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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY MIDTERM REVIEW

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which combining form means plaque or fatty substance?

a)

arteri/o

b)

-plasty

c)

arthr/o

d)

ather/o

2.

An eponym is a disease, structure, operation, or procedure named for the person who discovered or described it first.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The study of disorders of the newborn.

(a)  

4.

Which term means the surgical repair of a nerve?

a)

myorrhaphy

b)

neurorrhaphy

c)

neuroplasty

d)

hemorrhage

5.

Gastrosis means pertaining to the stomach.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The combining form pyel/o means fever or fire.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A localized response to an injury or the destruction of tissues is known as (a)   .

8.

The medical term _____ describes any abnormal condition or disease caused by a fungus.

a)

mycosis

b)

myelosis

c)

myosis

d)

melanosis

9.

pertaining to the interior or lining of an artery 

a)

endarterial

b)

peritoneal

c)

arterial

d)

artesia

10.

Which term means a wound or injury?

a)

trauma

b)

laceration

c)

triage

d)

lesion

11.

A surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove excess fluid is known as

a)

Adenectomy

b)

Gastroduodenostomy

c)

Abdominocentesis

d)

Gastrostomy

12.

The study of the ears, nose, and throat is known as

(a)  

13.

Which term means the rupture of a muscle?

a)

myoplasty

b)

myorrhexis

c)

myopathy

d)

myorrhaphy

14.

Hypoplasia is the incomplete development of an organ or tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Epidemic means the ongoing presence of a disease such as the common cold.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Adenomalacia is the abnormal hardening of a gland.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

 The term describing the time and events surrounding birth is (a)   .

18.

Which term means inflammation of a gland?

a)

adenosclerosis

b)

adenomalacia

c)

adenitis

d)

adenoma

19.

Which type of tissue suspends the intestines within the abdominal cavity?

a)

pathology

b)

visceral peritoneum

c)

parietal peritoneum

d)

mesentery

20.

An anomaly is a deviation from what is regarded as normal.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The medical screening of patients to determine their priority of need and the proper place of treatment is called (a)   .

22.

Which type of disease produces symptoms for which no physiological or anatomical cause can be identified?

a)

idiopathic disorder

b)

functional disorder

c)

nosocomial infection

d)

iatrogenic illness

23.

An unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment is known as a/an _____ illness.

a)

pathogenic

b)

iatrogenic

c)

Hematemesis

d)

idiopathic

24.

A/An _____ _____ is an abnormal condition that exists at the time of birth.

a)

Genetic disorder

b)

congenital disorder

c)

idiopathic disorder

d)

Functional disorder

25.

The term _____ _____ describes a change of the sequence of a DNA molecule.

a)

genetic mutation

b)

genetics

c)

mitosis

d)

DNA replication

26.

the surgical removal of a gland

a)

adenotomy

b)

Appendectomy

c)

adenectomy

d)

Arthroplasty

27.

The enlargement of an organ or tissue because of an abnormal increase in the number of cells is known as

a)

hyperplasia

b)

hypoplasia

c)

hyperkinesia

d)

hypoxemia

28.

The term atresia describes the congenital absence of a normal body opening or the failure of a structure to be tubular.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Also known as fat, (a)   tissue provides protective padding, insulation, and support.

30.

Etiology is the study of the causes of diseases.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Abnormal development or growth, especially of cells, is known as

a)

carcinoma

b)

dystonia

c)

adenomalacia

d)

dysplasia

32.

The protective covering for all of the internal and external surfaces of the body is known as _____ tissue.

a)

peritoneal

b)

epithelial

c)

surrounding tissue

d)

parietal pericardium

33.

A/An _____ is a physician who specializes in the care of older people.

a)

dermatologist

b)

geriatrician

c)

pediatrician

d)

physician

34.

Which term means toward the lower part of the body?

a)

cephalic

b)

proximal

c)

medial

d)

caudal

35.

The term _____ means the surgical repair of the nose.

a)

osteorrhaphy

b)

Otorhinolaryngology

c)

palatoplasty

d)

rhinoplasty

36.

