination rate

III. Target plasma drug concentration

IV. Volume of distribution

V. Duration of drug effect

a)

I & II

b)

II & III

c)

III & IV

d)

none of these

26.

Half-life:

I. Increases as the clearance increases

II. Decreases as the volume of distribution increases

III. Decreases as clearance increases

IV. Increases as volume of distribution increases

V. Increases as the elimination rate increases

a)

I, II

b)

II, III

c)

IV, V

d)

III, IV

27.

After a single dose of a drug which has a half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of the dose is still in the body after 1 day?

a)

87.5%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

50%

28.

Which of the following routes of administration completely avoid first pass clearance?

I. Buccal

II. Sublingual

III. Rectal

IV. Oral

V. Transdermal

a)

I, II

b)

I, II, III

c)

I, II, IV

d)

I, II, V

e)

III, IV

29.

The term linear pharmacokinetic means:

I. A plot of drug concentration vs. time is linear

II. Half-life increases proportionally with dose

III. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time

IV. Clearance is proportional to the dose

V. Steady state drug concentration is proportional to the dose

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

V

d)

II, IV

e)

III

30.

Which of the following process are saturable and can result in non-linear pharmacokinetics?

I. Drug metabolism

II. Glomerular filtration

III. Protein binding

IV. Renal tubular secretion

a)

I

b)

II, III, IV

c)

I, II, IV

d)

I, III, IV

31.

The study of the time course of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is called:

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Drug concentration

c)

Pharmacokinetics

d)

Biopharmaceutics

e)

Kinetics Homogeneity

32.

The application of pharmacokinetic principles to the safe and effective therapeutic management of drugs in and individual patient is known as:

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Pharmacokinetics

c)

Clinical pharmacokinetics

d)

Biopharmaceutics

33.

Pharmacodynamics refers to the relationship of drug:

a)

Dose to drug concentration in plasma

b)

Dose to drug concentration at the receptor site

c)

Concentration to drug effect

d)

Dose to drug effect

e)

None of these

34.

The EC50 refers to the drug concentration at which:

a)

One-half the maximum response is achieved.

b)

The maximal effect is achieved.

c)

Tolerance is likely to be observed.

d)

Minimum effective concentration

e)

Minimum toxic concentration

35.

An example of a situation that would not support therapeutic drug concentration monitoring with plasma drug concentrations would be one in which:

a)

A wide variation in plasma drug concentrations is achieved in different patients given a standard drug dose.

b)

The toxic plasma concentration is many

times the therapeutic concentration range.

c)

Both of them

d)

None of them

36.

The most commonly used model in clinical pharmacokinetic situations is the:

a)

One-compartment model

b)

Two-compartment model

c)

Multicompartment model

d)

All of these

37.

Instantaneous distribution to most body tissues and fluids is assumed in which of the following models?

a)

One-compartment model

b)

Two-compartment model

c)

Multicompartment model

d)

all of these

38.

For a drug that has first-order elimination and follows a one-compartment model, which of the following plots would result in a curved line?

a)

Plasma concentration versus time

b)

Natural log of plasma concentration

versus time

c)

Common log of plasma concentration

versus time

d)

None of them

39.

For the body fluid compartments below, rank them from the lowest volume to the highest, in a typical 70-kg person.

a)

Plasma < extracellular fluid < intracellular fluid < total body water

b)

Extracellular fluid < intracellular fluid <

plasma < total body water

c)

Intracellular fluid < extracellular fluid <

plasma < total body water

40.

All of the following are true regarding clearance, EXCEPT

I. The unit for clearance is volume/time

II. Total body clearance is the sum of clearance by the kidneys, liver, and other routes of elimination

III. To determine drug clearance, we must first determine whether a drug best fits one or two compartment model

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

II, III

41.

With a drug that follows first-order elimination, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time:

a)

Remains constant while the fraction of drug eliminated decreases

b)

Increases while the fraction of drug

eliminated remains constant.

c)

Decreases while the fraction of drug

eliminated remains constant.

d)

none of these

42.

