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AP Unit 7 Part 2 Review

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following describes the function of the vibrant coloration found in the peacock feathers?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

cryptic coloration

c)

intersexual selection

d)

intrasexual selection

2.

Which of the following describes the process occurring in populations with an alpha male with multiple females?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

polyandry

c)

intersexual selection

d)

intrasexual selection

3.

Which of the following best describes the biological species concept?

a)

two species are able to breed to produce feeble, sterile offspring

b)

two species are unable to breed to produce feeble, sterile offspring

c)

two species are able to breed and to produce viable, fertile offspring

d)

two species are unable to breed to produce viable, fertile offspring

4.

What type of barrier inhibits the eastern and western skunks that reproduce at different times of the year (different seasons)?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

ecological isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

temporal isolation

5.

What barrier inhibits the formation of a mule (offspring of horse and donkey that is sterile)?

a)

reduced hybrid fertility

b)

reduced hybrid viability

c)

hybrid breakdown

d)

gametic isolation

6.

When two organisms meet in the hybrid zone and the hybrid species is more favorable than the parent species, which of the following happens to the barriers?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Fusion

c)

Stabilization

d)

Mutations

7.

Which of the following describes why does sympatric speciation result in more reproductive barriers than allopatric speciation?

a)

sympatric involves geographic barriers that inihibit interactions

b)

sympatric involves more interactions due to an absence of geographical barriers

c)

allopatric involves same location to increase interactions

d)

allopatric involves human interaction to generate hybrid species that is absent in nature

8.

Which of the following describes the barrier that inhibits fostering of a bird by another species from being able to mate with its own species?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

ecological isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

9.

Which of the following reproductive barriers is essential for external fertilization?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

gametic isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

10.

Which of the following is likely to occur in the hybrid zone when the hybrid species is as favorable as the parent species?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Fusion

c)

Stabilization

d)

Hybridization

11.

Based on the data given in the table, which two are most closely related?

a)

Human & Gorilla

b)

Gorilla & Orangutan

c)

Human & Chimpanzee

d)

Chimpanzee & Orangutan

12.

Based on the given cladogram, which organism is the outgroup?

a)

human

b)

chimpanzee

c)

gorilla

d)

orangutan

e)

gibbon

13.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to the polar bear?

a)

black bear

b)

european brown bear

c)

western north american brown bear

d)

asian brown bear

14.

Based on the figure, how long ago was the common ancestor of the European Brown Bear and the Asian Brown Bear?

a)

4.5 hundreds of thousands of years ago

b)

3.5 hundreds of thousands of years ago

c)

2.2 hundreds of thousands of years ago

d)

1.4 hundreds of thousands of years ago

15.

Which evidence would be the most accurate when developing a cladogram?

a)

morphological

b)

molecular

c)

ecological

d)

fossil

16.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to A. forsteri?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

17.

Based on the figure, which organism would be considered the outgroup?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

e)

A. forsteri

18.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to E. africanus?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

19.

Based on the figure, which three organisms are closely related?

a)

cat, horse, human

b)

cat, horse, pig

c)

cow, horse, human

d)

cow, horse, pig

20.

In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is

a)

a shared ancestral character

b)

a shared derived character

c)

a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals

d)

an example of analogy rather than homology

21.

What does each node of a phylogenetic tree represent?

a)

A combining of separate populations into one large population

b)

A time interval of approximately 1000 years

c)

Last common ancestor before 2 species diverged

d)

A documented piece of fossil evidence

22.

Which statement about the relatedness of organisms is true?

a)

Organisms living now cannot be related to extinct organisms that died out thousands of years ago.

b)

Because they are physically separated, two organisms living in completely different parts of the world cannot be related.

c)

For organisms to be related to one another, they must share similar physical traits.

d)

A relationship exists between any two organisms because they share a common ancestor.

23.

What is the difference between a root and a node of a phylogenetic tree?

a)

A root represents all living species, whereas a node represents a single species.

b)

A root represents living species that have undergone little or no evolutionary change, whereas a node represents living species that have undergone evolutionary change.

c)

A root represents an extinct species, whereas a node represents a living species.

d)

A root represents the earliest ancestor that all species have in common, whereas a node represents later ancestors that some species have in common.

24.

Which statement about phylogenetic trees is false?

a)

Rotation of lineages around a node can change the meaning of a phylogenetic tree.

b)

A node is another word for branching point on a phylogenetic tree.

c)

Both large and small groups of organisms can be used to construct a phylogenetic tree.

d)

A phylogenetic tree is a representation of evolutionary relationships among organisms.

25.

A group of species that consists of a common ancestor and all of its evolutionary descendants is called a

a)

population

b)

lineage

c)

clade

d)

taxon

26.