The term _____ means the surgical removal of a kidney.

a)

nephrectomy

b)

atherectomy

c)

nephrotomy

d)

tracheostomy

37.

The term _____ means the visual examination of the interior of a joint

a)

arthroscopy

b)

bronchoscopy

c)

arthroplasty

d)

angiography

38.

The term _____ means a surgical incision into the colon.

a)

Cholecystectomy

b)

Colotomy

c)

Colostomy

d)

Tenotomy

39.

The prefix meaning under, less, or below is

a)

per-

b)

sub-

c)

sup-

d)

retro-

40.

The combining form meaning fungus is

a)

py/o

b)

kyph/o

c)

pyel/o

d)

myc/o

41.

The combining form meaning joint is

a)

arthr/o

b)

ather/o

c)

arteri/o

d)

anter/o

42.

combining form meaning muscle is

a)

myc/o

b)

my/o

c)

Adip/o

d)

myel/o 

43.

The prefix meaning between or among is

a)

retro-

b)

intra-

c)

inter-

d)

syn-

44.

The combining form meaning bone marrow or spinal cord is

a)

my/o

b)

myc/o

c)

pyel/o 

d)

myel/o 

45.

The suffix meaning a visual examination is

a)

-scopy

b)

-graphy

c)

-rrhaphy

d)

none of the above

46.

A surgical incision into a nerve is a/an

(a)  

47.

Abnormal softening of the nerves is

(a)  

48.

death of the walls of blood vessels

(a)  

49.

abnormal hardening of the walls of blood vessels

(a)  

50.

abnormal narrowing of a blood vessel

(a)  

51.

process of recording a picture of blood vessels

(a)  

52.

surgical repair of an artery

(a)  

53.

inflammation of the larynx

(a)  

54.

abnormal softening of muscle tissue

(a)  

55.

abnormal condition of the stomach

(a)  

56.

Osteopenia describes a marked loss of bone density frequently associated with aging.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

posterior space behind the knee

a)

Popliteal

b)

Endotracheal

c)

Lacteals 

d)

Peritoneal

58.

Which type of fixation of a fracture usually is not removed after the fracture has healed?

a)

external fixation

b)

traction

c)

immobilization

d)

internal fixation

59.

The death of bone tissue resulting from insufficient blood flow to an area of bone

a)

Arterionecrosis

b)

Avascular necrosis

c)

Osteonecrosis

d)

Avascular sclerosis

60.

Which term means inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone?

a)

avascular necrosis

b)

periostitis

c)

osteitis

d)

osteomyelitis

61.

abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine

a)

Asbestosis

b)

Cheilosis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Cirrhosis

62.

blood within a joint

a)

Hemochromatosis

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Hemophilia

d)

Hemarthrosis

63.

An osteochondroma is a malignant bone tumor.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

A percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a fractured disk.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which term means surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint?

a)

spondylosis

b)

anklyosis

c)

arthrolysis

d)

arthrodesis

66.

Which term means a surgical incision or opening into the skull?

a)

osteoclasis

b)

craniostenosis

c)

cranioplasty

d)

craniotomy

67.

lower portion of the sternum

a)

xiphoid process

b)

Ventral

c)

Inguinal

d)

Transverse

68.

pertaining to the formation of blood cells

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Hemopoietic

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Hemothorax

69.

Chondroplasty is the surgical repair of damaged cartilage.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

The grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together is called

a)

Aphonia

b)

Singultus

c)

Crepitation

d)

Spirochetes

71.

A greenstick fracture is one in which the bone is bent and only partially broken.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The term secondary bone cancer describes tumors that have spread to bones from other organs such as the breasts and lungs.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A rheumatologist specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

inflammation of the periosteum

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Peritonitis

c)

Pertussis

d)

Periostitis

75.

type of cancer that occurs in blood-making cells of the red bone marrow

(a)  

76.

The forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra or sacrum below it

a)

Prosthesis

b)

Spondylosis

c)

Supination

d)

Spondylolisthesis

77.

inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum

a)

Spondylitis

b)

Costochondritis

c)

Cholangitis

d)

Cholecystitis

78.

degeneration of muscle tissue

a)

Myolysis

b)

Myoma

c)

Myoclonus

d)

Myocele

79.

chronic pain disorder that affects muscles and fascia throughout the body

a)

Myofascial release

b)

Myoparesis

c)

myofascial pain syndrome

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

80.

Chronic fatigue syndrome results from repeated motions performed in the course of normal work and daily activities.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Which term means a disease characterized by the simultaneous inflammation of voluntary muscles in many parts of the body?

a)

quadriplegia

b)

myalgia

c)

myasthenia gravis

d)

polymyositis

82.

Sarcopenia is a band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Fistula is an abnormal passage, usually between two internal organs or leading from an organ to the surface of the body.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The weakness or wearing away of body tissues and structures

a)

Atrophy

b)

Edema

c)

Melanosis

d)

Cachexia

85.

Circumduction is the circular movement at the far end of a limb.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

A diagnostic test involving recording the electrical activity within muscle fibers in response to nerve stimulation

a)

Angiography

b)

Electromyography

c)

Cholangiography

d)

Lymphoscintigraphy

87.

Plantar flexion bends the foot upward at the ankle.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Ginger Williams has pain in her heel caused by a calcium deposit. This calcium deposit is known as a

a)

Calcium Channel Blocker

b)

Craniostenosis

c)

Heel Spur

d)

Osteoclasis

89.

Torticollis is commonly also known as wryneck.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

An exercise physiologist works under a physician’s supervision to develop, implement, and coordinate exercise programs.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which term means the release of a tendon from adhesions?

a)

tenodesis

b)

tendinitis

c)

tenosynovitis

d)

tenolysis

92.

a drug that causes temporary paralysis by blocking the transmission of nerve stimuli to the muscles.

a)

Beta-blocker

b)

Calcium Channel Blocker

c)

Neuromuscular blocker

d)

all of the above

93.

A sports medicine physician specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation with the focus on restoring function.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

One of the signs of Parkinson’s disease is , _____, or extreme slowness in movement.

a)

Dyskinesia

b)

Hyperkinesia

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Bradykinesia

95.

abnormally increased muscle function or activity

a)

Hyperkinesia

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Hyperpnea

d)

Hypertension

96.

Brian Hamilton has _____, which is an inflammation of the tissues surrounding his elbow.

a)

Epicondylitis

b)

Epistaxis

c)

Osteomyelitis

d)

Osteoarthritis

97.

Which term means movement toward the midline?

a)

elevation

b)

abduction

c)

adduction

d)

flexion

98.

Treatment for Pedro included the surgical suturing of the divided ends of a tendon. The medical term for this procedure is

a)

Tenotomy

b)

Tenorrhaphy

c)

Stenography

d)

Tenectomy

99.

inflammation of a fascia

(a)  

100.

Which term describes a band of fibers that hold structures together abnormally?

a)

spasm

b)

adhesion

c)

contracture

d)

singultus

101.

Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of the skeletal muscles.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon

a)

Cholangitis

b)

Adenitis

c)

Tenosynovitis

d)

Fasciitis

103.

Which term means the paralysis of all four extremities

a)

quadriplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

paraplegia

d)

hemiparesis

104.

Hypoperfusion is a deficiency of blood passing through an organ or body part.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

type of anemia characterized by an absence of all formed blood elements

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Megaloblastic anemia

c)

Hemolytic anemia

d)

Pernicious anemia

106.

Low blood pressure that occurs upon standing up

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Postural Hypertension

d)

Hypoxemia

107.

Temporal arteritis is the temporary blockage of an artery.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Umberto was referred to a/an ______ who specializes in diagnosing and treating blood disorders.

a)

Pathologist

b)

Podiatrist

c)

Hematologist

d)

Epidemiologist

109.