Which of the following is a proper unit for 1st order elimination rate constant?

a)

minutes

b)

mg/minute

c)

mg/L

d)

hr

43.

Trapezoidal rule method is used in the computation of:

a)

K

b)

T1/2

c)

AUC

d)

Vd

44.

Which of the following are true regarding AUC?

I. Can be used to determine drug clearance

II. Reflects the amount of drug absorbed

III. Dose administered divided by the drug's clearance

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

all of these

45.

Gentamicin has a t1⁄2 of:

a)

39 hours

b)

22 hours

c)

7 hours

d)

2-3 hours

46.

The time between administration of doses is the:

a)

Onset time

b)

Dosing range

c)

Dosing interval

d)

tmax

47.

The point at which the amount of drug administered over a dosing interval equals the amount of drug being eliminated over that same period and is totally dependent on the elimination rate constant

a)

Rate constant

b)

Steady state

c)

Elimination

d)

Absorption phase

48.

Steady-state concentration can be increase by adjusting which of the following parameters?

I. t1⁄2

II. Dose administered

III. Dosing interval

a)

I

b)

II

c)

II, III

d)

all of these

49.

This method of giving multiple doses by infusion at specified intervals is called:

a)

IV bolus

b)

Intermittent IV infusion

c)

Multiple infusion

50.

For a drug regimen, if the elimination rate (K) of a drug is reduced while volume of distribution, drug dose, and dosing interval remain constant, the peak and trough concentrations will:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remains the same

d)

none of these

51.

Method used in toxicokinetics and for the extrapolation of therapeutic drug doses in humans from nonclinical animal

drug studies.

a)

Interspecies scaling

b)

Toxicological extrapolation

c)

Linear analysis

d)

none of these

52.

A condition in which glomerular filtration is impaired or reduced, leading to accumulation of excessive fluid and blood nitrogenous products in the body.

a)

Cystitis

b)

Uremia

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Hypovolemia

53.

Common cause of kidney failure, EXCEPT:

I. Pyelonephritis

II. Hypotension

III. Diabetes mellitus

IV. Nephroallergens

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III, IV

d)

I, II

54.

A fructose polysaccharide used as a standard reference for the measurement of GFR:

a)

chitosan

b)

inulin

c)

chitin

d)

cellulose

55.

The normal blood urea nitrogen for a patient is:

a)

1-10 mg/dL

b)

10-20 mg/dL

c)

20-30 mg/dL

d)

30-40 mg/dL

56.

Which of the following are true regarding creatinine clearance?

I. Volume of plasma cleared of creatinine per unit time

II. Calculated directly by dividing rate of urinary excretion of creatinine by the patient's serum creatinine concentration

III. Creatinine clearance is expressed in mL/min and serum creatinine concentration in mg/dL or mg%

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

all of these

57.

Stage of kidney disease with creatinine clearance of 30-59 mL/min

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

e)

Stage 5

58.

Patients with mild decrease in glomerular filtration rate has a creatinine clearance of:

a)

> 90 mL/min

b)

60-89 mL/min

c)

30-59 mL/min

d)

15-29 mL/min

e)

< 15 mL/min

59.

An artificial process in which the accumulation of drugs or waste metabolites is removed by diffusion from the body

into the specialized fluid

a)

Dialysis

b)

Hemodiffusion

c)

Ultrafiltration

d)

all of these

60.

Uses a dialysis machine and filters blood through an artificial membrane. It requires access to the blood vessels to allow the blood to flow to the dialysis machine and back to the body.

a)

Hemodialysis

b)

Peritoneal dialysis

c)

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

d)

Hemoperfusion

61.

A process by which fluids, electrolytes, and small molecular weight substances are removed from the blood by means of low pressure flow through hollow artificial fibers or flat plate membranes

a)

Hemodialysis

b)

Peritoneal dialysis

c)

Hemofiltration

d)

Hemoperfusion

62.

Hepatic metabolic marker found in liver and many other tissues, including cardiac and skeletal muscles:

a)

ALT

b)

ALP

c)

AST

d)

SGPT

63.