Which group of species represents a clade?

a)

A, B, D, and E

b)

B, C, and D

c)

C and E

d)

D, C and E

27.

Which diagram conveys phylogenetic information that differs from the others?

a)

Tree 1

b)

Tree 2

c)

Tree 3

d)

Tree 4

28.

What statement is consistent with this phylogenetic tree?

a)

Lampreys and lizards do not have a common ancestor.

b)

Perch and crocodiles have the same common ancestor as chimpanzees and lampreys.

c)

Pigeons and mice belong to sister clades.

d)

Salamanders and mice cannot be grouped in the same clade.

29.

Biologists would use a phylogenetic tree to

a)

date a fossil

b)

compare developmental stages within a species

c)

classify a newly-discovered species

d)

predict effects of environmental change on an organism's life span

30.

Any features shared by two species and inherited from a common ancestor are said to be

a)

Homologous

b)

Convergent

c)

Phylogenetic

d)

Analogous

31.

A phylogenetic analysis of a group of organisms can

a)

provide information about when specific traits evolved.

b)

help pinpoint when a particular genetic mutation occurred.

c)

allow biologists to make predictions about the relationship between traits and selective pressures.

d)

identify the sequence of evolutionary change in a particular lineage.

32.

What synapomorphies are shared by lizards and salamanders?

a)

Lungs only

b)

Lungs and jaws

c)

Lungs, jaws, and claws/nails

d)

Lungs and claws/nails

33.

Biologists have observed a similar change in several distantly related vertebrates. These organisms all decreased in size when they migrated from the mainland to different islands. The most likely explanation for this shared similarity is that the traits

a)

resulted from synapomorphy.

b)

arose by convergent evolution.

c)

evolved as homologous traits.

d)

share the same ancestral genes.

34.

Why are the bones making up bird and bat wings considered to be homologous, but the wings as a whole are not?

a)

The bones in birds and bats are similar in appearance, whereas the wing structures in these organisms are very different.

b)

Bone traits are governed by fewer genetic elements than wing traits, which are more complex.

c)

Bone traits are under much different selective pressures from the environment than wing traits.

d)

Bone traits existed in a common ancestor from long ago, while wing traits evolved after the bird and bat lineages split.

35.
Two populations of a species of squirrel are isolated from each other. One population is larger in number than the other. A new disease, which is easily spread and extremely contagious, affects both populations at the same time. Which of the following is the best prediction of how the new disease will affect the two populations?
a)
The two populations will be equally affected as they are the same species
b)
The larger population will be more affected as they have greater genetic variation
c)
The smaller population will be more affected as they have less genetic variation
d)
The smaller population will not be affected
36.
Sickle-cell anemia is associated with a mutation in the red blood cells that changes the shape. Scientists think this is an evolutionary response to exposure to malaria. People who are heterozygous for this allele are less likely to get malaria if they are bitten by a mosquito carrying the disease. This change in variation is called a.. 
a)
Mutation
b)
Response
c)
Migration
d)
Phenotype
37.
Hemophilia is a sex-linked disease involving the blood clotting mechanisms. It is carried on the X chromosome. Recessive traits are more common in small populations because
a)
Migration out of the small population is more likely to happen
b)
Alleles can randomly mutate in smaller populations
c)
A larger population are less likely to have a large genetic variation
d)
A smaller population are less likely to have a large genetic variation
38.
The evolution of one species into two or more species as a result of different populations becoming​ reproductively isolated from each other is:
a)
Reproductive selection
b)
Adaptive radiation
c)
Artificial selection
d)
Independent assortment
39.
Which of the following is an example of homologous structures?
a)
Whale hip bones
b)
Rabbits and birds have the same bones in the same order in their forelimbs, even though they use them for different purposes
c)
Mice and chicken differ by only 25 amino acids when they make hemoglobin protein.
d)
Embryos of fish and birds both make gill slits
40.
The sickle cell trait 
a)
is common in people whose ancestors came from areas where malaria was a significant health problem because of a serious bottleneck effect
b)
is an example of hybrid vigor
c)
can result in an increase in the fitness of people who are heterozygous for the trait
d)
 results in resistance to malaria among people homozygous for the trait
41.
Antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria are on the increase, according to data from the CDC. Which of the following best provides a description for antibiotic resistance?
a)
Sexual reproduction
b)
Changes in the whole DNA
c)
Natural selection
d)
Drug failure
42.
Different species of animals, living in the same area, cannot interbreed because
a)
They are genetically different
b)
They are predator and prey
c)
They have different food requirements
d)
 They are in different ecological niches
43.
The differences in sparrow songs among similar species of sparrows is an example of what type of evolution?
a)
Adaptive
b)
Convergent
c)
Reproductive
d)
Behavioral
44.
Which is the correct order of appearance on Earth?
a)
photosynthetic prokaryotes, eukaryotes, primordial soup, non-photosynthetic prokaryotes
b)
primordial soup, non-photosynthetic prokaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, eukaryotes 
c)
primordial soup, eukaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, non-photosynthetic prokaryotes 
d)
non-photosynthetic prokaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, primordial soup, eukaryotes
45.
Which of the following pieces of evidence best supports the hypothesis that birds and crocodilians (crocodiles and alligators) are more closely related to each other than they are to other organisms?
a)
Modern birds and crocodilians utilize different niches within the same geographical region
b)
 Modern birds and crocodilians share similar hunting tactics
c)
The skulls of birds and crocodilians have similar structures
d)
Fossil evidence indicates that both modern birds and crocodilians originated during the Jurassic Period
46.
The eye structures of cephalopods, such as the blue ringed octopus, and mammals evolved independently to perform very similar functions. This type of evolution is called
a)
Allotopic separation
b)
Convergent evolution
c)
Divergent evolution 
d)
Sympatic association 
47.
Crossing over in the chromosomes during meiosis, conjugation between bacterial cells and fertilization of an egg cell with a sperm cell all will result in what?
a)
Transcription
b)
Increase in genetic variation
c)
Increase in chromosome numbers
d)
Missense mutation
48.
A group of mice was released into a large field to which no other mice had access. Immediately after  the​ release,a representative sample of the mice was captured, and the fur color of each individual in the sample was observed and recorded. There were 10% gray mice, 80% brown mice and 10% black mice. The mice were then returned to the field. After twenty years, another representative sample of the mice was captured, and the fur color of each individual in the sample was again recorded. This time there were 60% gray mice, 30% brown mice and 10% black mice
a)
The allele for gray fur color is unstable
b)
The field was composed primarily of light-colored soil and little vegetation, affording gray mice protection from predators.Increasing the number of mice which have the allele for gray fur
c)
Natural selection led to increased mating frequency of black and brown versus gray and brown
d)
The gray mice were hardest to capture and so were underrepresented in the twenty-year sample
49.

