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end sem

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

2.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
3.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
4.

"Organisms that are better adapted to the environment survive to pass traits to their offspring" is the definition of

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Artificial Selection

5.

All rabbits of the same species living in a particular area would be an example of a(n)

a)

population

b)

species

c)

community

d)

ecosystem

6.

What is most likely to happen to moth populations in the picture shown?

a)

Light moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

b)

Dark moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

c)

Light moths--hunted easily, light moths--population increase

d)

Lights moths will change their color to match dark moths.

7.

According to natural selection, light colored tree trunks would favor

a)

light colored moths

b)

dark colored moths

c)

red colored moths

d)

red and light colored moths

8.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
9.

What happened to the peppered moth population after the Industrial Revolution?

a)

There were MORE LIGHT moths because the bird couldn't see them on the DARK TREES

b)

There were MORE DARK moths because the bird couldn't see them on the DARK TREES

c)

There were MORE DARK moths because the bird couldn't see them on the LIGHT TREES

10.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
11.

Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?

a)

p2

b)

2pq

c)

q2

d)

p2 + 2pq

12.
What do you call all of the genes in a population?
a)
Gene pool
b)
Relative Frequency
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Allele pool
13.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
14.
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium measure?
a)
changes in allele frequencies
b)
numbers of mutations
c)
goodness of fit
d)
genetic diversity
15.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
16.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of recessive genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

17.
Which is a mechanism for change in allele frequency?
a)
gene flow
b)
genetic drift
c)
natural selection
d)
all answers are correct
18.
Gene flow involves
a)
Natural disasters killing most of the members of a population
b)
Individuals moving into and out of the population
c)
Selective mating
d)
Small changes because of the environment
19.
When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,  what is NOT happening to the species?
a)
Survival
b)
Reproduction
c)
Death
d)
Evolution
20.
What type of graph is this?
a)
Line Graph
b)
Pictograph
c)
Bar Graph
d)
Histogram
21.
The Hardy-Weinberg Model is...
a)
available at local hobby stores and retailers throughout the Greater Tazewell area.
b)
a mathematical tool that biologists can use to predict allele frequencies and determine whether or not evolution is occurring within a population.
c)
always occurring within individual organisms in nature.
d)
only useful in the lab and cannot be practically applied to real-world populations of organisms.  
22.
What percentage of the offspring are homozygous recessive when you cross two heterozygotes for a trait? 
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
23.

In a population of humans, the frequency of no dimples is 0.36. If having no dimples is the recessive phenotype, which variable do you now have?

a)

p

b)

p2

c)

q

d)

q2

24.

Which of these is a condition that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

extremely small population size

b)

no natural selection

c)

gene flow

d)

nonrandom mating

25.

Which of the following is the equation that you would use for Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

p + 2q = 1

b)

2p + 2q = 1

c)

2p + q = 1

d)

p + q = 1

26.

Which of the following is the equation that you use for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

b)

p2 + q2 = 1

c)

p3 + q3 = 1

d)

p3 + 3pq + q3 = 1

27.

In generation 1, the recessive allele has a frequency of 0.6 and in generation 40, the recessive phenotype has a frequency of 0.36. Is the population is Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

No, the frequency changed from one generation to another.

b)

Yes, the frequency changed from one generation to another

c)

No, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

d)

Yes, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

28.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the dominant allele.

a)

0.76

b)

0.86

c)

0.57

d)

0.71

29.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

0.28

b)

0.14

c)

0.38

d)

0.42

30.

Check all of the options below that are SELECTION FACTORS, which determine whether a trait helps or hurts an organism. (choose more than one)

a)

Obtaining food

b)

Surviving climate changes

c)

Escaping predators

d)

Moving fast

31.

What happens to new traits that HELP organisms survive over time?

a)

They become MORE COMMON

b)

They become LESS COMMON

c)

They are EQUALLY COMMON

32.

If a new trait DOES help an organism survive, what may happen to it?

a)

It dies and its DNA is not passed on

b)

It survives and its DNA is passed on

c)

It changes its traits to adapt and survive

33.

If a new trait DOES NOT help an organism survive, what may happen to it?

a)

It dies and its DNA is not passed on

b)

It survives and its DNA is passed on

c)

It changes its traits to adapt and survive

34.

Check all of the options below that are SELECTION FACTORS, which determine whether a trait helps or hurts an organism. (choose more than one)

a)

Obtaining food

b)

Surviving climate changes

c)

Escaping predators

d)

Moving fast

35.