Hepatic metabolic marker that is only specific on liver:

a)

ALT

b)

ALP

c)

AST

d)

SGPT

e)

ALT, SGPT

64.

Patients having liver disease have the following pharmacokinetic characteristics except:

a)

Increase drug protein binding

b)

Decreased drug metabolism

c)

Increase drug half-life

d)

Increase Vd for hydrophilic drugs

65.

Pregnancy category wherein there is a positive evidence of risk in taking the drug but the benefit in taking the drug

outweighs the risk.

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

66.

Pharmacokinetic behavior of geriatric patients:

I. Impaired absorption

II. Slow metabolism

III. Prolonged drug half-life

a)

I

b)

II, III

c)

III

d)

all of these

67.

All of the following are true regarding capacity limited excretion, EXCEPT:

a)

Passive secretion and passive reabsorption are saturable processes

b)

Saturated tubular secretion decreases ClR

c)

Saturated tubular reabsorption increases ClR

d)

none of these

68.

Example of a drug that exhibits saturable protein binding:

I. Nicardipine

II. Propranolol

III. Amoxicillin

a)

I, II

b)

I

c)

II, III

d)

all of these

69.

The following parameters listed below can be adjusted when designing a multiple dosage regimen except:

a)

Size of dose administered

b)

Drug protein binding

c)

Dosing interval

d)

none of these

70.

The initial step in the elimination process via the kidney occurs in the:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Nephron

c)

Distal tubule

d)

proximal tubule

71.

The capacity of the body to eliminate the drug after it has reached the general circulation is reflected by the:

a)

Total clearance

b)

Volume of distribution

c)

Biliary recycling

d)

AUC

72.

The process of drug metabolism and excretion constitute:

a)

Deposition

b)

Elimination

c)

Accumulation

d)

Biotransformation

73.

True about enzyme induction:

I. Low therapeutic levels of active drug (decrease drug efficacy)

II. Prodrug (decrease in efficacy)

III. Toxic metabolite (decrease in toxicity)

a)

I

b)

II, III

c)

I,II

d)

none of these

74.

Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are utilized in Phase I Metabolism?

I. CYP3A4

II. UDP glucuronosyl acyltransferase

III. N-acetyltransferase

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

I, III

75.

Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are utilized in Phase II Metabolism?

I. CYP3A4

II. UDP glucuronosyl acyltransferase

III. N-acetyltransferase

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

I, III

76.

A lipophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

a)

High reabsorption in renal tubules

b)

Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis

c)

Low permeatation through the

blood-brain barrier

d)

Low ability to penetrate through the

cell membrane lipids

77.

The plasma level time curve below follows what compartment model?

a)

One compartment

b)

Two compartment

c)

Three compartment

d)

all of them

78.

Drug Clearance:

I. A measure of drug elimination from the body

II. Drug clearance refers to the volume of plasma fluid that is cleared of drug per unit

III. Clearance may also be considered as the fraction of drug removed per unit time multiplied by the rate constant

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

I, III

79.

Volume of distribution:

I. The theoretical volume that would be necessary to contain the total amount of an administered drug at the same concentration that is observed in the plasma

II. Indicator of the extent of drug distribution into body fluids and tissues

III. Important in calculation of drug dose

a)

I, II

b)

II, III

c)

I, III

d)

all of these

80.

The amount of drug A is decreasing at a rate that is proportional to the amount of drug A

a)

Non-linear pharmacokinetics

b)

1st order

c)

Zero order

d)

Enzyme kinetics

81.

Procedures employing test apparatus and equipment without involving laboratory animals or humans.

a)

In-vivo

b)

In-silico

c)

In-vitro

d)

Ex-vivo

82.

Release of the drug substance from the drug product either for local drug action or for drug absorption into the plasma for systemic therapeutic activity

a)

Drug product performance

b)

Pharmacokinetics

c)

Biopharmaceutics

d)

Pharmacodynamics

83.