Mr. Decena was rushed to the hospital with a heart attack. The medical term for this medical emergency is

a)

Mycosis

b)

Myelopathy

c)

Myocardial ischemia

d)

Myocardial infarction

110.

A benign tumor made up of newly formed blood vessels

a)

Hemangioma

b)

Hemarthrosis

c)

Angiogenesis

d)

Angioma

111.

An event in which the heart abruptly stops beating or develops an arrhythmia that prevents it from pumping blood effectively

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

Myocardial muscle

c)

Sleep Apnea

d)

Bradycardia

112.

Coumadin is an anticoagulant that is administered to prevent blood clots from forming or growing larger.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Which term means inflammation of a vein?

a)

endocarditis

b)

valvulitis

c)

phlebitis

d)

carditis

114.

The endocardium is the inner lining of the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which there is an abnormally large number of platelets circulating in the blood.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

A/An ___ is a blood clot attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery.

a)

thrombosis

b)

embolism

c)

thrombus

d)

embolus

117.

Which term means the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to a buildup of cholesterol plaque on the interior walls of the arteries?

a)

vasculitis

b)

arteriosclerosis

c)

temporal arteritis

d)

atherosclerosis

118.

A type of cancer characterized by the insufficient production of one or more types of blood cells due to dysfunction of the bone marrow

a)

Myelodysplastic syndrome

b)

Myelopathy

c)

Myocardial ischemia

d)

Myofascial pain syndrome

119.

A/An ___ blocks the action of the enzyme that causes the blood vessels to contract, resulting in hypertension.

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

nitroglycerin

c)

calcium channel blocker

d)

beta-blocker

120.

The ventricles are the two upper chambers of the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

The general term used to describe elevated levels of cholesterol and other fatty substances in the blood

a)

Antihypertensive

b)

Hyperlipidemia

c)

Hypercapnia

d)

Hyperplasia

122.

Polycythemia is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

the surgical repair or replacement of a heart valve

a)

Valvular Prolapse

b)

Valvular stenosis

c)

Valvuloplasty

d)

Vasoconstriction

124.

The surgical removal of the lining of an artery leading to the brain that is clogged with plaque

a)

Cardiomyopathy

b)

Atherectomy

c)

Laminectomy

d)

Carotid endarterectomy

125.

Which condition is characterized by attacks of pallor, cyanosis, and redness of the fingers and toes?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Hypoperfusion

c)

Supraventricular tachycardia

d)

Raynaud's disease

126.

A deposit of plaque on or within the arterial wall

a)

atheroma

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

atrial fibrillation

d)

angioma

127.

The radiographic test that provides an image of specific veins after injection of a contrast dye

a)

Angiography

b)

Venography

c)

Cholangiography

d)

Electromyography

128.

Blood dyscrasia is a potentially life-threatening infection caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Specialized lymphocytes that produce antibodies. Each lymphocyte makes a specific antibody that is capable of destroying a specific antigen.

a)

B cells

b)

Stem cells

c)

Mother cells

d)

T cells

130.

Anyone of a large group of carcinomas derived from glandular tissue.

a)

Adenocarcinoma

b)

Adenoma

c)

Atheroma

d)

Carcinoma

131.

Dr. Wei diagnosed her patient as having an enlarged spleen due to damage caused by his injuries.

a)

Hepatomegaly

b)

Spondylosis

c)

Splenomegaly

d)

Splenedema

132.

Malignant tumor that arises from connective tissues, including hard, soft, and liquid tissues.

a)

Sarcoma

b)

Adenocarcinoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Myosarcoma

133.

Drug used either as an immunosuppressant or as an antineoplastic.

a)

Cytotoxic

b)

Neuromuscular Blocker

c)

Thrombolytic

d)

Beta-blocker

134.

The combining form ONC/O means tumor.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

Which disease is distinguished by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells?

a)

non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

b)

lymphedema

c)

lymphadenitis

d)

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

136.