New traits usually occur due to:

a)

Random genetic mutations

b)

An organism adapting

c)

Effects from the environment

36.

The Hardy-Weinberg principle specifies the conditions under which a population of diploid organisms achieves ____.

a)

Dimorphism 

b)

genetic equilibrium

c)

Population size

d)

Allele frequencies

37.

In an isolated population of fruit flies, 4 percent of the individuals have pink eyes, a homozygous recessive condition, and 96 percent have the dominant black eye phenotype. What percentage of the population are heterozygotes?

a)

48%

b)

4%

c)

88%

d)

32%

e)

16%

38.

Which moth was the most common form before the industrial revolution?

a)
b)
39.

What change did the industrial revolution cause?

a)

Mutations to DNA

b)

Color staining of moths

c)

Color change to trees

d)

Decreased environmental temperature.

40.

Which moth was benefited from the pollution?

a)

The white one

b)

The dark one

c)

The salt moth

d)

The hummingbird moth

41.

What caused the white moth to make a rebound?

a)

Humans hunting

b)

Climate change

c)

Increased pollution

d)

Pollution regulation

42.

What effect did burning coal during the Industrial Revolution in England have on forests around cities?

a)

Trees became covered in dark soot

b)

Trees grew taller and had more branches

c)

Trees had fewer places for birds (predators) to nest

43.

The "peppered" and "dark" forms of moths were found to be _____ - moths passed their pattern onto their offspring

a)

Inherited

b)

Acquired

c)

Unrelated

44.

In England, during the Industrial Revolution, _____ moths became more common in forests around cities

a)

Dark-colored

b)

Peppered

c)

Both types (dark colored and peppered)

45.

If you place 50% light and 50% dark colored moths in a "Light Forest," you would expect the number of light colored moths to _____

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

46.

If you place 50% light and 50% dark colored moths in a "Dark Forest," you would expect the number of light colored moths to _____

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

47.
Which protist causes malaria?
a)
plasmodium
b)
anopheles
c)
trypanosoma
d)
chagas
48.
Which mosquito carries the protist which causes malaria?
a)
anopheles
b)
plasmodium
c)
trichonympha
d)
toxoplamosis
49.
What is the 1st stage of malaria infection?
a)
sporozoite
b)
gametocyte
c)
merozoite
d)
plasmodiocyte
50.
What is the 2nd stage of malaria?
a)
merozoite
b)
gametocyte
c)
sporozoite
d)
mosquito bite
51.
Which mosquito drinks blood?
a)
female
b)
male
c)
both male and female
d)
mosquitoes don't drink blood
52.
In stage one of malaria where does the protist go after the mosquito bites a human?
a)
liver
b)
red blood cells
c)
eggs and sperm
d)
brain
53.
Where does the protist that causes malaria go in stage 2 of malaria?
a)
red blood cells
b)
liver
c)
brain
d)
mosquito gut
54.
The human represents the _________ host for Plasmodium since _____________ reproduction occurs at this site.
a)
intermediate .....asexual
b)
intermediate....sexual
c)
definitive....asexual
d)
definitive......sexual
55.
The Plasmodium life-cycle stage produced during the liver stage is called the 
a)
gametocyte
b)
merozoite
c)
sporozoite
d)
trypanosoma
56.
The intermediate host enables the parasite to
a)
make many copies of itself
b)
fertilize their gametes
57.
What is the infective stage for malaria?  How do humans get infected?
a)
Trophozoite
b)
Sporozoite
c)
Cyst
d)
Trypomastigote
58.
What is the tissue sample of choice for diagnosis of malaria?
a)
Eye scraping
b)
Feces
c)
Blood
d)
bone marrow
59.
How does human acquires malaria?
a)
Ingestion of contaminated food
b)
Biting of vector
c)
Swimming in infected lake
d)
Use homemade solution for contact lense
60.

Which of the following does DDT kill?

a)

Anopheles

b)

Plasmodium

61.

Malaria can reccur.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Sporozoites enter the human through..

a)

Mosquito blood

b)

Mosquito saliva

63.

Malaria is cause by the bite of:-

a)

Female Anopheles mosquito.

b)

House fly.

c)

Ant

d)

Honey bee.

64.

Which diseases are caused by Mosquito.

a)

Dengue

b)

Chikungunya

c)

Malaria

d)

Cholera

65.

Mary Mallon was a carrier of Typhoid.


A carrier is a _____________________

a)

A person who carries a baby.

b)

A person who carries a disease without getting sick herself.

c)

A person who carries a basket of fruit.