Biopharmaceutics examines the interrelationship of the following, EXCEPT:

I. Physical/chemical properties of the drug

II. The dosage form (drug product) in which the drug is given

III. Route of administration

IV. Rate and extent of systemic drug absorption.

a)

I

b)

II, III

c)

IV

d)

none of these

84.

Oral, topical, parenteral, transdermal, inhalation are examples of:

a)

Dosage form

b)

Route of administration

c)

Therapeutic effect

d)

none of these

85.

Application of pharmacokinetic principles to the design, conduct and interpretation of drug safety evaluation studies and in validating dose related exposure in animals.

a)

Toxicokinetics

b)

Biopharmaceutics

c)

Pharmacodynamics

d)

Pharmacokinetics

86.

Include sampling blood, spinal fluid, synovial fluid, tissue biopsy, or any biologic material that requires parenteral or

surgical intervention in the patient.

a)

In-vitro methods

b)

Invasive methods

c)

Ex-vivo methods

d)

none of these

87.

The noncellular liquid fraction of whole blood and contains all the proteins including albumin

a)

platelet

b)

serum

c)

plasma

d)

fibrin

88.

Liquid obtained from whole blood after the blood is allowed to clot and the clot is removed. Does not contain the cellular elements, fibrinogen, or the other clotting factors from the blood.

a)

platelet

b)

serum

c)

plasma

d)

fibrin

89.

Difference between the onset time and the time for the drug to decline back to the MEC.

a)

Duration of action

b)

Onset time

c)

AUC

d)

Cmax

90.

Corresponds to the time required for the drug to reach the MEC

a)

Duration of action

b)

onset time

c)

AUC

d)

Cmax

91.

The plasma level time curve below portrays a drug that is administered in what route of administration?

a)

IV bolus

b)

oral

c)

IV infusion

d)

IM

92.

Presence of drug in this sample may reflect drug that has not been absorbed after an oral dose or may relfect drug

that has been expelled by biliary secretion after systemic absorption.

a)

feces

b)

urine

c)

saliva

d)

sweat

93.

Which of the following are functions of pharmacokinetic models?

I. Predict plasma, tissue, and urine drug levels with any dosage regimen

II. Calculate the optimum dosage regimen for each patient individually

III. Evaluate differences in the rate or extent of availability between formulations

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

all of these

94.

Unit for zero order rate constant:

a)

Concentration/time

b)

Drug/volume

c)

Volume/time

d)

Concentration x time

95.

Unit for clearance:

a)

Concentration/time

b)

Drug/volume

c)

Volume/time

d)

Concentration x time

96.

Unit for plasma drug concentration

a)

Concentration/time

b)

Drug/volume

c)

Volume/time

d)

Concentration x time

97.

Unit for area under the curve

a)

Concentration/time

b)

Drug/volume

c)

Volume/time

d)

Concentration x time

98.

Unit for 1st order rate constant:

a)

Concentration/time

b)

Drug/volume

c)

1/time

d)

Volume/time

99.

All of the following are included in the peripheral compartment/tissue compartment, EXCEPT:

I. Fat

II. Muscle

III. Cerebrospinal fluid

IV. Plasma

a)

I, II

b)

II

c)

III, IV

d)

IV

100.

The curve that represents the initial, more rapid decline of drug from the central compartment into the tissue

compartment as seen in the plasma level time curve below is:

a)

Absorption phase

b)

Distribution phase

c)

Excretion phase

d)

Metabolism phase

101.

The pharmacokinetics of a drug given by constant IV infusion follows what input process?

a)

zero order

b)

1st order

c)

2nd order

d)

none of these

102.

Constant IV drug infusion are considered to have zero order drug absorption because of the direct input. Once the drug is infused, most of the drug is eliminated by first order elimination.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

B. Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statement is incorrect

d)

Both statement is correct

103.

Drug elimination is usually divided into two major components: excretion and biotransformation. Drug excretion is the removal of the interact drug.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statement is incorrect

d)

Both statement is correct

104.