To determine phylogenetic relationships, scientists use a variety of techniques and sources. Examples of this include comparing fossils, bone structures, behavior and molecular biology. Which of the following hypotheses could be tested using these techniques?

a)

Gas exchange in different organisms differs

b)

Life began in the Pacific ocean

c)
 Evidence of common ancestors can be determined
d)
Predator and prey relationships can be determined
50.

What is the main purpose of both relative dating and radiometric (radioactive) dating?

a)

To determine how old a fossil is

b)

To determine where the fossil fits in the fossil record

c)

To determine whether the fossil is a missing link

d)

To determine Earth’s age

51.

Most fossils form in

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

volcanic ash

c)

amber

d)

ice

52.

What is the main difference between relative dating and radiometric dating?

a)

Radiometric dating compares a fossil with the fossils of other plants and animals that are known to have lived in certain time periods

b)

Relative dating is based on other items found near the fossil, while radiometric dating is based on the fossil itself

c)

Relative dating is based on other species that are related to the species of the fossil, while radiometric dating is based on the soil nearby

d)

Radiometric dating is based on the half-life of isotopes, while relative dating is based on the placement of fossils near other fossils in layers of rock

53.

Humans have existed for ____ the geologic time scale.

a)

All of

b)

Most of

c)

Very little of

d)

About half of

54.

How old is the Earth?

a)

A few thousand years

b)

Millions of years

c)

Billions of years

d)

Too old to measure

55.

What is the geology Principle of Superposition?

a)

Newer layers (and fossils) are on top of older layers (and fossils)

b)

the ability of a quantum system to be in multiple states at the same time until it is measured

c)

it's the best position-- it's super

d)

older fossils are on top of newer fossils in rock layers

56.

Which was the earliest and accounts for about 88% of Earth’s history?

a)

Mesozoic Era

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Cenozoic Era

d)

Precambrian Time

57.

Which are we currently in?

a)

Mesozoic Era

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Cenozoic Era

d)

Precambrian Time

58.

The earliest prokaryotic life forms evolved without…

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

heat

59.

Which of the following is true regarding oxygen in the atmosphere of early Earth?

a)

the oxygen was introduced by photosynthetic bacteria

b)

the atmosphere always contained oxygen

c)

the oxygen killed off some life forms

d)

some organisms developed the ability to use oxygen for metabolism

60.