66.
Typhoid
a)
Ty Wigginton
b)
an infectious, often fatal, disease in the gut
c)
a medical term for the knot used on stitches
d)
a tie given to fathers on Father's Day
67.

a contagious bacterial fever with red spots and intestinal irritation

a)

Typhoid

b)

Confined

c)

Transfer

d)

Lunged

68.

Identify Infectious /Communicable diseases-

a)

Typhoid,Cholera,T.B,

Malaris

b)

Cancer,Cholera, Typhoid

c)

High B.P,Typhoid,Malaria

d)

Diabetes,Beri-Beri,Cholera,AIDS

69.

High B.P,Cancer,Diabetes,Scurvy,Rickets these all disease are-

a)

Non-Communicable Diseases

b)

Communicable Diseases

c)

Acute Diseases

d)

Chronic Diseases

70.

Causes of Diseases are-

a)

Genetic Disorders

b)

Environmental Pollution

c)

Poor health and nourishment

d)

All of above

71.

Which of the following is not transferred by houseflies?

a)

Typhoid

b)

Cholera

c)

Dysentry

d)

AIDS

72.

The causative agent of Typhoid is

a)

Salmonella typhii

b)

Ecoli

c)

All groups of bacteria

d)

Shigella

73.

The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is

a)

ELISA-Test

b)

ESR-Test

c)

PCR-Test

d)

Widal test

74.

Pneumonia causes inflammation of?

a)

alveoli/lung sacs

b)

bronchi

c)

trachea

d)

bronchioles

75.

what is the most common cause of pneumonia?

a)

Streptococcus hemolyticus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Klebsiella

76.

Malignant Malaria is caused by

a)

Plasmodium vivax

b)

Plasmodium malaria

c)

Plasmodium falciparum

77.

Amoebiasis is caused by (a)  

78.

Ascariasis is caused by (a)  

79.

Wuchereria also known as filarial worms infects ________and causes elephantiasis

a)

blood vessels

b)

legs

c)

lymphatic vessels

80.

Pneumonia is caused by (a)  

81.

malaria is which type of pathogen?

a)

virus

b)

protozoa

c)

fungus

d)

bacteria

e)

parasite

82.

The common cold is what type of pathogen?

a)

virus

b)

protozoa

c)

fungus

d)

bacteria

e)

parasite

83.

What is the most common term phrase for communicable disease

a)

infectious disease

b)

plague

c)

outbreak

d)

air borne pathogen

84.

Infectious diseases are caused by _________ in the body.

a)

pathogens

b)

decomposers

85.
Which best distinguishes an infectious disease from a noninfectious disease?
a)
Infectious diseases can be cured with antibiotics; noninfectious diseases cannot.
b)
Infectious diseases can be prevented with vaccines; noninfectious diseases cannot.
c)
Infectious diseases can be spread from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases cannot.
d)
Infectious diseases cannot be transmitted from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases can.
86.

Pathogens spread from person to person by objects (chairs, medical equipment, office supplies, doorknobs, etc.)

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Foodborne Tranmission

e)

Vector-Borne Transmission

87.

When a pathogen is moved from person to person through physical touch (kissing, hugging, close-up sneezing, shaking hands).

a)

Transmission

b)

Translation

c)

Emission

d)

Direct Contact

e)

Indirect Contact

88.

How can the rate of an infectious disease be reduced?

a)

By preventing transmission between people

b)

By wearing clean clothing

89.

Sabrina has the flu. Her neighbor suggests she get a prescription for an antibiotic, but Sabrina's mothers says that antibiotics would not help in this situation. Why?

a)

the flu is caused by a virus, and it cannot be treated with an antibiotic.

b)

the flu is caused by a fungus, and it must be treated with antifungal medication

c)

the flu is caused by a parasitic worm, and must be treated with an anti-parasitic medication

d)

the flu is caused by a bacterium, and it cannot be treated with an antibiotic.

90.

Which type of pathogen is responsible for causing the flu, chicken pox, and yellow fever?

a)

viruses

b)

parasites

c)

fungi

d)

bacteria

91.
Which pathogen needs a host cell to reproduce?
a)
virus
b)
bacteria
c)
fungus
d)
parasite
92.
Disease causing organism.
a)
Phagocyte
b)
Pathogen
c)
Pandemic
93.

A disease that moves from one continent to another new continent is known as a/an ______________________ disease.

a)

epidemic

b)

endemic

c)

pandemic

d)

sporadic

94.