Nonvolatile and polar drugs are excreted mainly by renal excretion. Volatile drugs, such as gaseous anesthetics,

alcohol or drugs with high volatility, are excreted via the lungs into expired air.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statement is incorrect

d)

Both statement is correct

105.

Biotransformation is the process by which the drug is chemically converted in the body to a metabolite. Other name for drug biotransformation is drug elimination.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statement is incorrect

d)

Both statement is correct

106.

The two major drug eliminating organs in the body:

I. Heart

II. Lungs

III. Liver

IV. Kidney

a)

I, II

b)

II, III

c)

III, IV

d)

I, III

107.

Major route of elimination for many drugs:

a)

Renal excretion

b)

Biliary excretion

c)

Fecal excretion

d)

none of these

108.

The processes by which a drug is excreted via the kidneys may include any combination of the following listed below, EXCEPT:

I. Glomerular filtration

II. Active tubular secretion

III. Passive secretion

IV. Tubular reabsorption

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II

d)

III

109.

Unidirectional drug excretion process that occurs for most small molecules (MW < 500), including nonionized and

ionized drugs.

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Tubular reabsorption

d)

Enterohepatic recycling

110.

A carrier mediated system that requires energy input, because the drug is transported against a concentration

gradient.

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Enterohepatic recycling

d)

Tubular reabsorption

111.

Occurs after the drug is filtered through the glomerulus and can be an active or passive involving transporting back of the drug into the plasma:

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Tubular reabsorption

d)

Enterohepatic recycling

112.

All of the following listed below are characteristics of active tubular secretion process, EXCEPT:

I. Carrier mediated system that requires energy input

II. Drugs with similar structures may compete for the same carrier system

III. It can be a passive process

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

III

e)

none of these

113.

Active tubular secretion happens in this part of kidney:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal tubule

c)

Distal tubule

d)

Collecting Duct

114.

Tubular reabsorption happens in this part of kidney:

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal tubule

c)

Distal tubule

d)

Collecting Duct

115.

Which renal elimination processes are influenced by protein binding?

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Tubular reabsorption

d)

Enterohepatic recycling

116.

Which renal elimination processes are influenced by urinary pH?

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Tubular reabsorption

d)

Enterohepatic recycling

117.

Which renal elimination processes are influenced by competitive inhibitors?

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Tubular reabsorption

d)

Enterohepatic recycling

118.

The purpose of giving a loading dose is to achieve desired plasma concentrations as quickly as possible. For a drug

with long elimination half-life, it may take a long time to achieve steady state levels.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statement is correct

d)

Both statement is incorrect

119.

When several doses are administered for a drug with linear kinetics, drug accumulation may occur according to the principle of superposition. The principle of superposition is used to examine the effect of an early, late, or missing dose on steady state drug concentration.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statement is incorrect

d)

Both statement is correct

120.

Example of a drugs that undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics thru saturable plasma protein binding:

I. Phenylbutazone

II. Warfarin

III. Levodopa

IV. Riboflavin

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

III, IV

121.

Example of a drugs that undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics thru saturable transport in GUT wall:

I. Phenylbutazone

II. Warfarin

III. Levodopa

IV. Riboflavin

a)

I

b)

I, II

c)

III, IV

d)

II, III

122.

Drugs that demonstrate saturation kinetics usually show which of the following characteristics?

I. Elimination of drug does not follow simple first-order kinetics

II. Elimination kinetics are linear

III. The area under the curve is not proportional to the amount

IV. The elimination of half-life does not change as dose is increased.

a)

I

b)

I, III

c)

II, III

d)

II, I

123.

Refers to a noncyclical change in the drug absorption or drug elimination rate process over a period of time.

a)

Chronopharmacokinetics

b)

Time-dependent pharmacokinetics

c)

Product inhibition

d)

Linear pharmacokinetics

124.

For a 70 kg male patient, the approximate volume of extracellular water is:

a)

27 L

b)

15 L

c)

12 L

d)

5 L

125.

For a 70 kg male patient, the approximate volume of intracellular water is:

a)

27 L

b)

15 L

c)

12 L

d)

5 L

126.