Which of the following are true regarding endosymbiotic theory?

a)

some ancient prokaryotes engulfed others that could perform photosynthesis

b)

some ancient prokaryotes engulfed others that could perform cellular respiration

c)

all eukaryotic organelles had prokaryotic ancestors

d)

chloroplasts and mitochondria had prokaryotic ancestors

e)

the nucleus, chloroplasts, and mitochondria all had prokaryotic ancestors

61.

Which of the following provide advantages to a species?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

being unicellular

e)

oxidative metabolism

62.

How did scientists decide when to end one era and begin another in geologic time?

a)

they divided geologic time into equal portions called eras

b)

mass extinctions mark the ends of eras

c)

the shift from anaerobic to aerobic life forms

d)

when punctuated equilibrium overtakes gradualism in the fossil record

63.

The process by which one species or small group of species evolves into several different forms that live in different ways is called...

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

co-evolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

phyletic speciation

64.

Which of the following commonly follow mass extinctions?

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

stasis

c)

ice ages

d)

co-evolution

65.

Unrelated organisms from different but similar environments come to resemble one another over time.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

66.

Two species evolve in response to one another.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

67.

Slow and steady change of biological species.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

68.

Biological species stay the same for long periods of time.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

69.

Rapid change of biological species following a long period of staying the same.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

70.

Genes that control the development and layout of an organism’s body.

a)

Hox genes

b)

autosomal genes

c)

fetal genes

d)

anatomical genes

71.

What were the earliest life forms?

a)

unicellular prokaryotes

b)

unicellular eukaryotes

c)

unicellular protists

d)

unicellular fungi

72.

What sort of organisms were there in the Precambrian?

a)

mammals

b)

prokaryotes

c)

eukaryotes

d)

dinosaurs

73.

What is the term for large-scale evolutionary patterns and processes that occur over long periods of time?

a)

macroevolution

b)

microevolution

c)

survival of the fittest

d)

genetic drift

74.

In the Miller-Urey experiment that simulated early Earth conditions, what was the most significant outcome?

a)

amino acids formed spontaneously

b)

they produced oxygen

c)

they created living cells

d)

they developed ribozymes

75.

What do scientists think was the most likely macromolecule from which life evolved?

a)

oxygen

b)

RNA

c)

proteins

d)

DNA

e)

phospholipids

76.

Which are true about ribozymes?

a)

they are proteins

b)

they are made of folded chains of RNA

c)

they catalyze chemical reactions

d)

some of them can assemble nucleotides

e)

they can catalyze their own synthesis

77.

To be considered members of the same species, organisms must be able to

a)

look alike

b)

reproduce together and have fertile offspring

c)

live in the same habitat

d)

eat the same types of food

78.

Feature that is similar in structure in different organisms but has different functions.

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

79.

Feature that is a result of convergent evolution.

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

80.

Feature that performs a similar function in different organisms but is not similar in origin or structure.

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

81.

Feature that is not evidence of a common ancestor

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

82.

Remnant of an organ or structure that had a function in an early ancestor

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

83.

Examples include the wing of a bat and the hand of a human

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

84.

Examples include the wing of a bird and the wing of an insect

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

85.

Examples include the pelvis and femur in whales and the appendix and wisdom teeth in humans

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

86.

The extent of molecular homologies between species is usually determined by analyzing

a)

DNA sequences

b)

amino acid sequences

c)

phospholipids

d)

large carbohydrates

87.

The final step in speciation is

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

88.

Isolation that exists when timing prevents reproduction between populations.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

89.

Isolation that involves physical barriers that divide a population into two or more groups.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

90.

Isolation that occurs when members of different populations can no longer mate successfully with each other.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

91.

Isolation caused by differences in courtship or mating behaviors.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

92.

Which of the following increase genetic diversity?

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

gene shuffling

c)

mutation

d)

asexual reproduction

e)

genetic drift

93.

the rise of 2 or more species from 1 existing species is...

a)

speciation

b)

natural selection

c)

genetic drift

d)

gene flow

94.

Which of these are prezygotic barriers?

a)

hybrid breakdown

b)

habitat isolation

c)

gametic isolation

d)

behavioral isolation

95.

Which of these are postzygotic barriers?

a)

hybrid breakdown

b)

reduced hybrid viability

c)

behavioral isolation

d)

reduced hybrid fertility

e)

temporal isolation

96.

Tracking neutral mutations to estimate the length of time two or more species have been evolving independently...

a)

cladogram

b)

molecular clock

c)

phylogeny

d)

synapomorphy

97.

Assumption that the most likely phylogenetic tree is the simplest one, with the fewest evolutionary events. Principle of...

a)

Maximum parsimony

b)

Maximum phylogeny

c)

Molecular clocks

d)

Simplest phylogeny

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