Dorothy Peterson was diagnosed with breast cancer. She and her doctor agreed upon treating this surgically with a/an _____ . This is a procedure in which the cancerous tissue with a margin of normal tissue is removed.

a)

Adenectomy

b)

Cholecystectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Laminectomy

137.

a new and abnormal tissue formation in which the multiplication of cells is uncontrolled, abnormally rapid, and progressive

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Neoplasty

c)

Cystoplasty

d)

Neoplasm

138.

A drug used to treat viral infections or to provide temporary immunity.

a)

Antiviral

b)

Antitussive

c)

Antiangiogenesis

d)

Antibiotics

139.

Proteins such as interferons and interleukins released by the T cells are called what?

a)

interleukins

b)

tonsils

c)

cytokines

d)

plasma cells

140.

At the beginning of the treatment of Juanita Phillips’ breast cancer, a needle breast biopsy was performed using an x-ray-guided needle.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Which term describes a plant or animal that lives on or within another living organism at the expense of that organism?

a)

bacteria

b)

parasite

c)

viruses

d)

allergy

142.

Every day since his kidney transplant, Mr. Lanning must take a immunosuppressant to prevent rejection of the donor organ.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

Rosita Sanchez is 2 months pregnant, and she and her doctor are worried because her rash was diagnosed as _____. They are concerned because this condition can produce defects in Rosita’s developing child.

a)

Rubella

b)

Raynaud's disease

c)

Influenza

d)

Ebola

144.

Spirochetes are small bacteria that live in lice, fleas, ticks, and mites.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

Staphylococci are bacteria that form a chain.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

Any of a large group of diseases characterized by a condition in which the immune system produces antibodies against its own tissues

a)

Autoimmune disorder

b)

Celiac disease

c)

Cheilosis

d)

Crohn’s disease

147.

Metastasize is the process by which cancer spreads from one place to another.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

spitting of blood or blood-stained sputum from the lungs or bronchial tubes

a)

Hemoptysis

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Hemolytic anemia

d)

Hemopoietic

149.

Which term means a surgical incision into the chest walls to open the pleural cavity?

a)

thoracentesis

b)

pneumonectomy

c)

lobectomy

d)

thoracotomy

150.

The substance ejected through the mouth and used for diagnostic purposes in respiratory disorders

a)

Sputum

b)

Hemoptysis

c)

Spirometer

d)

Antigen

151.

When hit during a fight, Marvin Roper’s nose started to bleed. The medical term for this condition is

a)

Epistaxis

b)

Basophils

c)

Nasogastric

d)

Borborygmus

152.

An inflammation of the pleura that causes pleurodynia

a)

Pleurisy

b)

Pneumoconiosis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Pneumothorax

153.

Duncan McClanahan had a/an _____ performed to correct damage to the septum of his nose.

a)

Septoplasty

b)

Rhinoplasty

c)

Osteorrhaphy

d)

rhinorrhaphy

154.

The mediastinum is the cartilage that forms the lower portion of the breast bone.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

Pneumoconiosis is an abnormal condition caused by dust in the lungs.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

The pattern of alternating periods of rapid breathing, slow breathing, and the absence of breathing is known as

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Hemoptysis

c)

Cheyne-Strokes respiration

d)

Pneumonia

157.

Which condition is the progressive, long-term loss of lung function usually due to smoking?

a)

empyema

b)

asthma

c)

emphysema

d)

epistaxis

158.

Walking pneumonia is also known as mycoplasma pneumonia.

a)

True

b)

False

159.

any condition of voice impairment, including hoarseness, weakness, or the cracking of a boy's voice during puberty

a)

Dyspepsia

b)

Dystonia

c)

Laryngospasm

d)

Dysphonia

160.

the permanent dilation of the bronchi

a)

Bronchiectasis

b)

Bronchorrhea

c)

Bronchospasm

d)

Cystic fibrosis

161.

A genetic disorder in which the lungs are clogged with large quantities of abnormally thick mucus.

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Bronchiectasis

c)

Bronchorrhea

d)

Bronchospasm

162.