Represents the pressure gradient between the arterial end of the capillaries entering the tissue and the venous

capillaries leaving the tissue.

a)

Osmotic pressure

b)

Concentration gradient

c)

Hydrostatic pressure

d)

Arterial pressure

127.

Which of the following human tissues receives the least blood flow?

a)

Kidney

b)

Heart

c)

Brain

d)

Fat

128.

Physical property thay measures the ratio of the solubility of the drug in the oil phase to solubility in the aqueous phase

a)

Osmotic gradient

b)

Partition coefficient

c)

Absorption coefficient

d)

Diffusion coefficient

129.

The volume of blood that perfuses the liver which is cleared of drug per unit of time

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Regional blood flow

c)

Hepatic clearance

d)

Renal clearance

130.

Acetaminophen is converted to a reactive metabolite which causes hepatic necrosis thru what biotransformation

reaction?

a)

Demethylation

b)

Acetylation

c)

Aromatic hydroxylation

d)

Deamination

131.

Codeine is converted to morphine thru what biotransformation reaction?

a)

Demethylation

b)

Acetylation

c)

Aromatic hydroxylation

d)

Deamination

132.

These drugs are inactive and must be biotransformed in the body to metabolites that have pharmacologic activity:

a)

Enteric coated drugs

b)

Prodrugs

c)

Orphan drug

d)

Lead drug

133.

Which of the following is under phase I biotransformation reaction?

I. Aromatic hydroxylation

II. Deamination

III. Nitroreduction

IV. Glycine conjugation

V. Methylation

a)

I, II, III

b)

I, II, IV

c)

II, III, IV

d)

III, IV

134.

Which of the following is under phase II biotransformation reaction?

I. Aromatic hydroxylation

II. Deamination

III. Nitroreduction

IV. Glycine conjugation

V. Methylation

a)

I, II, III

b)

I, II, IV

c)

II, III, IV

d)

IV, V

135.

CYP450 enzyme responsible for metabolism of warfarin, phenytoin and losartan:

a)

CYP2C9

b)

CYP2D6

c)

CYP2C19

d)

CYP3A4

136.

Which of the following CYP450 enzyme is prone to genetic polymorphism?

I. CYP2C9

II. CYP2D6

III.CYP2C19

IV.CYP3A4

a)

I, IV

b)

I, II

c)

II, III

d)

I, II, III

137.

The most highly polymorphic CYP with more than 70 allelic variants reported

a)

CYP2C9

b)

CYP2D6

c)

CYP2C19

d)

CYP3A4

138.

The most abundant CYP450 in the liver and metabolizes over 50% of the clinically used drugs:

a)

CYP2C9

b)

CYP3A4

c)

CYP1A2

d)

CYP2C19

139.

Responsible for the metabolism of about 5% of marketed drugs including fluvoxamine, clozapine, olanzapine and

theophylline:

a)

CYP1A2

b)

CYP3A4

c)

CYP2C9

d)

CYP2D6

140.

Polymorphisms of this phase 1 enzyme result in a loss of enzymatic activity leading to the accumulation of the

chemotherapeutic agent 5-flourouracil, which leads to significant toxicity including leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and stomatitis.

a)

CYP450

b)

Plasma pseudocholinesterase

c)

Dihydropyrimidine

d)

Glutathione transferase

141.

The metabolism of procainamide, hydralazine and isoniazid is dependent on this phase II enzyme:

a)

Uridine Diphosphate

b)

Thiopurine S-methyltransferase

c)

Glutathione transferase

d)

N-acetyltransferase

142.

Genome wide analysis of the genetic determinants of drug efficacy and toxicity:

a)

Pharmacogenomic test

b)

Pharmacogenomics

c)

Polymorphism test

d)

Pharmacogenetics

143.

The systemic absorption of drug is dependent on the following factors, EXCEPT:

a)

The physicochemical properties of drug

b)

The nature of the drug product

c)

The anatomy and physiology of the drug

absorption site

d)

Distribution of drugs to target tissues/organ