What is population distribution?

a)

Population distribution shows how the organisms of the same species are able to spread out in a habitat.

b)

The number of organisms present in a population

c)

The number of individuals of a species per unit area of a habitat

95.

Which of the following are factors that affect population distribution in plants?

(Choose 3)

a)

Breeding site

b)

Mineral salt content

c)

Food supply

d)

Light

e)

pH of soil

96.

Which are NOT factors that affect the population distribution of animals?

(Choose 2)

a)

Food supply

b)

Light

c)

Breeding site

d)

pH of soil

e)

Temperature

97.

Which are the THREE patterns of population distribution above?

(Choose 3)

a)

Clumped

b)

Distributed

c)

Grouped

d)

Random

e)

Uniform

98.

Which are the TWO methods for estimating population size?

(Choose 2)

a)

Quadrat sampling technique

b)

Census taking

c)

Counting population technique

d)

Capture-mark-release-recapture technique

99.

Which are the THREE parameters of sampling quadrat?

(Choose 3)

a)

Frequency

b)

Density

c)

Size

d)

Coverage percentage

100.

How to increase/ improve the accuracy of quadrat sampling technique?

a)

Use smaller quadrat size

b)

Use more quadrats

c)

Use larger quadrat size

d)

Place quadrat more randomly

101.

The picture represents a sunny, dry desert. Which factor most likely limits the desert’s carrying capacity for plant life?

a)

the number of animals that eat plants

b)

the availability of space to grow

c)

the amount of sunlight

d)

the availability of water

102.

A population of salamanders that live in a river require clear, fresh water to survive. New housing developments have caused tons of sediment to muddy the river. Which of these most likely will happen to the salamander population?

a)

The salamanders will decrease in number because of the water quality.

b)

The salamanders will move across land to another river.

c)

The salamanders will quickly adapt to living in the muddy water.

d)

The salamanders go live on land.

103.

This is the most commonly seen distribution pattern. Example: wolves. This is usually because there are resources found in particular areas and the organisms need more space to survive.

a)

random

b)

clumped

c)

uniform

104.

What is a square called that we use to sample populations?

a)

grid

b)

quarter

c)

square

d)

quadrat

105.

Diagram below shows the result of an activity to determine the population size of dandelion in the school field.


What is the frequency of dandelion?

a)

50.2%

b)

30%

c)

44.5%

d)

66.7%

106.

Aini carried out a study on the population of Mimosa pudica in the school’s field. She used the quadrat sampling technique in the study. The area of each quadrat is 1 m².


The results is shown in table below.

The percentage coverage of grass P in the school’s field is …

a)

44%

b)

20%

c)

65%

d)

88%

107.

What type of population would you measure using a quadrat?

a)
b)
c)
d)
108.

Limpets were found in 25 out of 50 quadrats. What is coverage percentage of limpets?

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

100%

109.

Table below shows the number of plant A present in 10 different quadrats, each quadrat measuring 1 m x 1 m.


Calculate the density of plant A.

a)

6/m2

b)

5/m2

c)

4.3/m2

d)

6.1/m2

110.

What is a tool to determine soil texture using 3 percentages?

a)

Ribbon Test

b)

Texture Triangle

c)

pH Test

d)

Jar Test

111.

Which soil particle is the largest and feels gritty?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

112.

Which soil particle is the smallest, feels smooth, and gets heavy when wet (like a sponge)?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

113.

What is a mixture of sand, silt and clay called?

a)

Loam

b)

Humus

c)

Sandy Clay

d)

Silty Sand

114.

As soil particle size decreases, the water holding capacity of the soil

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

stays the same

115.

Definition of Soil Structure:

a)

Ability of a soil to retain water for use by plants

b)

Ease with which air and water may pass through the soil

c)

Grouping or arrangement of soil particles

d)

Fineness or coarseness of a soil (particle size)

116.

What percent of soil is pore space? (air and water)

a)

5%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

55%

117.
What are two factors that can increase the water holding capacity of soil?
a)
More sand and less silt
b)
More humus and more clay
c)
Fewer minerals and fewer organisms
d)
More clay and less water
118.
What is one soil characteristic that parent material can help to determine?
a)
Amount of humus
b)
Rate of decomposition
c)
Soil pH
d)
Depth of soil horizons
119.
Why might soil water holding capacity increase in summer?
a)
Rate of decomposition increases and adds more organic matter
b)
It doesn't.  Capacity never changes.  This is a lie.
c)
More sand is converted to clay in the summer
d)
Higher temperatures lead to decreased porosity

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