Thoracentesis is performed to inflate a collapsed lung.

a)

True

b)

False

163.

Dr. Lee surgically removed a portion of the lung. This procedure is known as

a)

Pneumonectomy

b)

Laryngectomy

c)

Synovectomy

d)

Tracheostomy

164.

Ted Coleman required the permanent placement of a breathing tube. The procedure for the placement of this tube is

a)

Tracheostomy

b)

Synovectomy

c)

Pneumonectomy

d)

Laryngectomy

165.

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves breathing pure oxygen in a special pressurized chamber.

a)

True

b)

False

166.

Sudden spasmodic closure of the larynx.

a)

Laryngospasm

b)

Laryngitis

c)

Pleurisy

d)

Pneumoconiosis

167.

Endotracheal intubation is a procedure in preparation for the placement of a feeding tube.

a)

True

b)

False

168.

Cystic fibrosis is a condition caused by a severe allergic reaction to inhaled pollutants.

a)

True

b)

False

169.

Which mechanical device is used to replace or supplement the patient's natural breathing?

a)

ventilator

b)

Ambu bag

c)

CPAP machine

d)

nebulizer

170.

The hardened deposit that forms on the teeth and irritate the surrounding tissues is known as.

a)

Dental Prophylaxis

b)

Heel Spur

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Dental calculus

171.

A laboratory test for hidden blood in the stools; also known as fecal occult blood test.

a)

Hemoccult Test

b)

Hemolytic test

c)

Mesentery

d)

Thallium stress test

172.

The duodenum is the first portion of the large intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

Which term includes all of the processes involved in the body's use of nutrients?

a)

absorption

b)

metabolism

c)

anabolism

d)

catabolism

174.

Which term describes a pouch, or sac, found in the lining or wall of a tubular organ such as the colon?

a)

inguinal hernia

b)

diverticulitis

c)

diverticulum

d)

peptic ulcers

175.

After the repeated passage of black, tarry, and foul-smelling stools, Catherine Baldwin was diagnosed as having ______ . This condition is caused by the presence of digested blood in the stools.

a)

melanosis

b)

melanin

c)

melena

d)

melanoma

176.

excessive vomiting

a)

Hyperemesis

b)

Hyperplasia

c)

Hyperkinesia

d)

Hypertrophy

177.

GERD, or gastroesophageal reflux disease, is the upward flow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus.

a)

True

b)

False

178.

The anchoring of a crown, bridge or denture to the bone of the jaw.

a)

Dental implant

b)

Dental Prophylaxis

c)

Dental calculus

d)

none of the above

179.

After eating, Mike Delahanty often complained about heartburn. The medical term for this condition is

a)

Esophageal Varices

b)

Pyrosis

c)

Gastralgia

d)

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

180.

without natural teeth

a)

Dental Prophylaxis

b)

Diphtheria

c)

Dental calculus

d)

Edentulous

181.

surgical connection between two hollow or tubular structures.

a)

Anastomosis

b)

Gastroduodenostomy

c)

Anal Atresia

d)

Alveoli

182.

the vomiting of blood

a)

Hematemesis

b)

Hyperemesis

c)

Hemostasis

d)

Hemolytic

183.

The term trismus describes any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

184.

Which liver condition is a chronic degenerative disease of the liver characterized by scarring?

a)

cirrhosis

b)

jaundice

c)

hepatitis

d)

hepatomegaly

185.

An anal fissure is a cluster of veins near the anal opening.

a)

True

b)

False

186.

Eructation is the act of vomiting.

a)

True

b)

False

187.

abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

a)

hemostasis

b)

diarrhea

c)

ascites

d)

serum

188.

Bariatric surgery is performed to treat morbid obesity by restricting the amount of food that can enter the stomach and be digested.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

Cholelithiasis is the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts.

a)

True

b)

False

190.

A/An ______ was performed on Mr. Schmidt to create an artificial excretory opening between his colon and body surface.

a)

colostomy

b)

colotomy

c)

colectomy

d)

colorrhaphy